1. A nurse is teaching a client with bone marrow suppression about the time frame when bone suppression will be noticeable after administration of floxuridine. What is the time frame the nurse should include with client teaching? a. 7 to 14 days i. Rationale: Bone marrow suppression becomes noticeable 7 to 14 days after floxuridine administration. Bone marrow recovery occurs in 21 to 28 days. 2. A vasoactive medication is prescribed for a patient in shock to help maintain MAP and hemodynamic stability. A medication that acts on the alpha-adrenergic receptors of the SNS is ordered. Its purpose is to: a. Constrict blood vessels in the cardiorespiratory system i. Rationale: Alpha- and beta-adrenergic receptors work synergistically to improve hemodynamic stability. Alpha receptors constrict blood vessels in the cardiorespiratory and gastrointestinal systems, as well as in the skin and kidneys. 3. Monitored anesthesia care differs from moderate sedation in that monitored anesthesia care: a. May result in the administration of general anesthesia i. Rationale: monitored anesthesia care may require the anesthesiologist to convert to general anesthesia 4. When taking a client history, the nurse notes that the client is taking herbal remedies in addition to acetaminophen. Which herb, when taken in conjunction with acetaminophen, enhances the risk of bleeding? a. Ginko i. Rationale: ginkgo, when taken with acetaminophen enhances the risk of bleeding 5. A client has developed drug-induced hepatitis from a drug reaction to antidepressants. What treatment does the nurse anticipate the client will receive to treat the reaction? a. High dose corticosteroids i. Rationale: Drug-induced hepatitis occurs when a drug reaction damages the liver. This form of hepatitis can be severe and fatal. High-dose corticosteroids usually administered first to treat the reaction. 6. A client is receiving nitroglycerin ointment to treat angina pectoris. The nurse evaluates the therapeutic effectiveness of this drug by assessing the client's response and checking for adverse effects. Which vital sign is most likely to reflect an adverse effect of nitroglycerin? a. Blood pressure 84/52 mm Hg i. Rationale: Hypotension and headache are the most common adverse effects of nitroglycerin. Therefore, blood pressure is the vital sign most likely to reflect an adverse effect of this drug. The nurse should check the client's blood pressure 1 hour after administering nitroglycerin ointment. A blood pressure decrease of 10 mm Hg is within the therapeutic range. If blood pressure falls more than 20 mm Hg below baseline, the nurse should remove the ointment and report the finding to the physician immediately. An above-normal heart rate (tachycardia) is a less common adverse effect of nitroglycerin. 7. Which of the following drugs may be used after a seizure to maintain a seizure-free state? a. Phenobarbital i. Rationale: Medications (phenytoin, phenobarbital) are administered later to maintain a seizure-free state. In general, a single drug is used to control the seizures. 8. Which class of medication lyses and dissolves thrombi? a. Fibrinolytic i. Rationale: Thrombolytic (fibrinolytic) therapy lyses and dissolves thrombi in 50% of clients. 9. A client with breast cancer is scheduled to undergo chemotherapy with aromatase inhibitors. Which of the following best reflects the rationale for using this group of drugs? a. They lower the level of estrogen in the body blocking the tumor’s ability to use it i. Rationale: Aromatase inhibitors lower the level of estrogen in the body thereby interfering with the ability of hormone-sensitive tumors to use estrogen for growth. 10. A nurse evaluates the potential effects of a client's medication therapies before surgery. Which drug classification may cause respiratory depression from an associated electrolyte imbalance during anesthesia? a. Diuretics i. Rationale: Diuretics during anesthesia may cause excessive respiratory depression resulting from an associated electrolyte imbalance.