Employee Testing and Selection Test Answer Key Part 4

74) How would an employer benefit from using both personality tests and situational tests when screening job applicants? Answer: A person's cognitive and physical abilities alone seldom explain his or her job performance. Other factors, like motivation and interpersonal skills, are very important, and these can be discovered through personality tests. Employers use personality tests to measure and predict intangibles of an applicant's personality, such as introversion, stability, and motivation. Situational tests require examinees to respond to situations representative of the job. Work sampling, video-based tests, and miniature job training are situational tests. Miniature job training and evaluation assumes that a person who demonstrates that he or she can learn and perform the sample of tasks will be able to learn and perform the job itself. This approach tests applicants with actual samples of the job, so it's inherently content relevant and valid. 75) Industrial psychologists often emphasize the "big five" personality dimensions in personnel testing. List and explain the meaning of the big five dimensions. How do personality traits correlate with job performance? Answer: The "big five" personality dimensions are neuroticism, extroversion, agreeableness, conscientiousness, and openness to experience. Neuroticism refers to a tendency to exhibit poor emotional adjustment and experience negative effects like anxiety and insecurity. Extroversion represents a tendency to be sociable, assertive, and active. Openness to experience is the disposition to be imaginative, nonconforming, unconventional, and autonomous. Agreeableness is the tendency to be trusting, compliant, caring, and gentle. Conscientiousness is comprised of two related facets including achievement and dependability. Extroversion is generally associated with success in sales. Extroversion, conscientiousness, and openness to experience are strong predictors of leadership. Neuroticism is negatively related to motivation. Conscientiousness is the most consistent and universal predictor of job performance. 76) What is a management assessment center? What are some of the most common tasks conducted in management assessment centers? Answer: A management assessment center is a 2-3 day simulation in which 10-12 candidates perform realistic management tasks under the observation of experts who appraise each candidate's leadership potential. Typical simulated exercises include 1) the in basket, 2) leaderless group discussion, 3) management games, 4) individual presentations, 5) objective tests, and 6) the interview. These centers can be used for promotion and development purposes as well as for selection. 77) What are three arguments against the use of personality tests as predictors of job performance? Answer: First, projective tests are hard to interpret. An expert must analyze the test taker's interpretations and infer from them his or her personality. The test's usefulness then assumes there's a measurable relationship between a personality trait (like introversion) and success on the job. Second, personality tests can trigger legal challenges. For example, one court held that the MMPI is a medical test (because it can screen out applicants with psychological impairments), and so might violate the ADA. Third, some experts dispute that self-report personality tests predict performance at all. Fourth, people can and will fake responses to personality tests. So personality tests can be useful tools but there can be significant concerns about use. 78) With the work sampling technique, applicants are ________. A) asked to submit examples of projects they have completed for other employers B) tested on their ability to perform several tasks crucial to performing the job of interest C) tested on their ability to perform a range of tasks related to several positions in a firm D) given video-based situational interviews to assess their critical thinking skills Answer: B Explanation: B) The work sampling technique tries to predict job performance by requiring job candidates to perform one or more samples of the job's basic tasks. An observer monitors performance on each task and rates the applicant's performance. 79) Which of the following is the primary advantage of the work sampling technique? A) Applicants find it difficult to fake answers. B) Employers learn about an applicant's personality. C) Applicants can evaluate their own performance. D) Fine motor skills can be accurately assessed over time. Answer: A Explanation: A) Work sampling has several advantages. It measures actual job tasks, so it's harder to fake answers. Work sampling doesn't delve into the applicant's personality, so there's almost no chance of applicants viewing it as an invasion of privacy. 80) A(n) ________ is a multi-day simulation in which candidates perform realistic tasks in hypothetical situations and are scored on their performance. A) work sampling event B) situational judgment test C) management assessment center D) applicant personality test Answer: C Explanation: C) A management assessment center is a 2- to 3-day simulation in which 10 to 12 candidates perform realistic management tasks (like making presentations) under the observation of experts who appraise each candidate's leadership potential. 81) Typical simulated exercises used in management assessment centers include all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) the in-basket B) leaderless group discussions C) motor skills assessments D) management games Answer: C Explanation: C) Management assessment center tasks include the in-basket, leaderless group discussion, management games, individual oral presentations, testing, and interviews. Motor skills are not assessed. 