Heredity or Environment 1. Rather than ask which is more important, heredity or environment, what is a better question? *A. What percentage of the observed behavior depends on heredity? B. What percentage of the observed behavior depends on environment? C. What happens when people have no heredity or no environment? D. Do differences among people depend more on differences in heredity or environment? Correct %: 0 Comments: This was obviously a horrible question. Nobody even guessed the answer that was selected as correct. On second look, it makes sense. The only answer that could have potentially been correct is answer D. When looking at the heritability debate, researchers are now interested in the balance of genes/environment, not whether or not it’s one or the other. 2. The X chromosome has the colorblindness gene. Why is colorblindness more common in men? *A. Men have only one X chromosome. B. Men have two X chromosomes. C. Women have no X chromosomes. D. Men’s X chromosome is larger than women’s X chromosome. Correct %: 88 Comments: This question required knowledge about two topics to understand the correct response. First, there had to be a comprehension that males have in their 23rd chromosome pair an XY combination—while females have an XX combination. Second, there had to be a realization that if something is linked to a chromosome, that would mean that genetic information within that chromosome will cause something to emerge, but only if there wasn’t something to counter it in a similar chromosome. Since males only have 1 X chromosome, if the gene is found on that chromosome, there’s no chance to counter that gene with a similar chromosome (like it can be done for females). 3. In the heritability equation, ENS refers to the impact that ____________ has on a characteristic. A. neural stimulus B. neural status *C. non-shared environment D. ecological neutral situation Correct %: 94 Comments: When determining heritability, researchers have attempted to link different characteristics to a) shared environments, b) genetics, and c) non-shared environments. ENS is the symbol used to represent the proportion of a characteristic that can be tied to the non-shared environment. Coincidentally, a lot of research has shown that this is a VERY important factor in many different characteristics. 4. Dizygotic twins have roughly ______ of their genes in common. A. 25% *B. 50% C. 75% D. 100% Correct %: 80 Comments: Dizygotic twins are siblings born at/near the same moment. Unlike monozygotic twins, they are not from the same original zygote. Instead, they are siblings that grew up at the same time through two separately fertilized eggs. Because of this detail, they technically share the same amount of genetic overlap as traditional siblings. This would indicate that they have roughly 50% of their genes overlapping with each other—even though their shared environment factors are much higher than traditional siblings. 5. Which would be an example of someone’s phenotype? A. The genetic make-up that indicates a person’s eye color. *B. The actual color of someone’s eye. C. The lenses that a person wears to make their eyes a different color. D. The result of injecting a dye into someone’s iris in order to make it a different color. Correct %: 90 Comments: Phenotype refers to the outward manifestation of someone’s genetic endowments. Eye color is a great example of how we can differentiate between phenotype and genotype. Namely, you can have two individuals with the exact same eye color (phenotype), but their genetic codes associated with eye color can be different (genotype). This mismatch highlights the importance of dominant and recessive genes when determining characteristics. 6. Research on birth order and families has shown that A. intelligence scores increase in latter born children of larger families. B. the size of a family has no impact on intelligence scores of the offspring. *C. IQ scores drop in individuals on average as the family size and birth order increase. D. only children struggle on IQ tests, but other than that, small families score higher than larger families. Correct %: 86 Comments: Several studies have looked at the topic of intelligence and birth order/family size. We have consistently found that on average—ON AVERAGE—the IQ of siblings tend to drop as they move down the birth order. Moreover, IQ levels of larger families tend to be lower than those of smaller families. There have been a litany of theories and studies attempting to explain why this is the case, but the statistical findings on the topic are considered very concrete at this time. 7. Research on birth order and the Big 5 suggest that _____________ are higher in later born children— though the evidence is not especially strong. A. extraversion and agreeableness *B. agreeableness and openness to experience C. agreeableness and conscientiousness D. conscientiousness and openness to experience Correct %: 49 Comments: This was apparently a difficult question. It is indeed true that agreeableness and openness to experience levels do go up in individuals as they work their way down the birth order in their families. It is difficult to conclusively say why this is the case, and the statistics are nowhere near absolute, but some have suggested that this effect can be tied to the way the family interacts with each child as they emerge into the world. 