Pathology Question Bank: Assess Your Knowledge

PATHOLOGY Question bank Quiz 1 patho (1)Sarcoidosis can involve almost any organ system and it is characterized by formation of caseating granuloma a. False b. True (2)Edema or tissue swelling associated with inflammation results .11 directly from a. General vasoconstriction b. Increased fluid and protein in the interstitial compartment c. Decreased capillary permeability d. Increased phagocytes in the affected area (3)Sudan Black stain will help to identify amyloidosis by use of a .11 .polarizer to observe an apple green color a. False b. True .(4)Necrosis means death of one cell .12 a. False b. True Feedback (5)The warmth and redness related to the inflammatory response .12 results from a. Large number of wbcs entering the area b. Increased blood flow into the area c. Increased interstitial fluid d. Production of complement (6)All the following are features of Granulomatous inflammation .3 EXCEPT a. is a type IV hypersensitivity response b. contains epithelioid cells derived from tissue histiocytes c. is a feature of mycobacterial infection d. occurs in sarcoidosis e. shows dominant infiltration of tissue by plasma cells (7)Hydropic degeneration occurs in liver cells viral hepatitis .13 a. True b. False :(8) Keloid is a .14 a. Mass of tumor tissue b. Formation of keratinous cyst c. Excessive formation of keratin d. Mass of fibrous tissue (9)Russel Bodies Are degenerated plasma cells with intracellular .14 protein accumulation a. True b. False :(10)Labile cells are all of the following EXCEPT .15 a. Endometrial epithelium b. Liver cells c. Bone marrow cells d. Urinary tract epithelial lining (11)The gangrenous part become shrunken and mummified in .15 moist gangrene a. False b. True (12)Fracture of long bones is a common cause of fat embolism .16 a. True b. False Feedback (13)Replacement of damaged tissue by similar cells is termed .16 a. Regeneration b. Fibrosis c. Resolution d. Repair by scar tissue (14)Following an injury to a peripheral nerve all the following occur .17 :EXCEPT a. there is proliferation of Schwann cells in the distal cells b. sprouting of axons occurs in the stump of proximal axon c. central nerve body cell swollen with nuclear enlargement is a feature d. there is degeneration of axon and myelin proximal to the damage (15)Heart failure cells contain hemosiderin pigments .17 :Select one a. False b. True :(16)Apoptosis has the following features EXCEPT .18 a. Apoptosis is seen in pathologic processes only b. There is cell shrinkage in apoptosis c. There are no acute inflammatory cells surrounding apoptosis d. There may be single cell loss or affect clusters of cells (17)Malignant tumors are sharply demarcated and are often .18 .encapsulated in connective tissue a. False b. True (18)A pathologist notes the following findings after light .19 microscopic examination of a section of liver from a chronic alcoholic. ?Which of the following is an example of a reversible injury a. Karyolysis b. Pyknosis .c. Karyorrhexis d. Rupture of cell membrane e. Cytoplasmic vacuoles .(19)Benign tumors compress the normal, surrounding tissue .19 a. True b. False Feedback Inflammation is typically caused by pus-forming bacteria such as .2 .(20)_____ _____ and .a. Staph and Streptococcus b. Pseudomonas Aeruginosa and Staph c. Staph and Stenotrophomonas d. E. Coli and Streptococcus (21)Lobar pneumonia is an example of fibrinous inflammation .2 a. True b. False .(22)Malignant tumors invade the surrounding tissue by infiltration .20 a. False b. True (23)Which of the following explains the etiology of primary .20 ?hemochromatosis a. Increased intake of iron in diet b. Excessive release of iron from RBCs c. Abnormality leading to excessive intestinal absorption of iron d. Decreases ferritin synthesis by the liver e. Repeated blood transfusion (24)Amyloid deposits in the liver occur in .21 a. None of the above b. Sinusoidal basement membrane c. Liver cells d. Sinusoidal lumens .(25)Anaplasia means no Neoplasia .21 a. False b. True (26)Abnormal accumulation of excess mucin inside the epithelial .22 cells gives signet ring appearance a. True b. False :(27)Brown atrophy is characterized by .22 a. Carbon particles deposition b. Lipofuscin deposition c. Melanin deposition d. Hemosiderin deposition (28)Metaplasia means transformation of differentiated tissue to .23 .another differentiated one a. True b. False :(29)Russel bodies are .23 a. Degenerated plasma cells b. Plasma cells engulfing the bacilli c. Degenerated lymphocytes d. Histiocytes engulfing the bacilli :(30)Causes of hypercalcemia include all of the following EXCEPT .24 a. Destructive bone diseases b. Increased absorption of calcium from the intestine c. Hyperparathyroidism d. Hyperthyroidism .(31)Hemochromatosis is inborn error in iron metabolism .24 a. False b. True .(32)Sarcoma is malignant tumor of mesenchymal tissue .25 a. True b. False (33)The injury characterized by the intra- and extracellular .25 accumulations of abnormal quantities of a substance is called a. Degeneration b. Necrosis c. Apoptosis d. Infiltration .