Weather and Climate Final Exam Notes

Weather & Climate Final Exam Notes 1. Neglecting friction, the speed and direction of the horizontal wind are determined by A) only gravity B) viscosity and turbulence C) pressure gradient and Coriolis 2. If the Earth were not rotating: A) air would move directly from higher to lower pressure B) friction would be eliminated C) the Earth would lose its atmosphere D) all air would move in one direction only 3. The primary force which causes all winds is A) inertia force B) Coriolis effect C) pressure gradient force 4. High air pressure zones are usually associated with: A) diverging winds B) clear weather C) descending currents D) relatively dry conditions E) all of these 5. The geostrophic wind describes a situation where the pressure gradient force is balanced by the Coriolis force and air moves A) upward B) very fast C) very slowly D) parallel to the isobars 6. The term pressure gradient refers to A) change in pressure at a weather station over 3 hours time B) highest and lowest pressures at a station C) change in wind speed at the same station D) change in pressure from the tropopause to sea level E) change in pressure along a horizontal surface 7. Why do surface winds cross the isobars at an angle toward lower pressure (instead of blowing parallel to the isobars)? A) friction reduces the speed so Coriolis is weakened B) convergence of upper level winds causes this C) it results from divergence in the surface wind D) Coriolis strengthens by combining with friction E) pressure gradient becomes stronger near the surface 8. The effect of friction on the wind alters its A) density B) speed only C) viscosity D) heat content E) speed and direction 9. The geostrophic wind concept is most like the real atmospheric winds A) in an anticyclone B) in a cyclone C) near the equator D) near the surface E) at high altitudes 10. The Coriolis effect is strongest at the equator and diminishes in strength poleward A) True B) False 11. The most fundamental reason for all atmospheric motions is the non-uniform heating of the Earth by the Sun A) True B) False 12. Stormy weather is more closely associated with anticyclones than with cyclones A) True B) False 13. Cyclones are characterized by converging winds and rising air A) True B) False 14. The prevailing winds that blow from the horse latitudes (30º) toward the doldrums (0º) are called: A) westerlies B) polar easterlies C) trade winds D) northerlies E) none of these 15. The Sahara and Australian deserts are associated with which pressure belt? A) subtropical high B) subpolar low C) polar high D) equatorial low 16. The term cyclogenesis refers to the decay of a cyclone A) True B) False 17. Straight west-to-east winds aloft (zonal flow) cause maximum cyclone development A) True B) False 18. The greater strength of jet stream winds during winter is due to A) greater horizontal temperature contrasts (gradients) B) greater air density C) stronger Coriolis effect D) lower humidity E) warmer temperatures at high altitudes 19. Zonal refers to the east-west direction while meridional refers to the north-south direction A) True B) False 20. Jet stream winds are completely distinct from the mid latitude westerlies A) True B) False 21. The subpolar low (polar front) is: A) a zone where the polar easterlies and the westerlies converge B) the forward edge of the antarctic ice cap C) a zone where the trade winds of the two hemispheres meet D) the boundary between frozen and liquid ocean 22. Most of the precipitation for the region east of the Rocky Mountains comes from A) evaporation from soils and vegetation B) mT air masses C) modified mP air masses D) mA air masses 23. Occluded fronts characterize the beginning stages of a middle latitude cyclone A) True B) False 24. Under certain conditions, a cold front can be forced aloft by a warm front A) True B) False 25. When an area is experiencing several consecutive days of rather constant weather, it is experiencing: A) air-mass weather B) occluded front weather C) cold-front weather D) warm-front weather E) none of these 26. The typical amount of time it takes for an air mass to pass over a given area is on the order of a few A) minutes B) hours C) weeks D) months E) days 27. An mP air mass is: A) dry and cold B) dry and warm C) humid and warm D) humid and cold E) none of these 28. The coldest and driest winter air-mass in North America is the A) mT B) cP C) cA D) cT E) mP 29. “Lake-effect” snow is associated with the ________ air mass A) mT B) mP C) cP D) cT E) none of these 30. An air mass is a body of air with A) very high pressure everywhere B) similar values of temperature and moisture in the horizontal C) at least two frontal zones D) equal density throughout 31. The lifting of air and the resulting formation of clouds and rain is more gentle (gradual) for a (an) A) occluded front B) cold front C) warm front 32. A warm front is said to exist when A) warm and cold air meet B) invading cold air pushes underneath warmer air C) warm air pushes underneath cold air D) moving cold air overrides warmer air E) advancing warm air overrides retreating cold air 33. Which of these is common to both cold and warm fronts? A) decreasing precipitation rates B) lifting