8. The concept of evocation in the context of developmental psychology suggests that *A. we have an impact on the way that our environment responds to us. B. our environment plays a large role in many of our personality traits. C. our family plays an especially prominent role in our development. D. our early exposures are the most important aspects when determining where our traits come from. Correct %: 49 Comments: Evocation is a challenging wrench that has been thrown into the heritability formula. By definition, evocation is the impact that we have on the way our environment treats us, simply by being there—or looking a specific way. Many theorists have argued that evocation plays a large role in some of the early developments of personality and gender related differences that we see in children at very young ages. 9. Research on gender identification suggests that children can start classifying by gender at age _____. *A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 Correct %: 78 Comments: Relating to the question above, we do see that children are sensitive/receptive to the topic of gender at very young ages. Most research has shown that despite most children still struggling to comprehend the permanence of gender at age 2, they have already been able to distinguish gender differences and what types of actions/thoughts are more “appropriate” for a specific gender. 10. Research on the heritability of homosexuality that focuses on twins has found roughly a _______ concordance rate for MZ siblings of homosexual men and women. A. 25% *B. 50% C. 75% D. 100% Correct %: 47 Comments: Though many people in the heated heritability of homosexuality debate would like to see differently—regardless of which side they are on—research has consistently shown about a 50% overlap in homosexual identification of identical twins when one twin identifies himself/herself as homosexual. This would seem to strongly indicate that sexual orientation is probably linked to a combination of the environment and genetics, not just one or the other. 11. To estimate heritability of some behavior, what kinds of people do researchers usually study? A. people from different cultures *B. twins and adopted children C. uneducated adults D. surgical patients Correct %: 98 Comments: Heritability research often involves the comparison of different types of siblings. Though researchers can compare more than just adopted siblings and twins, these are two commonly studied groups when attempting to determine if a characteristic is more tied to genetics, non-shared environments, or shared-environments. 12. When researchers wanted to present the same stimulus (a word) so that it would be conscious on some trials and unconscious on others, what is one method they used? A. They sometimes hypnotized people and told them not to see the word. B. They made the word larger and brighter on some trials than on others. *C. They flashed the word briefly and sometimes followed it with a masking pattern. D. They sometimes presented it to normal people and sometimes to people in a coma. Correct %: 78 Comments: Historically, the concept of the unconscious has been linked the topics of hypnotism and the hidden mind. Today’s researchers of the unconscious focus on what’s hidden just below our conscious level of detection. The only answer up here that relates to this new concept of the unconscious is the answer C. 13. In human development, what determines whether the external genitals appear male or female? A. the amount of estradiol and other estrogens *B. the amount of testosterone and other androgens C. the ratio of testosterone to estradiol D. the chromosomes alone Correct %: 57 Comments: Our chromosomes are critical players in the determination of our biological sex. However, our hormones are technically the final players that determine the genitals that we develop. This has been established through cases of individuals who have chromosomes that don’t match the genitals that they possess—something typically caused because of something that disrupted the usual hormone production/sensitivity of the body. 14. Someone who regards himself as a man and who prefers male sexual partners has a __________ gender identity. A. mixed B. generalized *C. male D. female Correct %: 78 Comments: Gender identity deals solely with the gender that someone identifies themselves as. Though it commonly overlaps with the following, it is independent of chromosomes, external genitals, and sexual orientation. Since the person in the example identifies himself as a man, he has a male gender identity. 15. Yesterday Professor Eaton asked children aged 6 through 12 to list their favorite foods, and then compared the results for different ages. This is an example of which kind of study? A. double-blind B. single-blind C. longitudinal *D. cross-sectional Correct %: 87 Comments: This question appears to have nothing to do with the differentiation between a single- and double-blind study. Therefore, we’re left with determining whether or not this is a longitudinal or a cross-sectional study. Since the researcher is interested in comparing ages, but collects information from different age groups all at the same time—and only once—we are looking at what is called a crosssectional design. 