(34)Ischemia is reduction of venous blood supply to a tissue .26 a. False b. True (35)Widespread (systemic, general) hyalinosis of arterioles is found .26 :in a. Atherosclerosis b. Arterial hypertension c. Alcoholism d. Hyperemia (36)Carcinoma in situ (CIS) is invasive malignant changes in .27 .epithelial cells a. False b. True :(37)The cause of the liver fat change (steatosis) is .27 a. Hypoxia b. Hypertension c. Increased blood circulation d. Necrosis (38)Cardiac edema occurs in right-sided heart failure with chronic .28 .systemic venous congestion a. False b. True :(39)Group of endogenous pigments includes .28 a. Calcium salts in connective tissue b. Chronic lead poisoning c. proteins in tubular epithelium in kidney d. Bilirubin in hepatocytes’ cytoplasm .(40)Hyalinosis can be seen grossly by eyes .29 a. False b. True ?(41)What does Prussian blue test show .29 a. Calcium b. Bilirubin c. Hemosiderin d. Lipofuscin (42)Cancrum oris is an example of gas gangrene .3 a. False b. True :(43)Cellulitis is a .3 a. Necrotizing inflammation b. Caused by staphylococcus c. All of the above d. Localized suppuration e. None of the above ?(44)What is it true about lipofuscin .30 a. It is hemoglobin’s derivate b. Makes size of organ large c. Accumulates in cardiac muscle cytoplasm d. It is an exogenic pigment .(45)Papilloma is benign tumor of the protective surface epithelium .30 a. True b. False (46)Hypertrophy is increase in the number of cells, resulting in an .31 .increase in the size of the organ a. False b. True (47)What is wrong there in the characteristic of dystrophic .31 ?calcification a. It is a local process b. Tissue alkaline phosphatase is elevated c. There is hypercalcemia d. Calcium salts deposit in organs with pathological changes :(48)Metastatic calcification develops in .32 a. Hypercalcemia b. Hyperlipidemia c. Hypoxia d. Hemochromatosis .(49)The kidney is the most common site of amyloid deposition .32 a. True b. False .(50)Angiogenesis is new capillary loops formation .33 a. False b.True (51)Healing by secondary union is characterized by a big scar .34 a. False b. True :(52)Severe hydropic degeneration is called .34 a. Fat degeneration b. Mucoid degeneration c. Hyaline-drop degeneration d. Ballooning degeneration :(53)Amyloid it is the protein which can deposit .35 a. Into cells b. Between cells c. Into cellular nuclei d. Into necrotic focus (54)Granuloma is chronic specific inflammation .35 a. True b. False (55)At the histological investigation amyloid can be recognized .36 :with help of a. Sudan III b. Hematoxylin and eosin c. Congo-red d. Method of Van Geison .(56)Scar is formed of thin collagen and fibrocytes .36 a. False b. True :(57)Amyloid can be the complication of .37 a. Atherosclerosis b. Arterial hypertension c. Liver cirrhosis d. Chronic lung abscess .(58)Phlebothrombosis is thrombosis in non-inflamed veins .37 a. True b. False :(59)The most often cause of death in secondary amyloidosis is .38 a. Chronic cardiac failure b. Chronic renal failure c. Acute renal insufficiency d. Acute cardiac insufficiency .(60)Thrombophlebitis is thrombosis in non-inflamed veins .38 a. True b. False Quiz 2 patho .(1)Scar is formed of thin collagen and fibrocytes . a. True b. False :(2)Amyloid can be the complication of .37 a. Chronic lung abscess b. Arterial hypertension c. Liver cirrhosis d. Atherosclerosis .(3)Phlebothrombosis is thrombosis in non-inflamed veins .37 a. False b. True :(4)The most often cause of death in secondary amyloidosis is .38 a. Acute cardiac insufficiency b. Chronic cardiac failure c. Chronic renal failure d. Acute renal insufficiency .(5)Thrombophlebitis is thrombosis in non-inflamed veins .38 a. False b. True (6)The type of amyloidosis which develops as complication of .39 another disease is a. Secondary b. Primary c. Elderly d. Hereditary (7)Cellulitis is a localized acute suppurative inflammation .4 a. False b. True (8)The inflammatory exudate clots on standing because of its .4 content of a. Hyalouronidase b. Growth factors c. Inflammatory cell d. Fibrinogen e. Cytokines ?(9)Which of the following is not a type of embolus .44 a. Tumor b. Viral c. Bacteria d. Air (10)Regeneration means replacement of damaged tissue by fibrosis .5 a. True b. False (11)Transudate is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT .5 a. Clear yellow b. Low specific gravity c. No bacterial growth d. Coagulates e. Low protein content (12)An abscess is an example of a .6 a. Hemorrhagic exudate b. Fibrinous exudate c. Serous exudate d. Purulent exudate (13)Cells which never regenerate are called permanent cells .6 a. True b. False (14)Angiogenesis means abnormal formation of blood vessels .7 a. False b. True (15)The number of neutrophils is increased significantly .7 a. During allergic reactions b. To produce antibodies c. During chronic inflammation d. To increase phagocytosis (16)Repair of central nervous system occurs by gliosis .8 a. True