The Lymphatic System and Immunity Answer Key

Human Anatomy & Physiology Chapter 20 The Lymphatic System and Immunity 1) Which of the following is NOT a basic function of the lymphatic system? A) absorption of dietary fats B) regulation of calcium ion concentration in the blood C) regulation of interstitial fluid volume D) immune functions Answer: B 2) Fluid found in lymphatic vessels is known as: A) intracellular fluid. B) interstitial fluid. C) plasma. D) lymph. Answer: D 3) What vessels pick up excess extracellular fluid in the interstitial space and return it to circulation? A) jugular veins B) lymphatic vessels C) pulmonary veins D) coronary arteries Answer: B 4) The right lymphatic duct receives lymph from the: A) right arm. B) right leg. C) left arm. D) left leg. Answer: A 5) The lymph ducts in the thoracic cavity drain into the: A) inferior vena cava. B) junction of the internal jugular vein and subclavian vein. C) external jugular veins. D) junction of the brachiocephalic vein and the superior vena cava. Answer: B 6) Which lymph trunks receive lymph from the upper limbs? A) intestinal trunks B) jugular trunks C) bronchomediastinal trunks D) subclavian trunks Answer: D 7) What makes lymphatic vessels similar to the venous circuit of the cardiovascular system? A) Both vessels operate under high pressure. B) Both vessels feed into capillary beds. C) Both vessels have valves. D) Both vessels have a thick tunica media. Answer: C 8) An accumulation of excess interstitial fluid is known as: A) infection. B) lysis. C) edema. D) crenation. Answer: C 9) What do lacteals, located in the small intestine, collect? A) carbohydrates B) fat C) blood D) intracellular fluid Answer: B 10) What best describes lymphatic capillaries? A) impermeable B) transport blood C) extremely permeable D) two-way circuit to and from the heart Answer: C 11) What is the main role of macrophages in the lymphatic tissues? A) form structures of neurons B) phagocytosis C) form collagen fibers D) structure and support Answer: B 12) Mucosa-associated lymphatic tissues (MALT) include the: A) spleen. B) tonsils. C) kidneys. D) liver. Answer: B 13) What type of mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue (MALT) is located in the ileum (last portion) of the small intestine? A) adenoid B) tonsils C) Peyer's patches D) appendix Answer: C 14) What mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue (MALT) traps pathogens entering the nasal and oral cavities? A) lymph nodes B) tonsils C) Peyer's patches D) appendix Answer: B 15) Lymph traveling from the right arm will be filtered by: A) mesenteric lymph nodes. B) axillary lymph nodes. C) cervical lymph nodes. D) inguinal lymph nodes. Answer: B 16) A sinus infection would most likely cause swollen: A) cervical lymph nodes. B) inguinal lymph nodes. C) mesenteric lymph nodes. D) axillary lymph nodes. Answer: A 17) What region of the lymph node contains many mature B cells? A) trabeculae B) cortex C) medulla D) capsule Answer: C 18) Where are pathogens filtered from lymph? A) lymph nodes B) tonsils C) spleen D) lacteals Answer: A 19) What is the function of the red pulp of the spleen? A) filter pathogens from lymph B) filter pathogens from the blood C) house leukocytes and dendritic cells D) house macrophages that destroy old erythrocytes Answer: D 20) Which organ generates a population of T cells capable of protecting the body from pathogens? A) thymus B) spleen C) tonsils D) lymph nodes Answer: A 21) If the thymus shrank and stopped making hormones in a child, we would expect to see a decrease in the number of: A) B lymphocytes (B cells). B) neutrophils. C) T lymphocytes (T cells). D) eosinophils. Answer: C 22) Surface barriers, such as cutaneous and mucous membranes, serve the immune system as the: A) first line of defense. B) second line of defense. C) third line of defense. D) fourth line of defense. Answer: A 23) What type of immunity exists even in the absence of a stimulus? A) cell-mediated immunity B) specific immunity C) innate immunity D) adaptive immunity Answer: C 24) Sheena's B lymphocytes (B cells) produced antibodies to protect her about 3-5 days after she was exposed to a virus. What type of immunity do antibodies provide? A) innate immunity B) cell-mediated immunity C) nonspecific immunity D) acquired immunity Answer: D 25) Which of the following is NOT a surface barrier serving as the first line of defense? A) antibody B) mucus C) oil D) keratin Answer: A 26) What are the primary cells of adaptive immunity? A) lymphocytes B) dendritic cells C) natural killer (NK) cells D) cytokines Answer: A 27) Which lymphoid organ is required for the selection of a functional population of T lymphocytes (T cells) for the immune system? A) thymus B) thyroid gland C) tonsil D) liver Answer: A 28) Which of the following is a non-phagocytic cell? A) basophil B) eosinophil C) neutrophil D) macrophage Answer: A 29) What is NOT a function of macrophages? A) Macrophages activate T lymphocytes (T cells). B) Macrophages kill ingested pathogens with chemicals. C) Macrophages serve as antigen-presenting cells. D) Macrophages secrete substances onto pathogens that are too large to ingest. Answer: A 30) What cells display portions of the pathogens (antigens) they ingest on their plasma membranes? A) basophils B) antigen-presenting cells C) eosinophils D) natural killer (NK) cells Answer: A 31) What type of non-phagocytic cell mediates inflammation? A) natural killer (NK) cell B) neutrophil C) eosinophil D) basophil Answer: D 32) What organ is responsible for producing most of the plasma proteins known as the complement system? A) liver B) heart C) kidney D) spleen Answer: A 33) Which of the following is NOT a cytokine involved in innate immunity? A) opsonins B) tumor necrosis factor (TNF) C) interleukins D) interferons Answer: A 34) Which of the following is NOT a cardinal sign of inflammation? A) swelling (edema) B) cold