16. A researcher demonstrates that most children display a temperament at age 7 that is similar to their temperament at age 2. The study that led to this must have followed which kind of design? A. cross-sectional study *B. longitudinal study C. representative sampling D. random sampling Correct %: 85 Comments: Since the researcher is suggesting that (s)he followed his/her participants for a long period of time in order to compare performance at different ages, this researcher appears to have run a longitudinal study. Examples like these show the true value of these types of studies. In them, you can study changes within individuals as they age. You can also control for cohort effects. Unfortunately, those benefits often come at the cost of time and money. 17. After several repetitions of a sound, it produces less arousal. A slightly changed sound may produce more arousal. What do we call the original decrease and the later increase? *A. habituation...dishabituation B. sensitization...desensitization C. conditioning...extinction D. assimilation...accommodation Correct %: 79 Comments: This topic of habituation/dishabituation has been utilized in several areas of psychology. Most often, it has been used as a means of determining perception and cognitive abilities in individuals that cannot easily articulate what it is that they are processing—usually very young infants. Habituation is the process of lowering our arousal to a familiar stimulus. Think of how you stop hearing background noise at a coffee shop after being there for a while. Dishabituation is the process of increasing arousal when an unfamiliar stimulus is presented. Think of what happens when you suddenly hear a loud sound—or your name—at a coffee shop after being there for a while. 18. According to Piaget, a child’s intellectual growth occurs through A. conservation and object permanence. B. classical conditioning and operant conditioning. C. habituation and dishabituation. *D. assimilation, accommodation, and equilibration. Correct %: 71 Comments: Piaget proposed that children grow cognitively through forming schemas and testing them out in the world around them. To explain this process, he utilized several terms. Once a child has formed a schema, this child will then go out into the environment and test if it works. If the world does not match up with the schema that was formed, the child will experience something called disequilibrium. To fix this state of mind—to equilibrate—the child will either change the schema to match what was experienced (accommodation), or they will justify the mismatch through some alternative means while keeping the schema in its current form (assimilation). 19. Which of Piaget's stages of cognitive development do people reach last (at age 11 or later)? *A. formal operations B. sensorimotor C. concrete operations D. preoperational Correct %: 87 Comments: The order of cognitive staged described by Piaget (at least in his early years of research on children) were as follows: sensorimotor, pre-operational, concrete operational, and formal operational. The formal operational stage starts are roughly the age of 11 and lasts for 4 to 5 years. In Piaget’s theory, once children mast this stage, they begin to think about the world in the same way as adults do. 20. Object permanence refers to the idea that *A. objects continue to exist even when we don't see them. B. objects we see continue to exist even when we aren't talking about them. C. objects permanently exist in one location. D. the substance of an object remains constant even when its form changes. Correct %: 94 Comments: One of the earliest cognitive struggles that Piaget suggested we went through was with the topic of object permanence. Object permanence involves understand the notion that objects continue to exist and retain their spatial properties, even when we don’t see them. To test this, researchers have covered objects with blankets, placed barriers around desirable objects, and even presented children with impossible situations that obeyed this law of object permanence. These studies have shown us that children might indeed need to learn object permanence, but they probably have a grasp of it much earlier than Piaget had originally envisioned. 21. An experimenter places a colored spot on a child’s nose, lets the child look in the mirror, and observes whether the child touches his/her own nose. What concept is being tested? A. conservation B. object permanence *C. sense of self D. theory of mind Correct %: 81 Comments: This is what is considered the classic “sense of self” test. In doing this, researchers can determine if a child can recognize themselves in a mirror. Moreover, researchers can use reactions to this scenario to determine if a child sees himself/herself as a part of the world instead of just being some special entity who the entire world is interacting with. 22. To determine whether or not a child has reached the stage of formal operations, a psychologist might test whether the child can A. understand that objects maintain certain properties despite changes in their shape. B. speak in complete sentences. C. understand that an object continues to exist even when it is out of sight. *D. answer hypothetical and abstract questions. Correct %: 83 Comments: The formal operational stage of cognitive development described by Piaget is marked by the ability to think much more abstractly. Cognitive flexibility is critical to get through this stage. The topic above that is linked to this question is answer D. The other answers should have been mastered long before the formal operations stage. 