b. False (17)Systemic manifestations of an inflammatory response include .8 a. Pain and tenderness b. Edmea and erythema c. Elevated c reactive protein and leukocytosis d. Area of necrosis and loss of function (18)In metastatic calcification the blood calcium level is normal .9 a. False b. True (19)The process of phagocytosis involves the .9 a. Formation of a fibrin mesh around the infected area b. Movement of erythrocytes through the capillary wall c. Shift of fluid and protein out of capillaries d. Ingestion of foreign material or cell debris by leukocytes (20)A 10 x 8 cm ovoid mass arising in the left ovary of a 38-year-old female is grossly cystic and filled with hair. Microscopically, this mass has benign appearing tissues that include squamous epithelium, :colonic glandular epithelium, and cartilage. The best diagnosis is a. Hamartoma b. Mesothelioma c. Teratoma d. Myxoma e. Choristoma (21)A 45-year-old patient complaining of recurrent inflammation at the back of his neck which discharge pus through multiple openings which :of the following investigations you prefer to start with a. chloride in urine b. haemoglobin in blood c. glucose in blood d. blood calcium level e. bilirubin in stool :(22)A basal cell carcinoma spreads by a. Transcoelomic b. lymph c. Blood d. direct extension (23)A biopsy is performed on a patient with a mass lesion that proves to be a neoplasm. Of the following histopathologic findings, the one :that best indicates that a neoplasm is malignant is a. Invasion b. Increased nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio c. Atypia d. Pleomorphism e. Necrosis (24)A hypertensive patient with enlarged left kidney and stenosis of right renal artery showed smaller right kidney than normal. The size :change in the right kidney is an example of a. Hyperplasia b. Hypertrophy c. Aplasia d. Atrophy :(25)A localized suppuration with multiple sinuses is called a. carbuncle b. furuncle c. abscess d. cellulites (26)A painful mass formed at the site of a healed wound (especially :amputation site) is usually a. a neuroma b. implantation cyst c. keloid d. a vascular nodule :(27)A paraplegic patient aged 30 yrs., he is expected to have a. Increase of the blood supply of the tissue b. Hyperplasia of the calf muscles c. Atrophy of the calf muscles d. Hypertrophy of the calf muscles :(28)A propagated thrombus is a. detached thrombus from the heart b. detached thrombus from an artery c. detached thrombus from the lower limb d. a thrombus that extends along a vein towards the heart (29)A surgical pathology report indicates that a certain neoplasm is graded as I on a scale of I to IV. Clinically, this neoplasm is stage I. :These findings imply that this neoplasm a. Has an in situ component b. May spread via lymphatics c. Is not malignant d. Is well-differentiated and localized e. Has probably arisen from epithelium :(30)All of the following are features of cellulitis except a. caused by streptococcus hemolyticus b. the inflammatory cells include plasma cells c. common in diabetics d. occurs in loose tissue :(31)An osteoclastoma is a. A metastatic tumour of bone b. A locally malignant tumour c. An insitu tumour d. A benign tumour of bone :(32)Anaplastic tumor is a tumor in which the tissue is a. Undifferentiated b. Well-differentiated c. Poorly differentiated d. Moderatly differentiated (33)As part of a routine checkup, a 44-year-old female has an abnormal cervical smear with cells present showing features of dysplasia. If left :untreated, she is at risk for development of cervical a. Metaplasia b. Hyperplasia c. Sarcoma d. Atypia e. Carcinoma :(34)Carcinoma in situ is a. Carcinoma with bad prognosis b. None invasive carcinoma c. Occult carcinoma d. Carcinoma occuring in certain sites e. Carcinoma of unknown origin :(35)Cells of signet ring appearance are seen in a. Mucoid degeneration b. Hyaline degeneration c. Myxomatous degeneration d. Amyloidosis :(36)Edema it is .a. Increased blood filling of organ, tissue .b. Difficulties of venous blood outflow .c. Plasmatic infiltration .d. Exudate accumulation .e. Increased containment of interstitial fluid :(37)End arteritis obliterans means a. Narrowing of small blood vessels surrounded by fibrosis .b. Obliteration of the lumen of small blood vessels c. Vasoconstriction of arterioles only d. Vasoconstriction of small blood vessels (38)Firm mass of blood constituents in circulating blood attached to :the vessel during life called a. thrombus b. embolus c. haematoma d. clot :(39)Fragmentation of necrotic nuclei is called a. karyorrhexis b. hyperchromatism c. karyolysis d. pyknosis :(40)Healing by secondary intention is a. associated with excessive scarring .b. common in surgical incision c. rarely complicated d. associated with little healthy granulation tissue :(41)Heart failure cells are seen in chronic venous congestion of the a. lungs b. liver c. spleen d. heart :(42)Hyperplastic tissues a. Usually results in an increase of the blood supply of the tissue b. Are always irreversible lesions