C) redness D) pain Answer: B 35) Mary's mosquito bite is red, warm, and swollen, indicating she is experiencing the effects of: A) the inflammatory response. B) interleukins. C) interferons. D) tumor necrosis factor (TNF). Answer: A 36) During the second stage of the inflammatory response, what do neutrophils accomplish when they migrate to areas of damaged tissue? A) Neutrophils interfere with the ability of viruses or bacteria to infect other cells. B) Neutrophils are potent vasodilators. C) Neutrophils increase capillary permeability. D) Neutrophils destroy bacteria and other cellular debris. Answer: D 37) How long after initial tissue damage does leukocytosis occur? A) 2-3 minutes B) 2-3 hours C) 2-3 days D) 2-3 weeks Answer: C 38) A patient has a high level of pyrogens, indicating that she: A) is feeling achy. B) has swollen lymph nodes. C) has a fever. D) has a sore throat. Answer: C 39) A high level of pyrogens most affects the: A) thalamus. B) hypothalamus. C) pons. D) medulla oblongata. Answer: B 40) What statement best describes pyrogens? A) Pyrogens cause the hypothalamic thermostat to reset to a higher range. B) Pyrogens interfere with the ability of bacteria or viruses to infect other cells. C) Pyrogens are potent vasodilators. D) Pyrogens increase secretion of thymosin. Answer: A 41) What of the following should NOT elicit an immune response in your own body? A) major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules bound to antigens B) self antigens C) immunogens D) haptens bound with a protein carrier Answer: B 42) Where do T cells become immunocompetent? A) bone marrow B) thyroid gland C) tonsils D) thymus Answer: D 43) Which of the following are TRUE of class I major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules? A) Class I MHC molecules bind complement. B) Class I MHC molecules present endogenous antigens. C) Class I MHC molecules present exogenous antigens. D) Class I MHC molecules are only present on erythrocyte surfaces. Answer: B 44) What initiates T cell activation? A) T cell activation begins when a T cell is ingested by a macrophage. B) T cell activation begins with a cell processing and displaying antigen fragments on its MHC molecules. C) T cell activation begins with the interaction of the T cell with other molecules on the cells called co-stimulators. D) T cell activation begins when the T cell differentiates into effector cells and memory cells. Answer: B 45) Activated helper T (TH) cells or cytotoxic T (TC) cell clones differentiate into: A) plasma cells and memory B cells. B) memory B cells and memory T cells. C) effector cells and memory T cells. D) effector cells and plasma cells. Answer: C 46) What cells are responsible for cell-mediated immunological memory in which the immune response is expedited upon subsequent exposure to an antigen? A) memory T cells B) effector cells C) B cells D) MHC molecules Answer: A 47) Cells that help regulate the immune response are: A) major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules. B) cytotoxic T (TC) cells. C) CD8 cells. D) helper T (TH) cells. Answer: D 48) What protein, released by cytotoxic T (TC) cells, perforates a target cell's plasma membrane so that enzymes can enter and fragment the target cell's DNA? A) interleukins B) interferons C) cytokines D) perforins Answer: D 49) Madison wants to give a kidney to her older sister. What type of organ transplant will this be? A) autograft B) isograft C) allograft D) xenograft Answer: C 50) What is a determinant for organ compatibility and rejection of transplants? A) interleukins B) major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules C) pyrogens D) perforins Answer: B 51) Determine the first phase of the antibody-mediated immune response. A) B cells should now be present in the body's fluids. B) Memory cells react rapidly upon a second encounter with the antigen. C) B cell clones recognize its specific antigen. D) Antibody levels in the blood rise dramatically. Answer: C 52) Immunoglobulins are also known as: A) memory cells. B) antigens. C) antibodies. D) agglutinogens. Answer: C 53) B cells develop and mature in the: A) thymus. B) liver. C) lymph nodes. D) bone marrow. Answer: D 54) Clonal selection occurs when: A) B cells are activated. B) B cells differentiate into plasma cells and memory B cells. C) plasma cells secrete antibodies. D) B cells undergo rapid mitosis. Answer: A 55) Activated B cells differentiate into: A) plasma cells and memory B cells. B) effector cells and memory T cells. C) antibodies and memory B cells. D) plasma cells and effector cells. Answer: A 56) Which of the following secretes antibodies? A) antigen-presenting cells B) plasma cells C) dendritic cells D) memory B cells Answer: B 57) What part of an antibody is responsible for antigen recognition and binding? A) constant (C) region B) heavy (H) chains C) variable (V) regions D) light (L) chains Answer: C 58) How many antigen-binding sites for antigens does each IgG antibody possess on its V regions? A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 6 Answer: B 59) Which of the following represent the five basic classes of antibodies? A) IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, and IgM B) IgA, IgD, IgE, IgF, and IgK C) IgA, IgB, IgC, IgD, and IgE D) IgA, IgB, IgJ, IgL, and IgM Answer: A 60) Which antibody is the only one capable of crossing the placenta from a pregnant woman to her developing fetus? A) IgM B) IgE C) IgG D) IgA Answer: C 61) Which antibody is NOT secreted by B cells in significant amounts? A) IgG B) IgM C) IgE D) IgD Answer: D 62) The clumping of cells that are cross-linked by their attachments to antibodies is known as: A) neutralization. B) opsonization. C) agglutination. D) precipitation. Answer: C 63) Mrs. Sanchez had a great deal of inflammation after her recent surgery. The inflammation was triggered by the antibody known as: A) IgA B) IgE C) IgM D) IgD Answer: B