23. In contrast to the views based on Piaget's work, the Russian psychologist Lev Vygotsky argued that educators should consider a child's A. degree of conservation. B. stage of cognitive development. *C. zone of proximal development. D. position of birth order within the family structure. Correct %: 87 Comments: Piaget strongly believed that children progressed in their cognitive thinking through advancement along set stages of development. Vygotsky believed that cognitive development occurred through a gradual mastery of a wide variety of different cognitive concepts—with the mastery occurring as a result of the individual and the environment of the individual. To describe the moment when a child could start to master a cognitive concept, Vygotsky used the term “zone of proximal development”. It was thought that when a child reached this zone, through special instruction called scaffolding, a child could master a cognitive concept at a relatively fast pace. 24. Erik Erikson’s eight stages of human development dealt with which aspect of behavior? A. language skills B. reactions to the prospect of dying *C. social and emotional conflicts D. understanding the concept of right and wrong Correct %: 73 Comments: There were several different developmental theorists that emerged in the early years of developmental psychology. Each theorist tended to choose their own topic of interest and explore how humans might develop in that topic as they age from an infant to an adult. Erikson’s research focused on the topic of identity. In particular, he examined how the social and emotional conflicts we experienced at certain ages shaped the way that we perceived ourselves and the world around us. 25. Which of these did Mary Ainsworth’s Strange Situation evaluate? A. the ability of educators to help a child understand new concepts B. which rewards are most effective for a given child C. a child’s ability to follow directions *D. attachment between a child and mother or other adult Correct %: 77 Comments: Mary Ainsworth was a student of John Bowlby’s. Bowlby explored the concept of attachment, suggesting that research like Harry Harlow’s missed the individual differences that could potentially exist with respect to attachment preferences. Ainsworth’s work essentially found a way to test Bowlby’s ideas—though she eventually became much more well-known than Bowlby because of her “strange situation” studies and the research/theories that followed. In essence, this “strange situation” experiment that she designed attempted to show a) individual differences in attachment types, and b) reasons for these individual differences. 26. People note the moment when they decide to flex their wrist, and they report it later. Researchers record the time of the movement, the time of the reported decision, and the time when activity began to increase in the premotor cortex of the person’s brain. Which comes FIRST? A. the time of the reported conscious decision *B. the increase in brain activity C. the movement D. all three start at the same time Correct %: 85 Comments: Though the timing of this is very fast—we’re talking milliseconds—your brain does seem to be the first player in our conscious motor actions. In particular, there is an area in your frontal lobe that seems to activate and by doing so, initiate neural activity that eventually results in several other areas of the brain being activated, following up with nerves and muscles eventually being activated throughout the body. 27. When brain-damaged patients show spatial neglect, is the problem mainly a loss of sensation or a deficit in attention? And what evidence supports this conclusion? *A. The problem is in attention. Evidence: They ignore the left side when describing things from memory. B. The problem is in attention. Evidence: When trying to perform a task, they are easily distracted. C. The problem is in sensation. Evidence: Even when someone calls special attention to the left side, they still do not detect it. D. The problem is in sensation. Evidence: Axons from the left side of the body send slower action potentials than before the damage. Correct %: 39 Comments: Spatial neglect is one of the more unusual discoveries over the years of biological psychology research. When individuals experience the damage that causes this effect, they lose the ability to attend to information in a particular portion of their visual field. This neglect has been tied to visual perception, memory recall, and even verbal identification of a scene. The fact that attention can be drawn to the missed items when those struggling with this type of neglect have their attention drawn to those items suggests that they can still process these things. This would suggest that there is something wrong with the attention of these individuals. 