Advanced Patho Final Exam Actual 2025/2026

NUR 631 ADVANCED PATHO FINAL EXAM ACTUAL 2025/2026 QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT ANSWERS In which type of pleural effusion does the fluid become watery and diffuse out of the capillaries as a result of increased blood pressure or decreased capillary oncotic pressure? A. exudative B. Purulent C. Transudative D. Large - Answer -ANS: C In transudative pleural effusion, the fluid, or transudate, is watery and diffuses out of the capillaries as a result of disorders that increase intravascular hydrostatic pressure or decrease capillary oncotic pressure. The described mechanism is not associated with the other forms of pleural effusion. HPV causes what cancer? - Answer -cervical cancer Human herpesvirus (HHV) 8 causes what cancer? - Answer -Kaposi Sarcoma Hepatitis B virus (HBV) causes what type of cancer? - Answer -Liver Cancer Helicobacter pylori causes what type of cancer? - Answer -Stomach Cancer Research has shown a link between cancer and which sexually transmitted disease? A. Syphilis Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com B. Gonorrhea C. HPV D. Pelvic inflammatory disease - Answer -ANS: C Human papillomavirus (HPV) is the most common sexually transmitted virus in the United States. High-risk, or oncogenic, HPVs can cause cancer. A persistence of infection with high-risk HPV is a prerequisite for the development of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) lesions and invasive cervical cancers. No research supports such a link between the remaining options and Research data support a carcinogenic relationship in children resulting from exposure to which virus? A. Herpes simplex virus B. Influenza C. Varicella zoster virus D. Epstein-Barr virus - Answer -ANS: D The strongest association between viruses and the development of cancer in children has been the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), Burkitt lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma, and Hodgkin disease. No current research supports a link between the remaining options and childhood cancer. A child diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) has an increased risk of developing: A. Non-Hodgkins lymphoma B. Retinoblastoma C. Eptein-Barr D. Leukemia - Answer -ANS: A Children with AIDS have an increased risk of developing non-Hodgkin lymphoma and Kaposi sarcoma. Leukemia is linked to retinoblastoma. Epstein-Barr has been linked to the development of some cancers, whereas no known link has been found between AIDS and the development of leukemia. In infectious mononucleosis (IM), what does the Monospot test detect? A. IgE B. IgM C. IgG D. IgA Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com - Answer -ANS: B Heterophile antibodies are a heterogeneous group of IgM antibodies that are agglutinins against nonhuman red blood cells (e.g., sheep, horse) and are detected by qualitative (monospot) or quantitative (heterophile antibody) test methods. This statement is not true of the other options. Infectious mononucleosis is mostly caused by what virus? - Answer -Epstein-Barr virus The Philadelphia chromosome is present in more than 95% of patients with this... - Answer -Chronic myelogenous leukemia Bence Jones protein is present in the blood and urine in approximately 80% of patients with.... - Answer -Multiple myeloma _________________ is characterized by its progression from one group of lymph nodes to another, the development of systemic symptoms, and the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells - Answer -Hodgkin lymphoma Prerenal injury from poor perfusion can result from which condition? (Select all that apply.) a. bilateral ureteral obstruction b. renal vasoconstriction c. renal artery thrombosis d. hemorrhage e. hypostension - Answer -ANS: B, C, D, E Poor perfusion can result from renal artery thrombosis, hypotension related to hypovolemia (dehydration, diarrhea, fluid shifts) or hemorrhage, renal vasoconstriction and alterations in renal regional blood flow, microthrombi, or kidney edema that restricts arterial blood flow. Bilateral ureteral obstruction is not associated with prerenal injuries. Hypercalciuria is primarily attributable to which alteration? a. defective renal calcium reabsorption b. intestinal hyperabsorption of dietary calcium Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com c. bone demineralization caused by prolonged immobilization d. hyperparathyroidism - Answer -ANS: B Hypercalciuria is usually attributable to intestinal hyperabsorption of dietary calcium and less commonly to a defect in renal calcium reabsorption. Hyperparathyroidism and bone demineralization associated with prolonged immobilization are also known to cause hypercalciuria but too a much lesser degree. which statement is false concerning the skeletal alterations caused by chronic renal failure when the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) declines