82) Which of the following is the primary advantage of using management assessment centers in the selection process? A) Development costs are very low. B) Minimal time is required for test administration. C) Industrial psychologists are involved in the testing process. D) Experts observe and appraise each candidate's leadership potential. Answer: D Explanation: D) Management assessment centers are expensive to develop, take much longer than conventional tests, require managers acting as assessors, and often require psychologists. However, studies suggest they are worth it as they gain valuable insights about the candidates under the observation of experts who appraise each candidate's leadership potential. 83) Work sampling, miniature job training, and video-based tests are examples of ________. A) intelligence tests B) personality tests C) situational tests D) interests inventories Answer: C Explanation: C) Situational tests, such as work sampling, miniature job training, and videobased tests, require examinees to respond to situations representative of the job. 84) Which of the following terms refers to training candidates to perform several of the job's tasks and then assessing the candidates' performance prior to hire? A) achievement testing B) work sampling technique C) management assessment center D) miniature job training Answer: D Explanation: D) Miniature job training and evaluation means training candidates to perform several of the job's tasks, and then evaluating the candidates' performance prior to hire. The approach assumes that a person who demonstrates that he or she can learn and perform the sample of tasks will be able to learn and perform the job itself. 85) Carter Vacuums needs to hire 20 new employees to fill positions at its manufacturing facility. The HR department wants to minimize the costs related to screening applicants but also wants the assessment method to be highly valid to the specific jobs. Which of the following would be the best choice for Carter Vacuums? A) structured interviews B) cognitive ability tests C) assessment centers D) work samples Answer: B Explanation: B) Cognitive ability tests are highly valid and the costs related to developing and administering the tests are low and they measure mental ability, such as deductive reasoning verbal comprehension, memory and numerical ability for jobs like machinists or engineers. 86) Blue Bay Hotels is in the process of modifying the assessment methods the company uses to hire new employees. In the past, the hotel chain has been accused by minority organizations of violating EEO laws in its hiring practices. Which of the following applicant assessment methods would most likely have the LEAST adverse impact on minorities? A) aptitude tests B) cognitive ability tests C) work sampling technique D) job knowledge tests Answer: C Explanation: C) Work samples have a low adverse impact on applicants. Cognitive ability tests, also known as aptitude tests, and job knowledge tests have a high adverse impact against minorities. 87) Tina is applying for a job as an assembly worker at Honda. As part of the selection procedure, Tina received classroom instruction and was asked to practice assembling windshield wipers onto cars. Tina most likely participated in ________. A) miniature job training and evaluation B) situational judgment tests C) assessment centers D) management games Answer: A Explanation: A) Miniature job training and evaluation means training candidates to perform several of the job's tasks, and then evaluating the candidates' performance prior to hire. 88) As the HR manager at Johnson Manufacturing, Derek is responsible for deciding which selection tools are most appropriate. When deciding on a specific selection tool, Derek should most likely consider all of the following factors EXCEPT the tool's ________. A) return on investment B) adverse impact C) persistence D) usability Answer: C Explanation: C) The employer needs to consider several things before deciding to use a particular selection tool. These include the tool's reliability and validity; its return on investment (in terms of utility analysis); applicant reactions; usability (in terms of your managers' and employees' willingness and ability to use it); adverse impact; and the tool's selection ratio. 89) Most small businesses find it cost-effective to conduct validity studies of the selection tools they use. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Many employers, particularly smaller ones, won't find it cost-effective to conduct validity studies for the selection tools they use. These employers must identify tests and other screening tools that have been shown to be valid in other settings (companies), and then bring them in-house in the hopes that they'll be valid there, too. 90) Employers most likely conduct background investigations and reference checks to verify a candidate's ________. A) age B) marital status C) military service D) disability history Answer: C Explanation: C) Employers verify data regarding military service, employment history, education, and credit. An applicant's age, marital status, ethnicity, and medical history or disabilities are considered irrelevant to hiring, and an employer may violate EEO laws by requesting such information. 91) According to surveys of HR managers, which of the following is most frequently verified during an employment background investigation? A) age B) references C) credit ratings D) driving records Answer: B Explanation: B) Nearly 90% of HR managers reported conducting reference checks. Credit checks were performed by 35% of HR managers, while 56% investigated an applicant's driving history. 