28. What is responsible for people’s circadian rhythms? *A. Part of the brain generates the rhythm. B. The heart and adrenal glands generate the rhythms. C. Changes in room temperature generate the rhythms. D. People learn to generate the rhythms based on social interactions. Correct %: 82 Comments: Circadian rhythms are the bodily changes that occur throughout the 24-hour day. Though the sun has proven to aid in keeping these rhythms aligned with our 24-hour days, the part of us that dictates these changes is our brain. In particular, activities initiated by both our nervous and endocrine systems allow us to better adjust to the environment around us throughout our 24-hour day. 29. Timothy is comparing the memory capacity of those diagnosed with a newly classified mental disorder to a collection of control subjects. This type of research would suggest that we can define Timothy as a A. psychoanalyst. B. behavioral therapist. C. cognitive therapist. *D. experimental psychopathologist. Correct %: 74 Comments: Experimental psychopathology is a growing field within the clinical psychology branch. In it, researchers explore differences between those with a variety of different disorders to those that have not been diagnosed. Research on these topics should be able to lead us to a better understanding of the cause, nature, and potential solutions to a wide variety of different clinical related issues. 30. If you awaken hours earlier than your usual time and cannot get back to sleep, you will miss out on most of your ______. A. stage 2 sleep B. stage 3 sleep C. stage 4 sleep *D. REM sleep Correct %: 83 Comments: This question related to the different stages of sleep that we go through during the night, as well as the cycles that we go through in order to reach each stage. During the early hours of sleep at night, people tend to spend the vast majority of their time in some of the deeper stages of sleep (stages 3 and 4). As the night progresses, people tend to spend much more time in REM sleep and some unusual version of stage 1 sleep. Since this question is referring to sleep later in the night, the correct answer to the question is answer D—REM sleep. 31. The term “psychoses” is best paired with the mental disorder of A. depression. B. generalized anxiety disorder. *C. schizophrenia. D. autism spectral disorder. Correct %: 78 Comments: Psychoses are defined as symptoms that involve some type of a mental break from external realty. The disorder above that relates to the loss of understanding of external reality is schizophrenia. The other disorders mentioned can definitely cause individuals to perceive the world in a very different light when compared to those that are not diagnosed with those disorders, but schizophrenia is the only disorder listed that typically involves someone experiencing a complete break from reality. 32. Helen has lost the ability to control her right hand—despite the fact that she didn’t experience any physical trauma to her hand or the nerves connecting to it. If this is eventually considered a psychological issue, her symptoms can be defined as *A. a dissociative disorder. B. a psychological disorder. C. a personality disorder. D. a behavioral disorder. Correct %: 59 Comments: Though dissociative disorders are fairly rare; they do sometimes occur. They involve the breakdown of some type of mental functioning (awareness, perception, identity, etc.). Since the issue being described with Helen cannot be tied to anything physically wrong with her, her symptoms would probably be tied to some type of a dissociative disorder—unless something else is discovered at a later point. 33. The medical model of mental disorders countered the then-current assumption that mental disorders came from A. genetics. *B. spiritual entities. C. abnormal thoughts. D. a combination of the environment and genetics. Correct %: 55 Comments: The medical model of mental disorders—a model that has been replaced by the bio-psychosocial model of mental disorders—suggested that most mental abnormalities resulted directly from some biological change in brain/body. Though it resulted in some very negative consequences (asylums, the notion of mental “diseases”, etc.), it was a much more scientific replacement to the earlier held belief that mental disorders resulted from some type of spiritual event/entity. 