University:
Winston-Salem Forsyth County Schools
Course:
AP Chemistry
Academic year:

2011
Views:

268

Pages:

19
Author:

Hermoniicw6

2011 Chemistry Semeter 1 Exam Matching Match each item with the correct statement below. a. molar volume b. molar mass c. atomic mass ____ 1. the number of grams of an element that is numerically equal to the atomic mass of the element in amu ____ 2. the mass of a mole of any element or compound ____ 3. the volume occupied by a mole of any gas at STP Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 4. A theory is a ____. a. proposed explanation for an observation b. well-tested explanation for a broad set of observations c. summary of the results of many observations d. procedure used to test a proposed explanation ____ 5. Which step in the scientific method requires you to use your senses to obtain information? a. revising a hypothesis c. making an observation b. designing an experiment d. stating a theory ____ 6. Which of the following is NOT an example of matter? a. air c. smoke b. heat d. water vapor ____ 7. All of the following are physical properties of matter EXCEPT ____. a. mass c. melting point b. color d. ability to rust ____ 8. Which of the following is NOT a physical property of water? a. It has a boiling point of 100C. b. It is a colorless liquid. c. It is composed of hydrogen and oxygen. d. Sugar dissolves in it. ____ 9. Which of the following are considered physical properties of a substance? a. color and odor c. malleability and hardness b. melting and boiling points d. all of the above ____ 10. A vapor is which state of matter? a. solid b. liquid c. gas d. all of the above ____ 11. Which state of matter has a definite volume and takes the shape of its container? a. solid c. gas b. liquid d. both b and c ____ 12. Which state of matter takes both the shape and volume of its container? a. solid c. gas b. liquid d. both b and c ____ 13. Which state of matter is characterized by having an indefinite shape, but a definite volume? a. gas c. solid b. liquid d. none of the above ____ 14. Which state of matter is characterized by having a definite shape and a definite volume? a. gas c. solid b. liquid d. all of the above ____ 15. What must occur for a change to be a chemical reaction? a. There must be a change in chemical properties. b. There must be a change in physical properties. c. The change must involve a change in mass. d. The change must involve a change in volume. ____ 16. All of the following changes to a metal are physical changes EXCEPT ____. a. bending c. rusting b. melting d. polishing ____ 17. A chemical change occurs when a piece of wood ____. a. is split c. decays b. is painted d. is cut ____ 18. Which of the following indicates that a chemical change has happened during cooking? a. The food darkens. b. Bubbles form in boiling water. c. Butter melts. d. Energy is transferred from the stove to a pan. ____ 19. What happens to matter during a chemical reaction? a. Matter is neither destroyed or created. b. Some matter is destroyed. c. Some matter is created. d. Some matter is destroyed and some is created. ____ 20. The diameter of a carbon atom is 0.000 000 000 154 m. What is this number expressed in scientific notation? a. 1.54 10 m c. 1.54 10 m b. 1.54 10 m d. 1.54 10 m ____ 21. The expression of 5008 km in scientific notation is ____. a. 5.008 10 km c. 5.008 10 km b. 50.08 10 km d. 5.008 10 km ____ 22. What is the result of multiplying 2.5 10 by 3.5 10? a. 8.75 10 c. 8.75 10 b. 8.75 10 d. 8.75 10 ____ 23. What is the result of adding 2.5 10 and 3.5 10? a. 2.9 10 c. 2.9 10 b. 6.0 10 d. 6.0 10 ____ 24. The closeness of a measurement to its true value is a measure of its ____. a. precision c. reproducibility b. accuracy d. usefulness ____ 25. Which of the following measurements contains two significant figures? a. 0.004 00 L c. 0.000 44 L b. 0.004 04 L d. 0.004 40 L ____ 26. When a test instrument is calibrated, does its accuracy, precision, or reliability improve? a. precision c. reliability b. accuracy d. all of the above ____ 27. Which of the following measurements (of different masses) is the most accurate? a. 3.1000 g c. 3.122 22 g b. 3.100 00 g d. 3.000 000 g ____ 28. Which group of measurements is the most precise? (Each group of measurements is for a different object.) a. 2 g, 3 g, 4 g c. 2 g, 2.5 g, 3 g b. 2.0 g, 3.0 g, 4.0 g d. 1 g, 3 g, 5 g ____ 29. Three different people weigh a standard mass of 2.00 g on the same balance. Each person obtains a reading of 7.32 g for the mass of the standard. These results imply that the balance that was used is ____. a. accurate c. accurate and precise b. precise d. neither accurate nor precise ____ 30. In the measurement 0.503 L, which digit is the estimated digit? a. 5 b. the 0 immediately to the left of the 3 c. 3 d. the 0 to the left of the decimal point ____ 31. How many significant figures are in the measurement 40,500 mg? a. two c. four b. three d. five ____ 32. Express the product of 4.0 10 m and 8.1 10 m using the correct number of significant digits. a. 3 10 c. 3.2 10 b. 3.0 10 d. 3.24 10 ____ 33. When multiplying and dividing measured quantities, the number of significant figures in the result should be equal to the number of significant figures in ____. a. all of the measurements b. the least and most precise measurements c. the most precise measurement d. the least precise measurement ____ 34. What quantity is represented by the metric system prefix deci-? a. 1000 c. 0.1 b. 100 d. 0.01 ____ 35. The chief advantage of the metric system over other systems of measurement is that it ____. a. has more units c. is in French b. is in multiples of 10 d. is derived from nature itself ____ 36. Which of the following volumes is the smallest? a. one microliter c. one milliliter b. one liter d. one deciliter ____ 37. What is the temperature of absolute zero measured in C? a. –373C c. –173C b. –273C d. –73C ____ 38. If the temperature changes by 100 K, by how much does it change in C? a. 0C c. 100C b. 37C d. 273C Prefix mega (M) kilo (k) deci (d) centi (c) milli (m) micro () nano (n) pico (p) Commonly Used Metric Prefixes Meaning 1 million times larger than the unit it precedes 1000 times larger than the unit it precedes 10 times smaller than the unit it precedes 100 times smaller than the unit it precedes 1000 times smaller than the unit it precedes 1 million times smaller than the unit it precedes 1000 million times smaller than the unit it precedes 1 trillion times smaller than the unit it precedes Factor 10 10 10 10 10 10 10 10 ____ 39. What is the quantity 0.0075 meters expressed in centimeters? Use the table above to help you. a. 0.075 cm c. 7.5 cm b. 0.75 cm d. 70.5 cm ____ 40. What is the quantity 7896 millimeters expressed in meters? Use the table above to help you. a. 7.896 m c. 789.6 m b. 78.96 m d. 789,600 m ____ 41. What is the quantity 987 milligrams expressed in grams? Use the table above to help you. a. 0.000 987 g c. 9.87 g b. 0.987 g d. 98,700 g ____ 42. Which of the following equalities is NOT correct? Use the table above to help you. a. 100 cg = 1 g c. 1 cm = 1 mL b. 1000 mm = 1 m d. 10 kg = 1 g ____ 43. What is the volume of 45.6 g of silver if the density of silver is 10.5 g/mL? a. 0.23 mL c. 479 mL b. 4.34 mL d. none of the above ____ 44. If a liter of water is heated from 20C to 50C, what happens to its volume? a. The volume decreases. b. The volume increases. c. The volume first increases, then decreases. d. The volume first decreases, then increases. ____ 45. The comparison of the number of atoms in a copper coin the size of a penny with the number of people on Earth is made to illustrate which of the following? a. that atoms are indivisible b. that atoms are very small c. that atoms are very large d. that in a copper penny, there is one atom for every person on Earth ____ 46. The particles that are found in the nucleus of an atom are ____. a. neutrons and electrons c. protons and neutrons b. electrons only d. protons and electrons ____ 47. The nucleus of an atom is ____. a. the central core and is composed of protons and neutrons