to 25% of normal? a, parathyroid hormone is no linger effective in maintaining serum phosphate levels. b. the parathyroid gland is no longer able to secrete sufficient parathyroid hormone c. The synthesis of 1,25 vit D3, which reduces intestinal absorption of calcium, is impaired. d. The synthesis of 1,25 vit D3, which impairs the effectiveness of calcium and phosphate resorption from bone by parathyroid hormone, is impaired. - Answer -ANS: B Bone and skeletal changes develop with alterations in calcium and phosphate metabolism (see Table 38-16). These changes begin when the GFR decreases to 25% or less. The combined effect of hyperparathyroidism and vitamin D deficiency can result in renal osteodystrophies (e.g., osteomalacia, osteitis fibrosa with increased risk for fractures). Other consequences of secondary hyperparathyroidism include soft-tissue and vascular calcification, cardiovascular disease, and, less commonly, calcific uremic arteriolopathy. The other options are true. An example of an X-linked recessive disease is.... - Answer -Duchenne muscular dystrophy An example of two autosomal recessive diseases are... - Answer -Cystic fibrosis and sickle cell anemia A well-known atuosomal dominant disease is.... - Answer -Huntington disease describe cystic fibrosis - Answer -Cystic fibrosis is best described as a pulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein-producing viscous mucus Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com that obstructs the airways, pancreas, sweat ducts, and vas deferens. This selection is the only option that accurately describes cystic fibrosis. what are the abnormalities in cytokines found in children with cystic fibrosis (CF)? hint: IL-10 IL-1 IL-8 TNF-alpha - Answer -Abnormal cytokine profiles have been documented in CF airway fluids, including deficient IL-10 and excessive IL-1, IL-8, and TNFα, all changes conducive to promoting inflammation. This selection is the only option that accurately identifies the abnormalities in cytokines observed in children with CF. X-linked recessive means that the disease affects ___________ and is transmitted by ______________ - Answer -men, women Describe a Schilling - Answer -Administration of radioactive cobalamin and the measurement of its excretion in the urine to test for vitamin B12 deficiency malrotation is associated with what defining characteristic? - Answer -Periduodenal band Intestinal malrotation is a condition in which rotation does not occur and the colon remains in the upper right quadrant, where an abnormal membrane may press and obstruct the duodenum. The obstructing band over the duodenum, called a periduodenal band, is one of the most significant findings in malrotation. Hirschsprung disease is also known as? - Answer -Congenital aganglionic megacolon Congenital aganglionic megacolon (Hirschsprung disease) is a functional obstruction of the colon caused by the absence of the enteric ganglia along a variable length of the colon with inadequate motility. Anemia of chronic renal failure can be successfully treated with which element? a. intrinsic factor b. vitamin B12 C. Vitamin D D. erythropoietin - Answer -ANS: D Anemia of chronic renal failure can be successfully treated with Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com erythropoietin. Reduced erythropoietin secretion and reduced red cell production are evident in anemia resulting from chronic renal failure. The other options are not relevant to this condition. Which renal disorders are considered causes of intrarenal renal failure? (Select all that apply.) a. acute glomerulonephritis b. allograft rejection c. Tumors d. Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) e. prostatic hypertrophy - Answer -ANS: A, B, C, D Intrarenal (intrinsic) acute kidney injury (AKI) may result from ischemic ATN, nephrotoxic ATN, acute glomerulonephritis, vascular disease, allograft rejection, or interstitial disease (drug allergy, infection, tumor growth). Prostatic hypertrophy is not associated with intrarenal renal failure. Which type of immunity is produced by an individual after either natural exposure to the antigen or after immunization against the antigen? a. passive-aquired b. active-aquired c. passive-innate d. active innate - Answer -ANS: B An individual produces active-acquired immunity (active immunity) after natural exposure to an antigen or after immunization, whereas passive-acquired immunity (passive immunity) does not involve the host's immune response at all. The innate immune system, also known as nonspecific immune system and the first line of defense, is composed of the cells and mechanisms that defend the host from infection by other organisms in a nonspecific manner, which means that the cells of the innate system recognize and respond to pathogens in a generic way. What type of immunity is produced when an immunoglobulin crosses the placenta? a. passive-aquired