34. Which of the following was NOT discussed as a problem with pharmacotherapy? A. the side effects of drugs B. the fact that drugs often don’t cure mental disorders C. the lack of specificity of the drugs *D. the limited effectiveness of drugs Correct %: 23 Comments: This question was flagged as a “bad” question. I’m uncertain as to why this was the case. Though they have proven to be effective at times, there are many complaints about the use of the pharmacotherapy technique. One compliant that has not been raised relates to the scope of the effectiveness of the drugs that have been used. Most researchers have insisted that the drugs work on a wide variety of symptoms—even if we can’t explain how/why. 35. Socioeconomic status would be considered part of the ___________ in the diathesis-stress model of mental disorders. A. diathesis *B. stress C. outcome D. diathesis AND stress Correct %: 70 Comments: The diathesis stress model suggests that many mental disorders result from a combination of biological predispositions (the diathesis) and environment factors (the stress). Since SES is an environmental factor, the correct answer to this question is B. 36. Diathesis-stress research has suggested that ___________ is of critical importance in explaining the development of almost all mental disorders. A. the diathesis B. the stress C. only the outcome *D. both the diathesis AND stress Correct %: 87 Comments: As mentioned in the previous question, most researchers believe that mental disorders result from a combination of biological dispositions (diathesis) and social environments (stress). It is important to note for this question that the diathesis for individuals can strongly impact how much stress is required for a mental disorder to manifest. It can also determine which disorder does manifest itself in an individual. 37. Which of the following is an example of a “personality disorder”? A. depression B. generalized anxiety disorder *C. narcissism D. bipolar disorder Correct %: 44 Comments: Depression, generalized anxiety disorder, and bipolar disorder are all considered types of clinical/psychological disorders. They are different from personality disorders in that a) they do not tend to be something that dominates the person’s personality throughout their life (bipolar disorder being one that is on the fringe of this), and b) they involve behaviors that the sufferer tends to want to correct. Neither of these characteristics are the case for personality disorders—including narcissism. 38. How do phobias and panic disorder differ? A. Phobias are mild, whereas panic attacks are intense. B. Panic attacks are mild, whereas phobias are intense. C. Phobic reactions produce hyperventilation, whereas panic attacks do not. *D. Panic attacks occur unpredictably, whereas certain objects trigger phobic reactions. Correct %: 95 Comments: Both of these disorders involve the occurrence of an extremely strong sympathetic nervous system response. The key difference here is that phobias have something in particular that triggers this response, while panic disorder is characterized by the random occurrence of these responses. 39. Research on the development of phobias that looked at monkeys suggested that a monkey develops a strong fear of snakes A. only if it gets a snake bite itself. B. only if it gets a snake bite or watches another monkey get bitten. *C. even if it just watches another monkey show fear in response to the snake. D. only if it is born with a certain gene for snake fear. Correct %: 89 Comments: This topic allowed us to see the connection between clinical work and the work done by behaviorists. This study involved the concept of something called vicarious learning. In the study, it was shown that monkeys can develop phobia symptoms by observing them in others—but only if the object of the phobic reaction is viewed. In this case, the two things required for monkeys to develop a phobia of snakes is a) a view of the snake, and b) a view of another monkey reacting in terror to that snake. 40. What is the DSM? A. a society B. an intelligence test C. a personality test *D. a book Correct %: 73 Comments: The DSM—diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorders—is the book most commonly used by mental health specialists in the United States and other neighboring countries. It has been in use for nearly 60 years, always attempting to define the different symptoms/disorders/issues that are present in society. It has undergone several revisions over the years, but has always attempted to be atheoretical in its approach to the field. In other words, it doesn’t focus its attention on causes and treatments of disorders, just the symptoms themselves. 41. What do all or nearly all addictive substances do? A. They increase the flow of blood to the left hemisphere of the brain. B. They decrease the amplitude and velocity of action potentials in the brain. C. They block the release of serotonin in the hippocampus of the brain. *D. They release dopamine in the nucleus accumbens of the brain. Correct %: 88 Comments: Addictive substances can do a litany of different things to the body—in particular the nervous system—but they all have one primary thing in common. Addictive substances are all partially addictive because of the reward pathway that they activate in our brain. This reward pathway has been linked to the nucleus accumbens of our brain. In it, a large number of cells using dopamine become active as a result of the use of the addictive substance. 