Pathophysiology Exam 1 Questions

1 Patho Exam 1 Study Guide Module 1 1. What is allostasis? a. Allostasis is a dynamic process that supports and helps the body achieve a steady state. 2. Understand the difference between sequela and complication. a. Sequela is the disease or condition in which is caused by an earlier disease or problem while complication is the act or process worsening of a condition or disease process. 3. What happens during the alarm phase of Hans Selye’s General adaptation Syndrome? a. Called the fight or flight response provides surge of energy and physical alteration to either evade or confront danger. 4. Remember this is the fight or flight stage. What clinical findings would the patient in the fight or flight stage present with? (select all) 5. The four components of Pathophysiology (select all) a. Etiology b. Pathogenesis c. Clinical manifestations d. Treatment 6. Prevention stage of disease- i.e. Primary, Secondary, Tertiary a. Primary: Intervening before health effects occur, through measures such as vaccinations, altering risky behaviors and banning substances known to be associated with a disease or health condition. b. Secondary: Screening to identify diseases in the earliest stages, before the onset of signs and symptoms, through measures such as mammography and regular blood pressure testing. c. Tertiary Prevention: Managing diseases post diagnosis to slow or stop the disease progression through measures such as chemo, rehabilitation, and screenings. 7. What compounds (2) does the body release during stress? a. Epinephrine (adrenaline) b. Norepinephrine (noradrenaline) c. Cortisol d. Dopamine 8. How is fluid between interstitial and intracellular compartments distributed? a. Through a cell membrane and it is mainly controlled by the osmotic pressure 9. How doe extracellular fluid become depleted? 2 Patho Exam 1 Study Guide a. Loss of total body sodium, causes are vomiting, excessive sweating, diarrhea 10. What is potential and fatal complications of hyponatremia? a. Hyponatremia is caused by factors that produce relative excess of water in proportion to salt in the extracellular fluid. It varies from malaise, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and headache to confusion, lethargy, seizures and comas. Can cause fatal herniation. 11. Symptoms of dehydration a. Absence of urine b. Decreased skin turgor c. Hard stools d. Rapid thread pulse 12. Cause of edema a. An increase in the forces to move fluid from the capillaries into the interstitial compartment or a decrease in forces that tend to move fluid from the interstitial compartment into the capillaries. Altering normal fluid distribution between the vascular and interstitial compartments. 13. What hormones assist with potassium distribution (I discussed 2 main hormones in the chapter 24 lecture) a. Insulin b. Epinephrine 14. Extracellular fluid has higher concentrations of which electrolytes? (2 discussed) a. sodium ions 15. The energy currency of a cell and role the mitochondrion plays in the currency. a. The mitochondria are the power house of the cell and produces energy in the form of ATP (adenosine tri phosphate) which is the energy currency of a cell. ATP is the energy currency of the cell and it provides energy for all metabolic reactions. Module 2 1. What is active immunity? a. A protected state attributable to the body’s immune response as a result of active infection or immunizations 2. Cause of antimicrobial resistance a. This occurs because of natural random genetic differences in the population of organisms that affect their susceptibility to antibiotics. 3. What are the mediators of inflammation (select all)? a. Prostaglandins b. Leukotrienes c. Histamine 3 Patho Exam 1 Study Guide d. e. f. g. Serotonin Complement 3a, 3ba, 5a Lysosomal protease Oxygen free radicles 4. Type 1 hypersensitivity mediator a. Hypersensitivity type 1 is an immediate or IgE mediated reaction such as anaphylaxis 5. What does histamines do? a. An early mediator of this inflammatory response. Can cause significant reductions in blood pressure when released in excessive amounts. 6. A lab test that can measure inflammation a. A blood test call erythrocyte sedimentation (ESR) 7. What is metastasis? a. The process whereby cancer cells escape their tissues of origin and initiate new colonies of cancer in distant sites. 8. What is cachexia? a. An overall weight loss generalized weakness, like loss of appetite and increased metabolic rate. 9. Lymph node locations (where do they feel the most if inflammation is present)? (Select all) a. Head and neck b. Arms c. Axilla (arm pit) d. Inguinal area (groin) e. Back of knees 10. What are the properties of cancer cells? (select all) a. Proliferate despite lack of growth initiating signals from the environment b. Escape apoptotic signals and achieve a kind of immortality in that they are capable of unlimited replication c. Lose their differentiated features and contribute poorly or not at all to the function of their tissue d. Genetically unstable and evolve by accumulation new mutations at a much faster rate than normal cells e. Invade their local tissues and overrun their neighbors f. Gain the ability to migrate from their site of organ to colonize distant sites where they don’t belong. 