b. positively charged and has more protons than neutrons c. negatively charged and has a high density d. negatively charged and has a low density ____ 48. The atomic number of an element is the total number of which particles in the nucleus? a. neutrons c. electrons b. protons d. protons and electrons ____ 49. An element has an atomic number of 76. The number of protons and electrons in a neutral atom of the element are ____. a. 152 protons and 76 electrons c. 38 protons and 38 electrons b. 76 protons and 0 electrons d. 76 protons and 76 electrons ____ 50. All atoms of the same element have the same ____. a. number of neutrons c. mass numbers b. number of protons d. mass ____ 51. Isotopes of the same element have different ____. a. numbers of neutrons c. numbers of electrons b. numbers of protons d. atomic numbers ____ 52. In which of the following sets is the symbol of the element, the number of protons, and the number of electrons given correctly? a. In, 49 protons, 49 electrons c. Cs, 55 protons, 132.9 electrons b. Zn, 30 protons, 60 electrons d. F, 19 protons, 19 electrons ____ 53. If E is the symbol for an element, which two of the following symbols represent isotopes of the same element? 1. E 2. E 3. E 4. E a. 1 and 2 b. 3 and 4 c. 1 and 4 d. 2 and 3 ____ 54. Which of the following sets of symbols represents isotopes of the same element? a. J J J c. M M M b. L L L d. Q Q Q ____ 55. Which of the following statements is NOT true? a. Protons have a positive charge. b. Electrons are negatively charged and have a mass of 1 amu. c. The nucleus of an atom is positively charged. d. Neutrons are located in the nucleus of an atom. ____ 56. How does the energy of an electron change when the electron moves closer to the nucleus? a. It decreases. b. It increases. c. It stays the same. d. It doubles. ____ 57. The principal quantum number indicates what property of an electron? a. position c. energy level b. speed d. electron cloud shape ____ 58. What is the shape of the 3p atomic orbital? a. sphere b. dumbbell c. bar d. two perpendicular dumbbells ____ 59. How many energy sublevels are in the second principal energy level? a. 1 c. 3 b. 2 d. 4 ____ 60. What is the maximum number of orbitals in the p sublevel? a. 2 c. 4 b. 3 d. 5 ____ 61. What is the maximum number of electrons in the second principal energy level? a. 2 c. 18 b. 8 d. 32 ____ 62. When an electron moves from a lower to a higher energy level, the electron ____. a. always doubles its energy b. absorbs a continuously variable amount of energy c. absorbs a quantum of energy d. moves closer to the nucleus ____ 63. The shape (not the size) of an electron cloud is determined by the electron's ____. a. energy sublevel c. speed b. position d. principal quantum number ____ 64. The letter "p" in the symbol 4p indicates the ____. a. spin of an electron c. principle energy level b. orbital shape d. speed of an electron ____ 65. If the spin of one electron in an orbital is clockwise, what is the spin of the other electron in that orbital? a. zero c. counterclockwise b. clockwise d. both clockwise and counterclockwise ____ 66. What types of atomic orbitals are in the third principal energy level? a. s and p only c. s, p, and d only b. p and d only d. s, p, d, and f ____ 67. What is the next atomic orbital in the series 1s, 2s, 2p, 3s, 3p? a. 2d c. 3f b. 3d d. 4s ____ 68. What is the electron configuration of potassium? a. 1s2s2p3s3p4s c. 1s2s3s3p3d b. 1s2s2p3s3p d. 1s2s2p3s3p4s ____ 69. How does the speed of visible light compare with the speed of gamma rays, when both speeds are measured in a vacuum? a. The speed of visible light is greater. b. The speed of gamma rays is greater. c. The speeds are the same. d. No answer can be determined from the information given. ____ 70. What is the wavelength of an electromagnetic wave that travels at 3 10 m/s and has a frequency of 60 MHz? (1 MHz = 1,000,000 Hz) a. b. 60 MHz 300,000,000 m/s c. d. No answer can be determined from the information given. ____ 71. Emission of light from an atom occurs when an