b. active-aquired c. passive-innate d. active-innate - Answer -ANS: A Passive-acquired immunity (passive immunity) does not involve the Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com host's immune response at all. Rather, passive immunity occurs when preformed antibodies or T lymphocytes are transferred from a donor to the recipient. This transfer can occur naturally, as in the passage of maternal antibodies across the placenta to the fetus, or artificially, as in a clinic using immunotherapy for a specific disease. The remaining options do not produce immunity via immunoglobulin transfer across the placenta. Cystic fibrosis is caused by what type of gene? a. X-linked dominant b. X-linked recessive c. autosomal dominant d. autosomal recessive - Answer -ANS: D The most common lethal autosomal recessive disease in white children, cystic fibrosis, occurs in approximately 1 in 2500 births. The correct option is the only one that accurately identifies the gene type responsible for cystic fibrosis. Cri du chat, which literally means "cry of the cat," describes the characteristic cry of the affected child for what disease? - Answer -cri du chat syndrome or 5P minus Which statement is true regarding X-linked recessive conditions? a. such diseases use males as phenotypical carriers b. These conditions are passed from affected father to all of his female children c. 25% of an affected individual's grandsons will be affected d. Cystic fibrosis is an example of such a condition - Answer -ANS: B X-linked recessive conditions are passed from an affected father to all of his daughters, who, as phenotypically normal carriers, transmit it to approximately one half of their sons, who are affected. Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal dominant disease. Protein energy malnutrition is a defining characteristic of what diseases? - Answer -Kwashiorkor and marasmus are the two most common types of malnutrition in children. These disorders are collectively known as protein energy malnutrition (PEM). celiac sprue or celiac disease is characterized by what sensitivity? - Answer -Gluten-sensitive enteropathy, formerly called celiac sprue or Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com celiac disease, is an autoimmune disease that damages the small intestinal villous epithelium when ingestion of gluten (gliadin), the protein component of cereal grains, occurs. What condition is associated with a lack of digestive enzymes during fetal life? a. malrotation b. celiac sprue c. meconium ileus d. Marasmus and kwashiorkor - Answer -ANS: C Meconium ileus is intestinal obstruction caused by meconium formed in utero that is abnormally sticky and adheres firmly to the mucosa of the small intestine, resisting passage beyond the terminal ileum. The cause is usually a lack of digestive enzymes during fetal life. Cystic fibrosis is caused by which process...? a. autosomal recessive inheritance b. autisomal dominant inheritance c. infection d. malignancy - Answer -ANS: A Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive inherited disorder that is associated with defective epithelial ion transport. None of the other options cause cystic fibrosis. Raynaud phenomenon is classified as a type III hypersensitivity reaction and is due to: a, Immune complexes that are deposited in capillary beds, blocking circulation b. Mast cells that are bound to specific endothelial receptors, causing them to degranulate and creating a localized inflammatry reaction that occludes capillary circulation c. cytotoxic T cells that attack and detroy the capillaries d. Antibodies that detect the capillaries as foreign protein and destroy them using lysosomal enzymes and toxic oxygen species - Answer -ANS: A Raynaud phenomenon is a condition caused by the temperaturedependent deposition of immune complexes in the capillary beds of the peripheral circulation. None of the other options are involved in causing this condition. Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com Hodgkin disease is characterized by the presence of which of the following? a. philadelphia chromosome b. virchow triad c. microvascular thrombi d. reed-sternberg (RS) cells - Answer -ANS: D Hodgkin disease is characterized by its progression from one group of lymph nodes to another, the development of systemic symptoms, and the presence of RS cells (see Figure 29-8), but not the involvement of the Philadelphia chromosome. Virchow triad is a symptom related to thrombus formation. Disseminated intravascular coagulation is associated with microvascular thrombi. The BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations increase the risk of which cancer in women? a. ovarian b. lung c. uterine d. pancreatic - Answer -ANS: A BRCA1 mutations increase the risk of ovarian cancer among women (20% to 50% lifetime risk), and BRCA2 mutations also confer an increased risk of ovarian cancer (10% to 20% lifetime prevalence). BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations are not currently believed to be linked with risks of lung, uterine, or pancreatic cancers. Which genes are responsible for an autosomal dominant form of breast cancer? (Select all that apply.) a. LCAT b. CHK1 c. CHK2 d. BRCA1 e. BRCA2 - Answer -ANS: D, E Women who inherit a mutation in BRCA1 or BRCA2 experience a 50% to 80% lifetime risk of developing breast cancer. The other options do not carry this risk. What percentage of all cases of breast cancer are identified as an autosomal dominant form? Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 - Answer -ANS: A An autosomal dominant form of breast cancer accounts for approximately 5% of breast cancer cases in the United States. When a woman has one first-degree relative with breast cancer, her risk of developing breast cancer is how many times greater? a. 2 b. 3 c. 6 d. 10 - Answer -ANS: A If a woman has one affected first-degree relative, her risk of developing breast cancer doubles. Hemophilia A is considered to be what type of inherited disorder? a. autosomal dominant b. autosomal recessive c. X-linked recessive d. X-linked dominant - Answer -ANS: C Hemophilia A (classic hemophilia) is inherited as an X-linked recessive disorder. This selection is the only option that correctly identifies how this disorder is inherited. Which disease is an autosomal dominant inherited hemorrhagic disease? a. Hemophilia A b. von Willebrand disease c. Christmas disease d. Hemophilia B - Answer -ANS: B The bleeding disorder, von Willebrand disease, results only from an inherited autosomal dominant trait. Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com Which type of hemophilia affects only men? a. Hemophilia A b. Hemophilia B c. Hemophilia C d. von Willebrand disease - Answer -ANS: A Of the options available, only hemophilia A (classic hemophilia) is caused by factor VIII deficiency and is inherited as an X-linked recessive disorder that affects men and is transmitted by women. The absence of parietal cells would prevent the absorption of an essential nutrient necessary to prevent which type of anemia? a. iron deficiency b. pernicious anemia c. Folic acid deficiency anemia d. aplastic anemia - Answer -ANS: B Dietary vitamin B12 is a large molecule that requires a protein secreted by parietal cells into the stomach (intrinsic factor [IF]) to transport across the ileum. Defects in IF production lead to decreased B12 absorption and pernicious anemia. The other options are not the result of this process. Which of the following is classified as a megaloblastic anemia? a. iron deficiency b. pernicious c. Sideroblastic d. Hemolytic - Answer -ANS: B Pernicious anemia is the most common type of megaloblastic anemia. The remaining options are not classified as megaloblastic anemias. The underlying disorder of which anemia is a result of the defective secretion of the intrinsic factor, which is essential for the absorption of vitamin B12? a. microcytic b. pernicious c. hypochromic d. hemolytic - Answer -ANS: B Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com Vitamin B12 deficiency causes pernicious anemia, the most common type of megaloblastic anemia. After a person has a subtotal gastrectomy for chronic gastritis, which type of anemia will result? a. iron deficiency b. aplastic c. folic acid d. pernicious - Answer -ANS: D From the options available, only pernicious anemia is caused by vitamin B12 deficiency, which is often associated with the end-stage type A chronic atrophic gastritis. What causes the atrophy of gastric mucosal cells that result in pernicious anemia? a. erythrocyte destruction b. folic acid malabsorption c. vitamin B12 malabsorption d. Poor nutrition intake - Answer -ANS: C Deficiency in intrinsic factor (IF) secretion may be congenital or may result from adult onset gastric mucosal atrophy and the destruction of parietal cells. In older adults, virtually all vitamin B12-deficiency anemia is caused by a failure of IF-related absorption. This selection is the only option that accurately identifies the cause of gastric mucosal cell atrophy. What is the treatment of choice for pernicious anemia (PA)? a. cyanocobalamin by oral intake b. Vitamin B12 by injection c. Ferrous fumarate by Z-track injection d. Folate by oral intake - Answer -ANS: B Replacement of vitamin B12 (cobalamin) is the treatment of choice for PA. Initial injections of vitamin B12 are administered weekly until the deficiency is corrected, followed by monthly injections for the remainder of the individual's life. The other options are not treatments for PA. Which condition resulting from untreated pernicious anemia (PA) is Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com fatal? a. brain hypoxia b. liver hypoxia c. heart failre d. renal failure - Answer -ANS: C Of the options available, untreated PA is fatal, usually because of heart failure. How is the effectiveness of vitamin B12 