of warm air over cold C) divergence of surface winds D) light to calm winds E) steady barometer readings 34. The divergence near the ground that is associated with the subtropical high pressure zone can be cited as the origin of A) trade winds B) cyclogenesis C) jet streams D) sea breeze E) polar easterlies 35. Compared to warm fronts, cold fronts have A) the same gradient and a faster advance rate B) a shallower gradient and the same advance rate C) a shallower gradient and a slower advance rate D) a steeper gradient and a faster advance rate E) the same gradient and the same advance rate 36. Why is the number and intensity of wave cyclones (extra-tropical storms) greatest during the late fall, winter and spring months? A) density of the air is greatest B) meteorologists don't know C) temperature contrasts are greater D) air is drier then E) temperatures are below freezing 37. Which one of the following is NOT a primary pollutant? A) nitrogen dioxide B) ozone C) carbon monoxide D) sulfur dioxide 38. If the tilt of the earth's axis changes, how does this affect the temperature change across the seasons? A) less tilt, smaller seasonal change B) no consistent relation exists C) more tilt, smaller seasonal change D) less tilt, larger seasonal change 39. Past climate data measured with instruments extends back about A) 30 yrs B) 500 yrs C) 200 yrs D) 100 yrs 40. The most likely explanation for evidence of glacial activity in places such as Africa and Australia is A) ozone depletion B) oxygen isotope changes C) plate tectonics D) volcanic activity E) global warming 41. Dilution or mixing of air pollutants into the surrounding air is best when A) winds are calm to light B) inversions are present C) relative humidity is high D) air is unstable E) air is very cold 42. During periods when glaciers are extensive, the concentration of 18O in seawater increases A) True B) False 43. Which one of the following is a major component of photochemical smog? A) soot B) sulfur dioxide C) ozone D) lead 44. Astronomical causes of climate change occur with cycles of A) 450,000 yrs B) 26,000 - 100,000 yrs C) 1 - 5 million yrs D) 20,000 yrs E) 100 million yrs 45. Oxygen isotope analysis measures the A) amount of radioactivity due to oxygen B) rate of oxygen depletion C) oxygen content of sediment D) total oxygen present E) proportion of 2 different types of oxygen atoms 46. Which one of the source categories listed below is responsible for the most pollution? A) transportation B) electric utilities C) solid waste disposal D) industrial processes 47. What triggers a photochemical reaction? A) sunlight B) turbulent winds C) ice particles D) high humidity 48. Generally, the greater the mixing depth, the better the air quality A) True B) False 49. When air pollution episodes occur they generally result from a dramatic increase in the output of pollutants A) True B) False 50. Pollutants emitted directly from identifiable sources are termed primary pollutants A) True B) False 51. What determines when a tropical depression or storm is given hurricane status? A) central pressure B) water temperature C) wind speed D) diameter 52. What type of clouds are most common in a hurricane? A) nimbostratus B) stratus C) cirrus D) cumulonimbus 53. What general circulation wind belt is the place of origin for hurricanes? A) horse latitudes B) westerlies C) trade winds D) doldrums 54. Why do hurricanes in the Atlantic move toward the west during their early stages? A) steering influence of ocean currents B) warmer water temperatures guide them C) they move away from areas of high salinity D) Coriolis effect guides them E) prevailing winds are from the east 55. When a hurricane moves onto land, it declines in intensity. Which of the factors listed below contribute to this loss of punch? A) friction B) lack of warm, moist air C) heating from below by the land surface D) both a and b 56. During which of the time spans listed below should hurricane formation in the North Atlantic be at a peak? A) April-May B) August-September C) November-December D) January-February 57. Hurricanes do not form within about 5 degree latitude of the equator A) True B) False 58. The Fujita Intensity Scale (F-scale) is applied to: A) lightning B) typhoons C) thunderstorms D) tornadoes 59. This type of cloud brings thunderstorms: A) cumulus B) stratocumulus C) altostratus D) cumulonimbus 60. The formation of tornadoes is associated with: A) middle-latitude cyclones B) severe thunderstorms C) cold fronts D) all of the above 61. Thunderstorm tops most likely occur A) in the mesosphere B) in the lower troposphere C) near the tropopause D) in the middle stratosphere 62. Why is strong heating of the ground by the sun associated with thunderstorms? A) increases the pressure gradient B) increases the wind speed C) leads to greater instability D) reduces the dew point 63. Why is very humid air near the surface a necessary ingredient for severe thunderstorms? A) more latent heat is then available as energy for the storm B) high humidity makes the air more dense C) high humidity strengthens the cold front D) high humidity makes the rising air cool more rapidly 64. A typical climatological time scale is ____ years? A) 10 B) 30 C) 100 D) 200