c. May become neoplastic d. Show marked cellular pleomorphism :(43)Hypertrophy is characterized by all of the following except a. May be associated with hyperplasia b. Not always pathological c. Precancerous d. Common in the heart e. Usually results in an increase of the blood supply of the tissue :(44)Not a cause of infective granuloma a. silicosis b. tuberculosis c. leishmaniasis d. amebiasis (45)On examining a biopsy of a primary tumour, the clearest evidence :of malignancy is provided by a. nuclear aberrations b. basophilia of cytoplasm c. Absence of capsule d. Invasion of surrounding structure e. excess mitosis (46)Rodent ulcer is a. Squamous cell carcinoma b. Transitional cell carcinoma c. Squamous cell papilloma d. Basal cell carcinoma :(47)Signet ring carcinoma is a type of a. Transitional cell carcinoma b. Adenocarcinoma c. Squamous cell carcinoma d. Basal cell carcinoma (48)Soft mass of blood constituents in a stagnant blood inside the :vessel during life called a. thrombus b. embolus c. haematoma d. clot (49)The commonest site of basal cell carcinoma is a. Face b. Upper limbs c. Lower limbs d. Trunk :(50)The condition that is not a manifestation of haemorrhage is a. epistaxis b. melena c. melanosis d. petechiae e. ecchymosis :(51)The following factor impairs healing .a. absence of infection b. corticosteroid c. young age d. vitamins :(52)The following malignant tumours are common in childhood a. Neuroblastome b. Leukaemia c. All of the above d. Lymphoma e. Hepatoblastoma :(53)The liver was called “nutmeg” in .a. Shock .b. Anemia .c. Chronic venous congestion .d. Acute venous congestion .e. DIC-syndrome :(54)The Malignant Ulcer has .a. Sharp edge with necrotic hemorrhagic floor .b. Punched out edge with greyish granular floor .c. Undermined edge with smooth floor .d. Everted Edge with necrotic floor .e. Undermined edge with yellow Caseous Floor (55)The most frequent type of embolism is produced by a. detached thrombi b. malignant cells c. parasites d. fat e. air (56)The most important histologic feature that differentiates sarcoma :from carcinoma is a. Necrosis is more marked b. Stroma separates individual cells c. Criteria of malignancy are more prominant d. Vascularity is more marked (57)The spleen of a 26 year old male who died from complications of subacute bacterial endocarditis is seen at autopsy. On sectioning reveals a tan to white, wedge-shaped lesion with base on the capsule. :This finding most likely represents the result of a. Metaplasia b. Coagulative necrosis c. Abscess formation d. Liquefactive necrosis e. Caseous necrosis :(58)Tumor grading is concerned with .a. Lymph nodal metastasis of the tumor .b. Blood metastasis of the tumor .c. Tumor cell invasion of the basement membrane .d. Anatomical extent of the tumor .e. Tumor Cells' differentiation :(59)Virchow’s triad is concerned with the formation of a. thrombus b. haematoma c. ecchymosis d. embolus :(60)Wet gangrene usually develops in a. Bowel b. Liver c. Kidney d. Brain .e. Myocardium Pharmacology Quiz 1 pharma Question Bank 1. A 10-year-old male displays hyperreactivity and is unable to focus schoolwork because of inability to focus on the reactivity. Which of the might prove effective in this patient? a. Terbutaline b. Dobutamine c. Amphitamine d. Prazocin 2. A drug "S"produces no response by itself causes the log dose-response curve of another drug "X" to shift to the right in a parallel manner without decreasing the masimal response: Drug "S" is a a. Non-competitive antagonist b. Partial agonist c. Competitive antagonist d. Inverse agonist 3. According to drug absorption all of these scentences areb correct EXEPT: a. The highly lipid soluble the drug,the less absorped one. b. Blood flow to the absorption area is directly proportional to its degree to absorp drug. c. Influx & efflux of drug through the cell membrane is affected by the transporters. d. GIT motility affect drug absorption. 4. Acetylcholine is not used in clinical practice because: a. The doses required are very high b. It is very costly c. It is very rapidly hydrolyzed d. It is very toxic 5. Alkalanization of urine fastens the excretion of which of the following a. Strong electrolyte b. Weakly basic drugs c. Nonpolar drugs d. Weakly acidic drugs 6. Alkalnization of urine hastens which type of drugs? a. Nonpolar drugs. b. Basic dugs. c. Acidic drugs. 7. All of the following drugs are antibiotics, EXCEPT: a. Chloramphenicol b. Streptomycin c. Co-trimoxazole d. Penicillin 8. All of the following regarding sublingual route of drug administration is true Except: a. Drugs are given under neath the tounge. b. Drugs are given have rapid therapeutic effect. c. Drugs given by it bypass liver metabolism. d. Drugs are given lack the advantage of overcome ing FIRST BYPASS METABOLISM. 