therapy measured? a. reticulocyte count b. serum transferring c. hemoglobin d. serum vitamin B12 - Answer -ANS: A The effectiveness of cobalamin replacement therapy is determined by a rising reticulocyte count. The other options are not used as indicators of the effectiveness of vitamin B12 therapy Which electrolyte imbalance accompanies multiple myeloma (MM)? a, hyperkalemia b. hypercalcemia c. hyperphosphatemia d. hypernatremia - Answer -ANS: B Elevated levels of calcium in the blood (hypercalcemia) characterize the common presentation of MM. Which disorders have similar modes of inheritance? (Select all that apply.) a. Cri du chat syndrome b. Duchenne muscular dystrophy c. polycystic kidney disease d. Down syndrome e. Becker muscular dystrophy - Answer -ANS: B, E Becker muscular dystrophy and Duchenne muscular dystrophy are the only options that are X-linked recessive disorders. Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com How do surfactant proteins A through D provide innate resistance? a. initiate the complement cascade b. promote phagocytosis c. secrete mucus d. synthesize lysosomes - Answer -ANS: B The lung produces and secretes a family of glycoproteins, collectins, which includes surfactant proteins A through D and mannose-binding lectin. Collectin binding facilitates macrophages to recognize the microorganism, enhancing macrophage attachment, phagocytosis, and killing. The other options do not accurately identify how surfactant proteins provide innate resistance. Which component of the plasma protein system tags pathogenic microorganisms for destruction by neutrophils and macrophages? a. complement cascade b. coagulation system c. kinin system d. immune system - Answer -ANS: A C3b (a component of the complement cascade) adheres to the surface of a pathogenic microorganism and serves as an efficient opsonin. Opsonins are molecules that tag microorganisms for destruction by cells of the inflammatory system, primarily neutrophils and macrophages. The other options do not accurately identify a component capable of tagging pathogenic microorganisms. What is an outcome of the complement cascade? a. activation of the clotting cascade b. Prevention of the spread of infection to adjacent tissues c. Inactivation of chemical mediators such as histamine d. Lysis of bacterial cell membranes - Answer -ANS: D The complement cascade can be activated by at least three different means, and its products have four functions: (1) anaphylatoxic activity, resulting in mast cell degranulation, (2) leukocyte chemotaxis, (3) opsonization, and (4) cell lysis. The other options do not accurately describe an outcome of the complement cascade. The function of opsonization related to the complement cascade is to: a. tag of pathogenic microorganisms for destruction by neutrophils and macrophages Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com b. Process pathogenic microorganisms so that activated lymphocytes can be created for acquired immunity c. Destroy glycoprotein cell membranes of pathogenic microorganisma d. Promote anaphylatotoxic activity, resulting in mast cell degranulation - Answer -ANS: A C3b adheres to the surface of a pathogenic microorganism and serves as an efficient opsonin. Opsonins are molecules that tag microorganisms for destruction by cells of the inflammatory system, primarily neutrophils and macrophages. The other options do not accurately describe the function of opsonization related to the complement cascade. Which chemical interacts among all plasma protein systems by degrading blood clots, activating complement, and activating the Hageman factor? a. Kallikrein b. Histamine c. Bradykinin d. Plasmin - Answer -ANS: D Only plasmin regulates clot formation by degrading fibrin and fibrinogen, and it can activate the complement cascade through components C1, C3, and C5. Plasmin can activate the plasma kinin cascade by activating the Hageman factor (factor XII) and producing prekallikrein activator. What is the mechanism that results in type II hypersensitivity reactions? a. antibodies coat mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation, followed by a discharge of preformed mediators b. antibodies bind to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids, and the immune complexes are then deposited in the tissues. c. cytotoxic T lymphocytes or lymphokine-producing helper T 1 cells directly attack and destroy cellular targets d. Antibodies bind to the antigens on the cell surface - Answer -ANS: D The mechanism that results in a type II hypersensitivity reaction begins with antibody binding to tissue-specific antigens or antigens that have attached to particular tissues. The cell can be destroyed by antibody IgG or IgM and activation of the complement cascade through the classical pathway. Which form of cancer is linked to congenital malformation syndromes? a. Wilms tumor Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com