92) Which of the following is the primary reason that firms conduct background investigations of job applicants? A) adhere to legal hiring practices B) limit the number of applicants C) uncover false information D) report criminals to police Answer: C Explanation: C) There are two main reasons to check backgrounds—to verify the applicant's information (name and so forth) and to uncover damaging information, such as criminal activities or falsified information about education and experience. 93) Elliot, a manager at Harwood Publishing, gave a bad reference to a former employee. Elliot could most likely be accused of ________ if the information is both false and harmful. A) discrimination B) adverse impact C) arbitration D) defamation Answer: D Explanation: D) A communication is defamatory if it is false and tends to harm the reputation of another by lowering the person in the estimation of the community or by deterring other persons from associating or dealing with him or her. Managers, supervisors, and employers can be sued for defamation if comments are found to be false and harmful. 94) Which of the following methods for gathering background information about a job applicant is NOT recommended because of potential legal violations? A) searching social networking sites for posted information about the applicant B) using a database to access information about the applicant's credit history C) locating references other than the ones provided by the applicant D) using a search engine to find information about the applicant Answer: A Explanation: A) Using a search engine like Google is acceptable, but checking social networking sites raises legal issues, especially when done without the candidate's prior approval. Using databases and contacting references are recommended for finding useful information about an applicant. 95) According to state and federal laws, which of the following actions is NOT required of employers who check background information on applicants? A) disclosing to the applicant that a credit report will be requested B) certifying to the reporting agency of the employer's legal compliance C) providing copies of reports to the applicant if adverse action is considered D) providing a detailed rationale explaining the reason for any adverse action Answer: D Explanation: D) Employers must disclose to the applicant that a report will be requested and certify with the reporting agency that the employer has the consent of the applicant. If adverse action, such as withdrawing an employment offer, is being considered or occurs, then the employer must provide the applicant with a copy of the report but a detailed rationale is not needed. 96) In which of the following situations is it NOT legal to require an applicant to take a polygraph test as part of the selection process? A) electrical engineer at the Department of Energy B) pharmacist's assistant at Walgreen's C) security guard at Wells Fargo Bank D) cashier at J.C. Penney's Answer: D Explanation: D) Local, state, and federal government employers can use polygraphs, but state laws restrict many local and state governments. Private employers can use polygraph testing, but only under strictly limited circumstances, such as for security personnel or for positions with access to drugs. Cashiers at retail stores should not be asked to take polygraph tests. 97) What type of screening device is designed to measure attitudes regarding tolerance of others who steal and other forms of counter productivity? A) honesty tests B) interest inventories C) personality tests D) graphology Answer: A Explanation: A) Honesty tests are psychological tests designed to predict job applicants' proneness to dishonesty and other forms of counter productivity. Most measure attitudes regarding things like tolerance of others who steal, acceptance of rationalizations for theft, and admission of theft-related activities. 98) For an employer to administer a polygraph exam during an ongoing investigation of theft, an employer must do all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) prove that the accused had access to the property B) document a reasonable suspicion prior to requesting a polygraph C) explain the details of the investigation and the questions to be asked during the polygraph D) subject all employees with access to the property in question to the same polygraph examination as the accused employee Answer: D Explanation: D) To administer a polygraph test for an ongoing investigation, an employer must meet four standards. First, the employer must show that it suffered an economic loss or injury. Second, it must show that the employee in question had access to the property. Third, it must have a reasonable suspicion before asking the employee to take the polygraph. Fourth, the employee must receive the details of the investigation before the test, as well as the questions to be asked on the polygraph test. All employees are not required to take a polygraph. 99) Graphology, a tool for assessing basic personality traits, is also called ________. A) numerology B) reasoning analysis C) handwriting analysis D) polygraph output assessment Answer: C Explanation: C) Graphology refers to the use of handwriting analysis to determine the writer's basic personality traits. Graphology thus has some resemblance to projective personality tests, although graphology's validity is highly suspect. 100) What type of screening is used to reduce absenteeism and establish a baseline for future insurance claims? A) physical exams B) personality tests C) substance abuse screening D) fine motor skills assessments Answer: A Explanation: A) Preemployment medical exams are used to verify that the applicant meets the position's physical requirements, to discover any medical limitations you should consider in placing him or her, and to establish a baseline for future insurance or compensation claims. 