9. All the total amount of a drug present in the body ar a given moment is 2.0 Its plasma concentration is 25 /ml, its volume of distribution is a. 80L b. 50L c. 60 L d. 100L 10. An agonist is a substance that: a. Increases concentration of another substance to produce effect b. Interacts with the receptor and initiates changes in cell function, producing various effects c. Interacts with plasma proteins and doesn't produce any effect d. Interacts with the receptor without producing any effect 11. Bactericidal effect is: a. Formation of bacterial L-form b. Inhibition of bacterial cell division c. Inhibition of young bacterial cell growth d. Destroying of bacterial cells 12. Bacteristatic effect is: a. Inhibition of young bacterial cells growth b. Inhibition of bacterial cell division c. Destroying of bacterial cells d. Formation of bacterial L-form 13. Bethanechol has all of the following properties EXCEPT: Select one: a. It exerts both nicotinic and muscarinic effects b. It is used for abdominal urinary bladder distention c. Purely muscarinic in its action d. It is extremely resistant to hydrolysis 14. Characteristics of carbachol include all of the following EXCEPT: a. It exerts both nicotinic and muscarinic effects b. It causes mydriasis c. It decreases intraocular pressure d. It is resistant to acethylcholiesterase 15. Characteristics of ephedrine include all of the following EXCEPT: a. It causes tachyphylaxis with repeated administration b. It decreases arterial pressure c. It acts primarily through the release of stored cathecholamines d. It is a mild CNS stimulant 16. Characteristics of pilocarpine include all of the following EXCEPT: a. It is a tertiary amine alkaloid b. It causes miosis and a decrease in intraocular pressure c. It can be used in treatment of dry mouth d. Causes a decrease in secretory and motor activity of gut 17. Characteristics of salmeterol include all of the following EXCEPT: a. It causes uterine relaxation b. It is used in the therapy of asthma c. It is a potent selective beta2 agonist d. It stimulates heart rate, contractility and cardiac output 18. Cholinergic action on stomach acid secretion is; a. All of above b. Decreased c. There is no effect d. Increased 19. Combination of sulfonamides with trimethoprim: a. Increases the antimicrobial activity b. Decreases the antimicrobial activity c. Decreases the unwanted effects of sulfonamides d. Increases the elimination of sulfonamides 20. Combined chemotherapy of tuberculosis is used to: a. Increase mycobacterium drug-resistance b. Decrease the antimicrobial activity c. Decrease mycobacterium drug-resistance d. Decrease the onset of antimycobacterial drugs biotransformation 21. Compared with epinephrine, ephedrine produces all of the following features EXCEPT: a. It is a direct-acting sympathomimetic b. It is resistant to MAO and has much longer duration of action c. Its effects are similar, but it is less potent d. It has oral activity 22. Down regulation of receptors can occur as a consequence of: a. Continuous use of antagonists b. Denervation c. Chronic use of CNS depressants d. Continuous use or agonists 23. Down regulation of the receptors can occur in which of the following? a. Denervation. b. Chronic use of CNS depressant. c. Coninuose use of antagonist. d. Continuose use of agonist. 24. Drug administrated through which of the following routes is most likely to be subjected to first metabolism a. Rectal b. Subcutaneous c. Sublingual d. Oral 25. Drug efficacy refers to a. The therapeutic index of the drug b. The therapeutic dose range of the drug c. The range of diseases in which the drug is beneficial d. The maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug 26. Due to receptor specificity, catecholamine least likely to produce bronchial smooth muscle relaxation is; a. Phenylephrine b. Terbutaline c. prazosin d. Epinephrine 27. Edrophonium is drug of choice for differentiation between Mysthenia Graves & cholinergic crisis because of: a. Long duration of action b. Short duration of action c. Selective inhibition of true cholinesterase d. Direct action on motor end plate 28. Effective in treatment of organophosphorus toxicity; a. propranolol b. Atropine c. Nicotine d. Adrenaline 29. Ephedrine causes: a. Hypotension b. Miosis c. Bronchodilation d. Bradycardia 30. Ethambutol has the following unwanted effect: a. Hepatotoxicity b. Retrobulbar neuritis with red-green color blindness c. Cardiotoxicity d. Immunetoxicity 31. Fluoroquinolones are active against: a. Variety of Gram-negative and positive microorganisms, including Mycoplasmas and Chlamidiae b. Mycoplasmas and Chlamidiae only c. Gram negative microorganisms only d. Gram positive microorganisms only 32. Hexamethonium blocks the action of acethylcholine and similar agonists at: a. Neuromuscular junction b. Muscarinic receptor site c. Axonal transmission d. Autonomic ganglia 33. If an agonist can produce maximal effects and has high efficacy it's called: a. Antagonist b. Full agonist c. Partial agonist d. Agonist-antagonist 34. If an agonist can produce submaximal effects and has moderate efficacy it's called: a. Agonist-antagonist b. Antagonist c. Partial agonist d. Full agonist 35. Indicate an antimuscarinic