42. Anxiety disorders are more common in _______ and depression is more common in ______. *A. women... women B. women... men C. men... women D. men... men Correct %: 39 Comments: Though many students read this and thought that there had to be some male/female combination for this response, the answer to this question is A. In fact, women are more often diagnosed for a wide range of mood and anxiety disorders. The explanation for why this is the case has been of particular interest for many experimental psychopathologists. Some have linked the difference to genetics, others to environmental factors, and others to the stereotypes held by both the individuals diagnosing and those being diagnosed. 43. People with bipolar disorder alternate between periods of A. obsessions and compulsions. B. alcohol abuse and abstention from alcohol. *C. depression and mania. D. one personality and another. Correct %: 78 Comments: Bipolar disorder—formerly known as manic-depressive disorder—involves the fluctuation between different moods. Though not all individuals diagnosed with bipolar disorder struggle with depression, most do. It is important to note that a fluctuation between personalities is not a component of bipolar disorder—this was sadly one of the answers that many of the students in the class gravitated towards. 44. What does cognitive therapy try to change about a depressed person? A. How the person spends his or her money. B. How the person eats, sleeps, and dresses. *C. How the person interprets ambiguous situations D. How well the person remembers traumatic childhood events. Correct %: 92 Comments: Cognitive therapy is a technique focused on altering some of the cognitions of the individuals that seek therapy. The assumption of this therapeutic technique is that many disorder symptoms are a result of some type of a misperception held by the individual (of the self, world, situation, future, etc.). Because of this assumption, cognitive therapists attempt to reorient the thinking of their clients, and in doing so, hope to alleviate the client of many of their symptoms. 45. Why are hallucinations considered a “positive” symptom of schizophrenia? A. Hallucinations are the result of increased brain activity. B. Hallucinations are enjoyable to the person. C. Hallucinations are a sign that the person is starting to get better. *D. Hallucinations are present, as opposed to absent. Correct %: 76 Comments: Though the term “positive” symptoms sounds good; they are anything but that for individuals struggling with schizophrenia. Positive symptoms of schizophrenia are thoughts/behaviors that the individual is displaying that are not displayed by most individuals. The most common positive symptoms of schizophrenia are hallucinations and delusions. When the hallucinations or delusions are diminishing, we say that the positive symptoms are diminishing or going away. 46. Schizophrenia is less common than average in which parts of the world? A. countries bordering an ocean B. countries that accept many immigrants *C. Third World countries D. the same countries where obesity is most common Correct %: 71 Comments: There is a great deal of debate as to why this is the case, but individuals in third world countries are indeed diagnosed with schizophrenia significantly less than those in developed countries. Some have linked these differences to the environmental factors that might play a role in the development of this disorder, others have linked it to the different way that we can perceive the actions of individuals from one culture to another. 47. According to the neurodevelopmental hypothesis, schizophrenia results mainly from abnormalities of brain development at what age? *A. around the time of birth B. early childhood C. adolescence D. young adulthood Correct %: 29 Comments: The wording of the question might have caused some confusion. The question was asking about the point where those that will eventually develop schizophrenia depart from those that don’t. The neurodevelopmental hypothesis suggests that this divergence occurs at around birth. The cause of this separation has yet to be definitively determined, though many explanations for the cause have been explored. 48. According to the neurodevelopmental hypothesis, schizophrenia results mainly from abnormalities of brain development at what age? *A. around the time of birth B. early childhood C. adolescence D. young adulthood Correct %: 94 Comments: Though the symptoms of schizophrenia don’t start to emerge within individuals diagnosed with schizophrenia until late teenage/early adulthood years, many theorists have proposed that the track to developing the disorder started long before that point. In particular, the neurodevelopmental hypothesis suggests that the disorder probably starts to cause a differentiation of individuals near the time of birth. 49. In person-centered therapy, what does the therapist do? A. set clear goals for changes in behavior *B. provide unconditional positive regard C. interpret dreams and hidden meanings of behavior D. help the person find more optimistic interpretations of life events Correct %: 64 Comments: Person-centered therapy is a version of therapy born from the humanistic perspective. In it, therapists are supposed to create a welcoming environment that allows the client to explore who they are and what can best help them with their problems. To do this, reflect techniques, unconditional positive regard, and minimal direction are critical components to the process.