b. Retinoblastoma c. Osteosarcoma d. Rhabdomyosarcoma - Answer -ANS: A Wilms tumors are linked with other genetically linked childhood cancers. It is the only form among the available options that is associated with congenital malformation syndromes. What factor associated with gluten-sensitive enteropathy (celiac sprue) causes an infant to bruise and bleed easily? a. vitamin K deficiency from fat malabsorption b. Bone marrow function depression c. Iron, folate, and B12 deficiency anemias d. Prescribed daily warfarin (Coumadin) - Answer -ANS: A Deficiencies of fat-soluble vitamins (such as vitamin K) are common in children with gluten-sensitive enteropathy. Vitamin K malabsorption leads to hypoprothrombinemia, causing the child to bruise and bleed easily. This selection is the only option that accurately describes the mechanism that causes bruising and bleeding in children diagnosed with celiac sprue. What distinguishes kwashiorkor from marasmus? a. All nutrients, proteins, fats, and carbohydrates are reduced in kwashiorkor b. Physical growth of children is stunted in kwashiorkor but not in marasmus c. Muscle wasting, diarrhea, low hemoglobin, and infection characterize kwashiorkor d. Subcutaneous fat, hepatomegaly, and fatty liver are present in kwashiorkor. - Answer -ANS: D The presence of subcutaneous fat, hepatomegaly, and fatty liver distinguishes kwashiorkor from marasmus. These manifestations are missing in marasmus because caloric intake is not sufficient to support fat synthesis and storage. None of the other options accurately describes the differences among these conditions. Which clinical manifestations of a urinary tract infection may be demonstrated in an 85-year-old individual? a. confusion and poorly localized abdominal discomfort b. dysuria, frequency, and suprapubic pain Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com c. heamturia and flank pain d. pyuria, urgency, and frequency - Answer -ANS: A Older adults with cystitis may demonstrate confusion or vague abdominal discomfort or otherwise be asymptomatic. With which medical diagnosis is meconium ileus often associated? a. muscular dystrophy b. cerebral palsy c. cystic fibrosis d. congenital aganglionic megacolon - Answer -ANS: C The detection of albumin in meconium has been used as a screening test for cystic fibrosis. This condition is not associated with any of the other options. Which hormone is required for water to be reabsorbed in the distal tubule and collecting duct? a. antidiuretic hormone b. aldosterone c. cortisol d. adrenocorticotropin hormone - Answer -ANS: A Antidiuretic hormone is required for water to be reabsorbed in the distal tubule and collecting duct. The later, straight segment of the distal tubule and the collecting duct are permeable to water as controlled by antidiuretic hormone. The other options are not involved in this process. The risk for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) decreases for premature infants when they are born between how many weeks of gestation? a. 16 and 20 b. 20 and 24 c. 24 and 30 d. 30 and 36 - Answer -ANS: D Surfactant is secreted into fetal airways between 30 and 36 weeks. The other options are not true regarding the timeframe when the risk for RDS decreases. Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com What is the chief predisposing factor for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn? a. low birth weight b. alcohol consumption during pregnancy c. premature birth d. smoking during pregnancy - Answer -ANS: C RDS of the newborn, also known as hyaline membrane disease (HMD), is a major cause of morbidity and mortality in premature newborns. None of the other options are considered the chief predisposing factors for RDS. What is the primary cause of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn? a. immature immune system b. small alveoli c. surfactant deficiency d. anemia - Answer -ANS: C RDS is primarily caused by surfactant deficiency and secondarily by a deficiency in alveolar surface area for gas exchange. None of the other options are related to the cause of RDS. The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is mediated by which class of immunoglobulins? a. IgE b. IgG c. IgM d. T cells - Answer -ANS: A Type I reactions are mediated by antigen-specific IgE and the products of tissue mast cells (see Figure 9-1). The most common allergies (e.g., pollen allergies) are type I reactions. In addition, most type I reactions occur against environmental antigens and are therefore allergic. The other options do not accurately identify the mediation factor related to hay fever. Which type of antibody is involved in type I hypersensitivity reaction? a. IgA b. IgE c. IgG Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com d. IgM - Answer -ANS: B Type I reactions are only mediated by antigen-specific IgE and the products of tissue mast cells During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, which