drug, which is effective in the treatment of mushroom poising: a. Homatropine b. Atropine c. Pilocarpine d. Pralidoxime 36. Indicate the reversible cholinesterase inhibitor, which penetrate barrier: a. Piridostigmine b. Drophonium c. Neostigmine. d. Physostigmine 37. Indicate the sympathomimetic drug, which is used in a hypotensive emergency: a. Phenylephrine b. Terbutaine c. Ephedrine d. Xylometazoline 38. Isoniazid has following unwanted effect: a. Hepatotoxicity, peripheral neuropathy b. Loss of hair c. Cardiotoxicity d. Immunotoxicity 39. Majority of drugs cross biological membranes primarily by a. Passive diffusion b. Facilitated diffusion c. Pinocytosis d. Active transport 40. Mechanism of Isoniazid action is: a. Inhibition of RNA synthesis b. Inhibition of ADP synthesis c. Inhibition of mycolic acids synthesis d. Inhibition of protein synthesis 41. Mechanism of Rifampin action is: a. Inhibition of cAMP synthesis b. Inhibition of DNA dependent RNA polymerase c. Inhibition of topoisomerase II d. Inhibition of mycolic acids synthesis 42. Mechanism of Streptomycin action is: a. Inhibition of RNA and DNA synthesis b. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis c. Inhibition of protein synthesis d. Inhibition of cell membranes permeability 43. Mechanism of sulfonamides antibacterial effect is: a. Inhibition of dihydropteroate synthase b. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase c. Activation of DNA gyrase d. Inhibition of dihydropteroate reductase 44. Mechanism of Trimethoprim’ action is: a. Inhibition of DNA gyrase b. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase c. Inhibition of dihydropteroate reductase d. Inhibition of dihydropteroate synthase 45. Of the following, which is a phase Il biotransformation reaction a. Ester by hydrolysis b. Sulfate conjugation c. Sulfoxide formation. d. Nitro reduction. 46. One of the following anticholinestrases is used in the diagnosis gravis a. Edrophonium. b. Pyridostigmine. c. Neostigmine. d. Physostigmine. 47. One of the following drugs needs to know its TDM[therapeutic drug monitoring]: a. Noradrenalin b. Atropine c. Adrenalin d. Digoxin 48. Parasympathomimetic drugs cause: a. Mydriasis b. Bronchodilation c. Bradycardia d. Constipation 49. Pharmacodynamics involves the study of following? a. Biotransformation of drugs in the organism b. Distribution of drugs in the organism c. Mechanisms of drug action d. Excretion of drug from the organism 50. Pick out the appropriate alimentary route of administration when passage of drugs through liver is minimized• a. Intraduodenal b. Transdermal c. Rectal d. Oral 51. Pick out the parenteral route of medicinal agent administration: a. Sublingual b. Rectal c. Oral d. Inhalation 52.Q-methyl noradrenaline a. Is an antihypertensive agent acting to competitively antagonize alpha 1 b. Is a selective 2 adrenoceptor agonist centrally acting to lower blood pressure c. Is a non-selective a adrenoceptor agonist. d. Is a relatively selective antagonist of B1 adrenoceptors. 53. Regarding adrenergic receptors, all the following statements are TRUE EXCEPT: a. Stimulation of beta2 adrenergic receptors results in bronchodilator b. Adrenergic receptors are distributed on smooth muscle c. Stimulation of alpha2 adrenergic receptors stimulates the release of norepinephrine d. Stimulation of beta1 adrenergic receptors results in tachycardia. 54. Regarding atropine, one of the following statements is INCORRECT: a. It is a competitive antagonist of muscarinic receptors. b. It is used in the treatment of urinary retention. c. It is used in the treatment of organophorous poisoning. d. It suppresses sweating. 55. Regarding the AGONIST prpoperities: a. It is a drug that binds to the receptor with the same action of the endogenous substance. b. It has both affinity & intrinsic activity to the receptor. c. Both A&B are true only. d. It has only affinity without intrinsic activity to the receptor. 56. Resorptive sulfonamides have the following unwanted effects on blood system: a. All of the above b. Hemolytic anemia c. Granulocytopenia d. Thrombocytopenia 57. Streptomycin has the following unwanted effect: a. Retrobulbar neuritis with red-green color blindness b. Ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity c. Hepatotoxicity d. Cardiotoxicity 58. Sulfonamide potency is decreased in case of co-administration with: a. Non-narcotic analgesics b. Local anesthetics – derivatives of paraaminobenzoic acid c. Local anesthetics – derivatives of benzoic acid d. Oral hypoglycemic agents 59. Sulfonamides are effective against: a. Bacteria and Chlamydia b. All of the above c. Protozoa d. Actinomyces 60. Sulfonamides have the following unwanted effects: a. Hematopoietic disturbances b. Nausea, vomiting and diarrhea c. Crystalluria d. All of the above Quiz 2 pharma (1)Regarding adrenergic receptors, all the following statements are TRUE EXCEPT a. Adrenergic receptors are distributed on smooth muscle .b. Stimulation of beta1 adrenergic receptors results