electron ____. a. drops from a higher to a lower energy level b. jumps from a lower to a higher energy level c. moves within its atomic orbital d. falls into the nucleus ____ 72. What SI unit is used to measure the number of representative particles in a substance? a. kilogram c. kelvin b. ampere d. mole ____ 73. How many hydrogen atoms are in 5 molecules of isopropyl alcohol, CHO? a. 5 (6.02 10) c. 35 b. 5 d. 35 (6.02 10) ____ 74. Avogadro's number of representative particles is equal to one ____. a. kilogram c. kelvin b. gram d. mole ____ 75. How many moles of tungsten atoms are in 4.8 10 atoms of tungsten? a. 8.0 10 moles c. 1.3 10 moles b. 8.0 10 moles d. 1.3 10 moles ____ 76. How many moles of silver atoms are in 1.8 10 atoms of silver? a. 3.0 10 c. 3.0 10 b. 3.3 10 d. 1.1 10 ____ 77. How many atoms are in 0.075 mol of titanium? a. 1.2 10-25 c. 6.4 10 b. 2.2 10 d. 4.5 10 ____ 78. How many molecules are in 2.10 mol CO? a. 2.53 10 molecules b. 3.79 10 molecules c. 3.49 10 molecules d. 1.26 10 molecules ____ 79. How many atoms are in 3.5 moles of arsenic atoms? a. 5.8 10 atoms c. 2.1 10 atoms b. 7.5 10 atoms d. 1.7 10 atoms ____ 80. Butanol is composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. If 1.0 mol of butanol contains 6.0 10 atoms of hydrogen, what is the subscript for the hydrogen atom in CHO? a. 1 c. 6 b. 10 d. 8 ____ 81. What is the molar mass of AuCl3? a. 96 g b. 130 g c. 232.5 g d. 303.6 g ____ 82. What is the molar mass of (NH)CO? a. 144 g b. 138 g c. 96 g d. 78 g ____ 83. The molar mass of CH and the molar mass of CaCO contain approximately the same number of ____. a. carbon atoms c. cations b. anions d. grams ____ 84. What is the number of moles in 432 g Ba(NO)? a. 0.237 mol c. 1.65 mol b. 0.605 mol d. 3.66 mol ____ 85. What is the number of moles of beryllium atoms in 36 g of Be? a. 0.25 mol c. 45.0 mol b. 4.0 mol d. 320 mol ____ 86. How many moles of CaBr are in 5.0 grams of CaBr? a. 2.5 10 mol c. 4.0 10 mol b. 4.2 10 mol d. 1.0 10 mol ____ 87. What is the mass of silver in 3.4 g AgNO? a. 0.025 g b. 0.64 g c. 2.2 g d. 3.0 g ____ 88. What information is needed to calculate the percent composition of a compound? a. the weight of the sample to be analyzed and its density b. the weight of the sample to be analyzed and its molar volume c. the formula of the compound and the atomic mass of its elements d. the formula of the compound and its density ____ 89. If 60.2 grams of Hg combines completely with 24.0 grams of Br to form a compound, what is the percent composition of Hg in the compound? a. 28.5% c. 71.5% b. 39.9% d. 60.1% ____ 90. What is the percent composition of chromium in BaCrO? a. 4.87% b. 9.47% c. 20.5% d. 25.2% ____ 91. Which of the following compounds have the same empirical formula? a. CO and SO c. CH and CH b. CH and CH d. CH and CH Short Answer 92. The following length measurements were taken by students using several different measuring devices. Find the average of the measurements. Make sure that your answer has the correct number of significant figures. 10.05 cm, 10.1 cm, 9.741 cm, 10.6 cm, 10.5 cm 93. How many representative particles are in 1.45 g of a molecular compound with a molar mass of 237 g? 94. Find the mass in grams of 3.10 10 molecules of F. 95. Find the number of moles of argon in 607 g of argon. 96. What is the percent composition of NiO, if a sample of NiO with a mass of 41.9 g contains 33.1 g Ni and 8.8 g O? 97. What is the percent by mass of hydrogen in aspirin, CHO? 2011 Chemistry Semeter 1 Exam Answer Section MATCHING 1. ANS: C OBJ: 10.1.3 PTS: 1 STA: GOAL 3.02 DIF: L1 REF: p. 294 2. ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: 10.1.3 | 10.1.4 DIF: L1 STA: GOAL 3.02 REF: p. 294 | p. 295 3. ANS: A OBJ: 10.2.2 PTS: 1 STA: GOAL 3.02 DIF: L1 REF: p. 300 4. ANS: B OBJ: 1.3.2 PTS: 1 STA: GOAL 1.01 DIF: L1 REF: p. 23 5. ANS: C OBJ: 1.3.2 PTS: 1 STA: GOAL 1.01 DIF: L2 REF: p. 22 6. ANS: B OBJ: 2.1.1 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 39 7. ANS: D OBJ: 2.1.2 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 40 8. ANS: C OBJ: 2.1.2 PTS: 1 STA: GOAL 2.04 DIF: L2 REF: p. 40 9. ANS: D OBJ: 2.1.2 PTS: 1 STA: GOAL 2.04 DIF: L2 REF: p. 40 10. ANS: C OBJ: 2.1.3 PTS: 1 STA: GOAL 2.04 DIF: L1 REF: p. 42 11. ANS: B OBJ: 2.1.3 PTS: 1 STA: GOAL 2.04 DIF: L1 REF: p. 41 12. ANS: C OBJ: 2.1.3 PTS: 1 STA: GOAL 2.04 DIF: L1 REF: p. 42 13. ANS: B OBJ: 2.1.3 PTS: 1 STA: GOAL 2.04 DIF: L1 REF: p. 41 14. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 41 MULTIPLE CHOICE OBJ: 2.1.3 STA: GOAL 2.04 15. ANS: A OBJ: 2.4.1 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 53 16. ANS: C OBJ: 2.4.1 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 53 17. ANS: C OBJ: 2.4.1 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 53 18. ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: 2.1.4 | 2.4.1 | 2.4.2 DIF: L2 REF: p. 54 STA: GOAL 5.03.c 19. ANS: A OBJ: 2.4.3 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 55 20. ANS: D OBJ: 3.1.1 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 63 21. ANS: A OBJ: 3.1.1 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 63 22. ANS: C OBJ: 3.1.1 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 63 | p. 71 23. ANS: A OBJ: 3.1.1 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 63 | p. 71 24. ANS: B OBJ: 3.1.2 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 64 25. ANS: C OBJ: 3.1.2 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 66 26. ANS: B OBJ: 3.1.2 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 64 27. ANS: D OBJ: 3.1.2 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 64 28. ANS: C OBJ: 3.1.2 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 64 29. ANS: B OBJ: 3.1.2 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 64 30. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 66 OBJ: 3.1.3 31. ANS: B OBJ: 3.1.3 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 66 32. ANS: C OBJ: 3.1.3 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 68 | p. 71 33. ANS: D OBJ: 3.1.3 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 68 | p. 71 34. ANS: C OBJ: 3.2.1 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 74 35. ANS: B OBJ: 3.2.1 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 73 36. ANS: A OBJ: 3.2.1 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 74 | p. 75 37. ANS: B OBJ: 3.2.1 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 77 38. ANS: C OBJ: 3.2.3 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 77 | p. 78 39. ANS: B OBJ: 3.3.2 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 84 40. ANS: A OBJ: 3.3.2 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 84 41. ANS: B OBJ: 3.3.2 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 84 42. ANS: D OBJ: 3.3.2 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 84 43. ANS: B OBJ: 3.4.1 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 91 44. ANS: B OBJ: 3.4.2 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 91 45. ANS: B OBJ: 4.1.3 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 STA: GOAL 2.01.a REF: p. 103 46. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 106 | p. 107 DIF: L2 OBJ: 4.2.1 | 4.2.2 STA: GOAL 2.01.c 47. ANS: A OBJ: 4.2.2 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 STA: GOAL 2.01.c REF: p. 107 | p. 108 48. ANS: B OBJ: 4.3.1 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 STA: GOAL 2.02.c REF: p. 110 49. ANS: D OBJ: 4.3.1 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 STA: GOAL 2.02.c REF: p. 110 50. ANS: B OBJ: 4.3.1 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 STA: GOAL 2.02.a REF: p. 110 51. ANS: A OBJ: 4.3.1 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 STA: GOAL 2.02.d REF: p. 112 | p. 113 52. ANS: A OBJ: 4.2.1 | 4.3.1 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 STA: GOAL 3.01.c REF: p. 110 53. ANS: C OBJ: 4.3.1 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 STA: GOAL 2.02.d REF: p. 112 54. ANS: C OBJ: 4.3.1 PTS: 1 DIF: L3 STA: GOAL 2.02.d REF: p. 112 | p. 113 55. ANS: B OBJ: 4.3.3 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 