leukocyte is activated? a. neutrophils b. monocytes c. eosinophils d. T-lymphocytes - Answer -ANS C Of the options provided, only eosinophils are activated during IgEmediated hypersensitivity reactions. During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, what causes bronchospasm? a. bronchial edema caused by the chemotactic factor of anaphylaxis b. Bronchial edema caused by biding of the cytotropic antibody c. Smooth muscle contraction caused by histamine bound to H1 receptors d. Smooth muscle contraction caused by histamine bound H2 receptors - Answer -ANS: C During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, only smooth muscle contraction caused by histamine bound to H1 receptors results in bronchospasms. During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, the degranulation of mast cells is a result of which receptor action? a. Histamine bound to H2 b. Chemotactic factor binding to the receptor c. epinephrine bound to mast cells acetylcholine bounf to mast cells - Answer -ANS: A Histamine bound to H2 results in the degranulation of mast cells during an IgE-medicated hypersensitivity reaction. The other options do not cause this reaction. What is the effect of increased secretions of epinephrine, glucagon, and growth hormone? Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com a. hyperglycemia b. hypertension c. bronchodilation d. pupil dilation - Answer -ANS: A Cortisol enhances the elevation of blood glucose promoted by other hormones, such as epinephrine, glucagon, and growth hormone. Which hormone increases the formation of glucose from amino acids and free fatty acids? a. epinephrine b. norepinephrine c. cortisol d. growth hormone - Answer -ANS: C One of the primary effects of cortisol is the stimulation of gluconeogenesis or the formation of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources, such as amino or free fatty acids in the liver. Neither reaction is a result of the effects of any of the other options. In immunoglobulin G (IgG) nephropathies such as glomerulonephritis, IgG is deposited in which location? a. juxtamedullary nephrons b. Glomerulus basement membranes c. Mesangium of the glomerular capillaries d. parietal epithelium - Answer -ANS: B Glomerulonephritis develops with the deposition of antigen-antibody complexes (IgG, immunoglobulin A [IgA], and C3 complement) in the glomerulus, or the antigen may be trapped within the glomerulus and immune complexes formed in situ. Immunofluorescence microscopy shows lumpy deposits of IgG and C3 complement on the glomerular basement membrane (see Figure 39-5). When considering IgG nephropathies, the only location of the IgG immunoglobulins is the correct option. What is the effect of low plasma albumin? a. clotting factors decrease, thus increasing the chance of prolonged bleeding b. Fewer imunoglobulins are synthesized, thus impairing the immune function c. Less iron is stored, thus increasing the incidence of iron deficiency Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com anemia d. Osmotic pressure decreases, thus water moves from the capillaries to the interstitium - Answer -ANS: D In the case of decreased production (e.g., cirrhosis, other diffuse liver diseases, protein malnutrition) or excessive loss of albumin (e.g., certain kidney diseases, extensive burns), the reduced oncotic pressure leads to excessive movement of fluid and solutes into the tissues and decreased blood volume. The other options are not accurate descriptions of the effect of low plasma albumin. What is the most commonly reported symptom of cancer treatment? a. nausea b. fatigue c. hair loss d. weight loss - Answer -ANS: B Fatigue is the most frequently reported symptom of cancer and cancer treatment. Although patients report the other options, they are not as frequently experienced as fatigue. What characteristic do atopic individuals have that make them genetically predisposed to develop allergies? a. greater quantities of histamine b. more histamine receptors c. greater quantities of IgE d. A deficiency in epinephrine - Answer -ANS: C Atopic individuals tend to produce higher quantities of IgE and to have more crystalline fragment (Fc) receptors for IgE on their mast cells. The other options do not cause this reaction. What is the mechanism that results in type II hypersensitivity reactions? - Answer -antibodies bind to the antigens on the cell surface The mechanism that results in a type II hypersensitivity reaction begins with antibody binding to tissue-specific antigens or antigens that have attached to particular tissues. The cell can be destroyed by antibody IgG or IgM and activation of the complement cascade through the classical pathway. Vaccinations are able to provide protection against certain Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com microorganisms because of the: a. strong response from IgM b. Level of protection provided by IgG