11. The effects of bone marrow suppression in cancer patients. (discussed 3 in chapter 7) 4 Patho Exam 1 Study Guide a. Invasion and destruction of blood forming cells in bone marrow, poor nutrition and chemotherapeutic drugs. b. It is manifested as anemia, leukopenia and thrombocytopenia 12. The primary function of bone marrow a. It stems cells and other substances which produces blood cells and re blood cell carry oxygen to tissues in the body. 13. Identify examples of types of malignant cells (select all) a. Carcinoma b. Sarcoma c. Leukemia d. Germ cell tumor e. Blastoma 14. What is osteosarcoma? a. An extremely malignant bone forming tumor which is the most primary malignant bone tumor. It grows rapidly and is quite destructive. 15. Steps in carcinogenesis a. Initiation (DNA damage; mutation) b. Promotion (proliferation: growth promoters? Mutant cell proliferates c. Progression (development of cancerous phenotype) mutant proliferating cells begin to exhibit malignant behavior. Module 3 1. What is Rheumatoid arthritis? a. A systemic autoimmune inflammatory disease. It is caused by an abnormal autoimmune response occurring in individuals who have genetic predisposition to the disease. 2. Rheumatoid arthritis clinical manifestation? (select all) a. Highly inflammatory b. Symmetric c. Peripheral arthritis 3. Conditions which result from excessive immune response a. Check w dan; b. Asthma c. Familial Mediterranean fever d. Crohn’s disease 4. What activity is appropriate for osteoarthritis? 5 Patho Exam 1 Study Guide a. Light workout b. Easy joint activity’s like walking bicycling and water aerobics 5. What is Psoriatic arthritis? a. Inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. Environmental factors like infections or physical trauma could trigger the onset of the arthritis. 6. What causes gout? a. Lack of enzymes uricase and subsequent inability to oxidize uric acid to a soluble compound. 7. Osteoporosis etiology a. Rate of bone resorption is greater than that of bone formation. The osteoblastic and osteoclastic balance is disrupted, and the levels of mineral and protein matrix components are decreased. 8. What is Myasthenia crisis priority assessment? a. A chronic autoimmune disease affecting the neuromuscular function of voluntary muscles and characterized by profound muscle weakness and fatigability b. Myasthenia crisis can be due to insufficient medication, emotional stress, trauma, infection or surgery. 9. The best prevention of pressure ulcers/injuries is to perform what intervention? a. Frequent turning and repositioning of patient 10. Complications of compartment syndrome a. Accumulation of pressure in a soft tissue compartment that is restricted by unyielding fasciae b. Classifies as acute, chronic, or crush c. Triggered by injury to the tissues surrounding bone with soft tissue inflammation, swelling, and hemorrhage into the area d. Most often injuries to the leg, forearm, upper arm, hand, and thigh. 11. The 5 P’s of compartment syndrome a. Pain b. Paralysis c. Paresthesia d. Pallor e. Pulselessness 12. Complication of a fracture a. Healing may not progress smoothly without complications 6 Patho Exam 1 Study Guide b. Delayed union, malunion and nonunion of the fracture are all complications that might occur 13. What is muscular dystrophy? a. Muscular dystrophies, abnormal genes lead to muscle degeneration forms in childhood b. Damaged muscles become progressively weaker 14. What is fibromyalgia? a. Characterized by chronic pain in muscles and surrounding structure often of months or years duration 15. Neurotransmitter destroyed by antibodies with patients diagnosed with myasthenia gravis: a. Receptors of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction 16. What is osteoarthritis? a. The most common arthritis worldwide, it is degenerative joint disease. It is a progressive, non-inflammatory disease of diarthrodial joints especially those who are heavy weighted 17. Clinical manifestation of shingles: a. Eruption of vesicles with erythematous bases that are restricted to skin area supplied by sensory neurons of a single or associated group of dorsal root ganglia. b. Severe pain and paresthesia are common 18. What is atopic dermatitis? a. A complex genetic disease that results from gene-gene and gene-environment interactions b. Genetic defects in the epidermal barrier protein filaggrin.