in tachycardia c. Stimulation of beta2 adrenergic receptors results in bronchodilator d. Stimulation of alpha2 adrenergic receptors stimulates the release of norepinephrine :(2)Regarding atropine, one of the following statements is INCORRECT .a. It suppresses sweating .b. It is used in the treatment of organophorous poisoning .c. It is a competitive antagonist of muscarinic receptors .d. It is used in the treatment of urinary retention :(3)Regarding the AGONIST prpoperities .a. It has only affinity without intrinsic activity to the receptor .b. Both A&B are true only c. It is a drug that binds to the receptor with the same action of the endogenous .substance .d. It has both affinity & intrinsic activity to the receptor :(4)Resorptive sulfonamides have the following unwanted effects on blood system a. Thrombocytopenia b. All of the above c. Hemolytic anemia d. Granulocytopenia :(5)Streptomycin has the following unwanted effect a. Cardiotoxicity b. Hepatotoxicity c. Ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity d. Retrobulbar neuritis with red-green color blindnes :(6)Sulfonamide potency is decreased in case of co-administration with a. Local anesthetics – derivatives of paraaminobenzoic acid b. Oral hypoglycemic agents c. Non-narcotic analgesics d. Local anesthetics – derivatives of benzoic acid :(7)Sulfonamides are effective against a. Bacteria and Chlamydia b. All of the above c. Protozoa d. Actinomyces :(8)Sulfonamides have the following unwanted effects a. Hematopoietic disturbances b. Nausea, vomiting and diarrhea c. All of the above d. Crystalluria :(9)Target proteins which a drug molecule binds are a. All of the above b. Only receptors c. Only ion channels d. Only carriers :(10)The antibacterial drug that is a fluoroquinolone derivative a. Nalidixic acid b. Ciprofloxacin c. Chloramphenicol d. Nitrofurantoin :(11)The antibacterial drug that is a nitrofurane derivative a. Nitrofurantoin b. Trimethoprim c. Ciprofloxacin d. Nystatin :(12)The antibacterial drug that is a nitroimidazole derivative a. Nitrofurantoin b. Doxycycline c. Metronidazole d. Clavulanic acid :(13)The antibacterial drug that is a quinolone derivative a. Metronidazole b. Nitrofurantoin c. Nalidixic acid d. Streptomycin :(14)The antimycobacterial drug belonging to antibiotics is a. Ethambutol b. Isoniazid c. Rifampin d. PAS :(15)The antimycobacterial drug belonging to second-line agents is a. Rifampin b. Isoniazid c. PAS d. Streptomycin :(16)The antimycobacterial drug hydrazide of isonicotinic acid a. Pyrazinamide b. Ethambutol c. Rifampin d. Isoniazid :(17)The atropine poisoning includes all of the following symptoms EXCEPT a. Bradicardia, orthostatic hypotension b. Hyperthermia, dry mouth, hot and flushed skin c. Agitation and delirium d. Mydriasis, cycloplegia :(18)The drug of choice for syphilis treatment is a. Doxycycline b. Penicillin c. Gentamycin d. Chloramphenicol (19)The following measures are necessary for prevention of sulfonamide precipitation :and crystalluria a. Taking of drinks with acid pH b. Restriction of drinking c. Taking of saline drinks d. Taking of drinks with alkaline pH (20)The intrinsic activity or efficacy of a drug is .a. Related to its maximal effect .b. The amount of drug in relation to its effect .c. Related to its affinity to a receptor site .d. Measure of its potency :(21)The loading dose of a drug is governed by its a. Renal clearance b. Elimination rate constant c. Volume of distribution d. Plasma half-life :(22)The mechanism of fluoroquinolones action is a. Inhibition of bacterial cell synthesis b. Alteration of cell membrane permeability c. Inhibition of phospholipase C d. Inhibition of DNA gyrase :(23)The reasons determine bioavailability are a. Glomerular filtration rate b. Rheological parameters of blood c. Amount of a substance obtained orally and quantity of intakes d. Extent of absorption and hepatic first-pass effect :(24)The treatment of the antimuscarinic effects can be carried out with a. Acetylcholine b. Neostigmine c. Hexametonium d. Homatropine :(25)Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-carbapenems a. Imipinem b. Tetracycline c. Aztreonam d. Amoxacillin :(26)Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-macrolides a. Neomycin b. Erythromycin c. Cefotaxime d. Doxycycline :(27)Tick the drug used for amoebiasis treatment a. Mefloquine b. Iodoquinol c. Nitrofurantoin d. Pyrazinamide :(28)Tick the drug used for malaria chemoprophylaxis and treatment a. Sulfonamides b. Chloroquine c. Quinidine d. Quinine :(29)Tick the drug used for toxoplasmosis treatment a. Tetracyclin b. Suramin c. Chloroquine d. Pyrimethamine :(30)Tick the drug used for trichomoniasis treatment a. Metronidazole b. Suramin c. Tetracycline d. Pyrimethamine :(31)Tick the drug, which is effective against mycobacteria only a. Streptomycin b. Kanamycin c. Isoniazid d. Rifampin :(32)Tick the feature of the sublingual route a. Pretty fast absorption b. A drug is exposed to gastric secretion c. A drug can be administrated in a