STA: GOAL 2.02.b REF: p. 114 56. ANS: A OBJ: 5.1.3 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 STA: GOAL 2.01.d | GOAL 3.01.d REF: p. 128 57. ANS: C OBJ: 5.1.3 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 STA: GOAL 3.01.d REF: p. 131 58. ANS: B OBJ: 5.1.3 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 STA: GOAL 3.01.d REF: p. 131 59. ANS: B OBJ: 5.1.3 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 STA: GOAL 3.01.d REF: p. 131 60. ANS: B OBJ: 5.1.3 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 STA: GOAL 3.01.d REF: p. 131 | p. 132 61. ANS: B OBJ: 5.1.3 PTS: 1 DIF: L3 STA: GOAL 3.01.d REF: p. 132 62. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 128 DIF: L3 OBJ: 5.1.3 STA: GOAL 4.01.b 63. ANS: A OBJ: 5.1.4 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 STA: GOAL 3.01.d REF: p. 131 64. ANS: B OBJ: 5.1.4 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 STA: GOAL 3.01.d REF: p. 131 65. ANS: C OBJ: 5.2.1 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 STA: GOAL 3.01.d REF: p. 134 66. ANS: C OBJ: 5.2.1 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 STA: GOAL 3.01.d REF: p. 131 67. ANS: D OBJ: 5.2.1 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 STA: GOAL 3.01.d REF: p. 133 68. ANS: D OBJ: 5.2.1 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 STA: GOAL 3.01.d REF: p. 133 | p. 134 | p. 135 69. ANS: C OBJ: 5.3.1 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 STA: GOAL 4.01.b REF: p. 139 70. ANS: C OBJ: 5.3.1 PTS: 1 DIF: L3 STA: GOAL 4.01.b REF: p. 140 71. ANS: A OBJ: 5.3.2 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 STA: GOAL 4.01.b REF: p. 141 72. ANS: D OBJ: 10.1.2 PTS: 1 STA: GOAL 3.02 DIF: L1 REF: p. 290 73. ANS: C OBJ: 10.1.2 PTS: 1 STA: GOAL 3.03 DIF: L1 REF: p. 291 | p. 292 74. ANS: D OBJ: 10.1.2 PTS: 1 STA: GOAL 3.02 DIF: L1 REF: p. 290 75. ANS: B OBJ: 10.1.2 PTS: 1 STA: GOAL 3.03 DIF: L2 REF: p. 290 | p. 291 76. ANS: A OBJ: 10.1.2 PTS: 1 STA: GOAL 3.03 DIF: L2 REF: p. 290 | p. 291 77. ANS: D OBJ: 10.1.2 PTS: 1 STA: GOAL 3.03 DIF: L2 REF: p. 291 | p. 292 78. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 291 | p. 292 OBJ: 10.1.2 STA: GOAL 3.03 79. ANS: C OBJ: 10.1.2 PTS: 1 STA: GOAL 3.03 DIF: L2 REF: p. 291 | p. 292 80. ANS: B OBJ: 10.1.2 PTS: 1 STA: GOAL 2.03 DIF: L3 REF: p. 290 | p. 291 81. ANS: D OBJ: 10.1.4 PTS: 1 STA: GOAL 3.02 DIF: L2 REF: p. 295 | p. 296 82. ANS: C OBJ: 10.1.4 PTS: 1 STA: GOAL 3.02 DIF: L2 REF: p. 295 | p. 296 83. ANS: D OBJ: 10.1.4 PTS: 1 STA: GOAL 3.02 DIF: L2 REF: p. 295 | p. 296 84. ANS: C OBJ: 10.2.1 PTS: 1 STA: GOAL 3.02 DIF: L2 REF: p. 299 85. ANS: B OBJ: 10.2.1 PTS: 1 STA: GOAL 3.02 DIF: L2 REF: p. 299 86. ANS: A OBJ: 10.2.1 PTS: 1 STA: GOAL 3.02 DIF: L2 REF: p. 299 87. ANS: C OBJ: 10.2.1 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 STA: GOAL 3.03.b REF: p. 298 88. ANS: C OBJ: 10.3.1 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 STA: GOAL 3.02.f REF: p. 307 89. ANS: C OBJ: 10.3.1 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 STA: GOAL 3.02.f REF: p. 305 | p. 306 90. ANS: C OBJ: 10.3.1 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 STA: GOAL 3.02.f REF: p. 307 91. ANS: B OBJ: 10.3.2 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 STA: GOAL 3.02.e REF: p. 309 SHORT ANSWER 92. ANS: Average = (10.05 + 10.1 + 9.741 + 10.6 + 10.5) / 5 = 10.2 cm PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 68 | p. 71 OBJ: 3.1.3 93. ANS: 1.45 g 1.00 mol/237 g 6.02 10 molecules/1.00 mol = 3.68 10 molecules PTS: 1 STA: GOAL 3.02 DIF: L2 REF: p. 292 OBJ: 10.1.2 94. ANS: 3.10 10 molecules 1 mol F/6.02 10 molecules 38.0 g F/1 mol F = 19.6 g F PTS: 1 DIF: L2 STA: GOAL 3.03.b REF: p. 297 OBJ: 10.2.1 REF: p. 299 OBJ: 10.2.1 REF: p. 307 OBJ: 10.3.1 REF: p. 307 OBJ: 10.3.1 95. ANS: 607 g Ar 1 mol Ar/39.9 g Ar = 15.2 mol Ar PTS: 1 DIF: L2 STA: GOAL 3.03.a 96. ANS: 33.1 g Ni/41.9 g NiO 100% = 79% Ni 8.8 g O/41.9 g NiO 100% = 21% O PTS: 1 DIF: L2 STA: GOAL 3.02.f 97. ANS: 8.00 g H/180 g CHO 100% = 4.44% H PTS: 1 DIF: L3 STA: GOAL 3.02.f