101) Which of the following is most likely true regarding substance abuse screening? A) According to federal law, all employers must test all employees for illegal drugs. B) Some urine sample tests cannot distinguish between legal and illegal substances. C) Most employers test potential applicants during the recruitment process. D) Most urine sample tests measure the degree of impairment. Answer: B Explanation: B) Some urine sample tests cannot tell the difference between legal and illegal substances, such as Advil and marijuana. 102) E-Verify is primarily used by employers to ________. A) review an applicant's employment records B) file an applicant's income tax information C) determine if an applicant is eligible to work in the U.S. D) report an applicant's work status to the U.S. government Answer: C Explanation: C) E-Verify is the federal government's voluntary electronic employment verification program used by many employers. Federal contractors are required to use E-Verify to determine if an applicant is eligible to work in the U.S. 103) According to experts known as human lie detectors, which of the following characteristics most likely indicates that a job candidate is being deceptive? A) uncrossed legs B) irregular breathing C) unchanging pupils D) slow verbal responses Answer: B Explanation: B) Human lie detectors are experts who may (or may not) be able to identify lying just by watching candidates. Signs include pupils changing size (which often corresponds to emotions, such as fear); irregular breathing (may flag nervousness); micro-expressions (quick transitory facial expressions that may portray emotions such as fear); crossing legs ("liars typically try to distance themselves from an untruth"); and quick verbal responses (possibly reflecting scripted statements). 104) Managers cannot be sued for defamation when giving bad references because only employers are held responsible by state and federal courts. Answer: FALSE Explanation: First-line supervisors and managers, not just employers, are potentially at risk for defamation lawsuits. A communication is defamatory if it is false and tends to harm the reputation of another by lowering the person in the estimation of the community or by deterring other persons from associating or dealing with him or her. 105) Most employers report preferring written references to telephone references because written letters provide more candid information about job candidates. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Telephone references typically provide more candid information than written references. Employers are able to ask follow up questions during a phone conversation, which is more likely to provide useful information about an applicant. 106) Employment screening services are useful in the selection process because they have access to a job applicant's credit history, driving record, and workers' compensation claims history. Answer: TRUE Explanation: It is easy to have employment screening services check out applicants. Numerous firms do this. Top providers use databases to access information about matters such as workers' compensation and credit histories, and conviction and driving records. 107) The Privacy Act is the main directive at the federal level that governs how employers acquire and use applicants' and employees' background information. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The Fair Credit Reporting Act is the main directive at the federal level that governs how employers acquire and use background information gathered for employment purposes. 108) In order to be legally eligible to work in the United States, a person must be a U.S. citizen. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Employees hired in the United States must prove they are eligible to work in the United States. However, a person does not have to be a U.S. citizen to be employable. They may be eligible if they have a work permit. 109) How can employers protect themselves against negligent hiring? Answer: Negligent hiring means hiring employees with criminal records or other problems who then use access to customers' homes (or similar opportunities) to commit crimes. Avoiding negligent hiring claims requires good screening. This means taking "reasonable" action to investigate the candidate's background. Specifically, ". . . make a systematic effort to gain relevant information about the applicant, verify documentation, follow up on missing records or gaps in employment, and keep a detailed log of all attempts to obtain information, including the names and dates for phone calls or other requests." Background investigations and reference checks can be major ways of avoiding negligent hiring. Honesty testing and drug testing can be others. 110) Various federal and state laws govern how employers acquire and use applicants' and employees' background information. What four steps are necessary in order for an employer to be in compliance with these laws? Answer: The four steps are 1) disclosure and authorization; 2) certification; 3) provision of report copies; and 4) notice after adverse action. In the first step, employers must disclose to the applicant or employee that a report will be requested and that copies may be provided to the employee/applicant, and the employer must obtain the employee/applicant's written authorization. In the second step, the employer must certify to the reporting agency that the employer will comply with the federal and state legal requirements. In the third step, the employer must provide copies of the report to the applicant/employee if adverse action such as withdrawing an offer or dismissing the employee is contemplated. After the employer provides the employee or applicant with copies of the consumer and investigative reports and a "reasonable period" has elapsed, the employer may take adverse action. If so, the employee or applicant must receive an adverse action notice.