variety of doses d. A drug is exposed more prominent liver metabolism :(33)Tick the indications for fluoroquinolones a. Infections of the urinary tract b. Infections of the urinary and respiratory tract, bacterial diarrhea c. Bacterial diarrhea d. Respiratory tract infections :(34)Tick the indications for Metronidazole a. Influenza b. As a disinfectant c. Intra-abdominal infections, vaginitis, enterocolitis d. Pneumonia :(35)Tick the indications for nitrofuranes a. Infections of respiratory tract b. Infections of urinary and gastro-intestinal tracts c. Syphilis d. Tuberculosis :(36)Tick the unwanted effects of fluoroquinolones a. Hallucinations b. Immunetoxicity c. Headache, dizziness, insomnia d. Hypertension :(37)Tick the unwanted effects of Metronidazole a. All of the above b. Hypertension c. Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, stomatitis d. Disturbances of peripheral blood circulation :(38)Tick the unwanted effects of nitrofuranes a. Nausea, vomiting b. All of the above c. Allergic reactions d. Hemolytic anemia :(39)True cholinesterase found in a. Bone marrow b. Liver c. Plasma d. Erythrocyte :(40)Types of antagonism are .a. Pharmacological antagonism .b. All of above .c. Physiological antagonism .d. Chemical antagonism :(41)Types of drug receptors are a. Ligand-gated ionic channel receptors .b. All of the above .c. G-protein coupled receptors .d. Tyrosin –kinase linked receptors ?(42)What does "affinity" mean a. A measure of how tightly a drug binds to a receptor b. A measure of bioavailability of a drug c. A measure of how tightly a drug binds to plasma proteins d. A measure of inhibiting potency of a drug ?(43)What does the term "bioavailability" mean a. Plasma protein binding degree of substance b. Fraction of an uncharged drug reaching the systemic circulation following any route administration c. Amount of a substance in urine relative to the initial doze d. Permeability through the brain-blood barrier ?(44)What is characteristic of the oral route a. The sterilization of medicinal forms is obligatory b. Absorption depends on GI tract secretion and motor function c. Fast onset of effect d. A drug reaches the blood passing the liver ?(45)«What is implied by «active transport a. Engulf of drug by a cell membrane with a new vesicle formation b. Transport without energy consumption c. Transport against concentration gradient d. Transport of drugs through a membrane by means of diffusion ?(46)Which drug does not induce mydriasis a. Norepinephrine b. Phentolamine c. Ephe d. Phenylephrine (47)Which of the following agents blocks the release of neurotransmitter from cholinergic nerve endings a. Edrophonium b. Tubocurarine c. Succinylcholine d. Botulin toxin (48)Which of the following agents is a competitive antagonist at the neuromuscular ?junction nicotinic cholinoceptors a. Succinylcholine b. Atracium c. Dantrolene d. atropine (49)Which of the following antibiotics contains a beta-lactam ring in their chemical :structure a. Penicillins b. Cephalosporins c. All groups d. Carbapenems and monobactams (50)Which of the following direct-acting cholinomimetics has the shortest duration of ?action a. Acetylcholine b. Methacholine c. Carbachol d. Bethanechol (51)Which of the following direct-acting cholinomimetics is mainly muscarinic in ?action a. Acetylcholine b. Carbachol c. Bethanechol d. None of the above ?(52)Which of the following groups of antibiotics demonstrates a bactericidal effect a. Penicillins b. Tetracyclines c. Macrolides d. All of the above :(53)Which of the following groups of antibiotics demonstrates a bacteristatic effect a. Macrolides b. Cephalosporins c. Carbapenems d. Aminoglycosides ?(54)Which of the following is a G-protein coupled receptors a. Glucocorticoid b. Insulin c. Nicotinice d. Muscarinic (55)Which of the following is not an intracellular second messenger for signal ?transduction a. G-proteins b. Diacylglycerol c. Cyclic AMP d. Inositol triphosphate :(56)Which of the following statements about atropine is INCORRECT a. It has a central effect b. It is used in the treatment of poisoning with organophosphorous antichi drugs c. It is used in the treatment of urinary retention d. It can cause hyperthermia in a hot climate :(57)Which of the following statements is INCORRECT .a. In general most drugs are made more polar by metabolism !b. Lipid soluble drugs are readily absorbed across mucous membrane c. Basic drugs are ionised to a greater extent in an acidic than in a basic environment d. Acidic drugs are ionized to a greater extent in an acidic environment (58)Which of the following sympathomimetics is preferable for the treatment of ?chronic orthostatic hypotension a. Ephedrine b. Salmeterol c. Norepinephrine d. Epinephrine ? (59)Which one of the following drugs does NOT activate B- adrenoceptors .a. Noradrenaline .b. Dobutamine .c. Dopamine d. Methoxamine ?(60)Which route of drug administration is most likely to lead to the first-pass effect a. Intramuscular b. Intravenous c. Sublingual d. Oral