c. Memory cells for IgE d. Rapid response from IgA - Answer -ANS: B IgG production is considerably increased, making it the predominant antibody class of the secondary response. IgG is often present in concentrations several times larger than those of IgM, and levels of circulating IgG specific for that antigen may remain elevated for an extended period. The other options are not relevant to how vaccinations protect against certain microorganisms. Evaluation of umbilical cord blood can confirm that which immunoglobulin level is near adult levels? a. IgA b. IgG c. IgM d. IgE - Answer -ANS: B At birth, the total IgG level in the umbilical cord is the only immunoglobulin that is near adult levels Which statement is true concerning the IgM? a. IgM is the first antibody produced during the initial response to an antigen b. IgM mediates many common allergic responses c. IgM is the most abundant class of immunoglobulins d. IgM is capable pf crossing the human placenta - Answer -ANS: A Typically, IgM is produced first (primary immune response), followed by IgG against the same antigen. The other options are not true statements regarding IgM. Which statements are true concerning the humoral immune response? (Select all that apply.) a. The humoral immune response is divided into major and minor phases b. The response has IgG and IgM produced during each of its phases c. It has a greater presence of IgG than IgM in one of its phases d. The humoral immune response is produced in reaction to the Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com presence of an antigen e. Phases differ in their response time as a result of the effect of memory cells - Answer -ANS: B, C, D, E The humoral immune response is divided into two phases, primary and secondary. These phases differ in the relative amounts of IgG produced—the secondary response having a significantly higher proportion of IgG relative to IgM. The two phases also differ in the speed with which each occurs after the antigen challenge—the secondary phases is significantly more rapid than the primary phase because of the presence of memory cells in the secondary phase. Which class of immunoglobulins forms isohemagglutinins? a. IgA b. IgE c. IgG d. IgM - Answer -ANS: D Naturally occurring antibodies, called isohemagglutinins, are immunoglobulins of only the IgM class. In infectious mononucleosis (IM), what does the Monospot test detect? a. IgE b. IgM c. IgG d. IgA - Answer -ANS: B Heterophile antibodies are a heterogeneous group of IgM antibodies that are agglutinins against nonhuman red blood cells (e.g., sheep, horse) and are detected by qualitative (monospot) or quantitative (heterophile antibody) test methods. This statement is not true of the other options. ______ is the major class of antibody found in the blood of the fetus and newborn and crosses the placenta - Answer -As a result of selective transport across the placenta, maternal IgG is the major class of antibody found in the blood of the fetus and newborn. ________ antibody is predominantly found in the blood and body secretions. - Answer -IgA can be divided into two subclasses, IgA1 and IgA2. IgA1 Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com molecules are found predominantly in the blood, whereas IgA2 is the predominant class of antibody found in normal body secretions. ______ antibody mediates many common allergic responses - Answer -IgE is the least concentrated of any of the immunoglobulin classes in the circulation. It appears to have very specialized functions as a mediator of many common allergic responses and in the defense against parasitic infections. Which immunoglobulin is present in blood, saliva, breast milk, and respiratory secretions? a. IgA b. IgE c. IgG d. IgM - Answer -ANS: A IgA can be divided into two subclasses, IgA1 and IgA2. IgA1 molecules are predominantly found in the blood, whereas IgA2 is the predominant class of antibody found in normal body secretions. The other options are not found in the substances identified in the question. Which antibody initially indicates a typical primary immune response? a. IgG b. IgM c. IgA d. IgE - Answer -ANS: B Typically, IgM is produced first (primary immune response), followed by IgG against the same antigen. The other options are not involved. An individual is more susceptible to infections of mucous membranes when he or she has a seriously low level of which immunoglobulin antibody? a, IgG b. IgM c. IgA d. IgE - Answer -ANS: C The IgA molecules found in bodily secretions are dimers anchored together through a J-chain and secretory piece. This secretory piece is attached to the IgA antibodies inside the mucosal epithelial cells and Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com may function to protect these immunoglobulin antibodies against degradation by enzymes also found in the secretions, thus decreasing the risk of infections in the mucous membrane. The other options do not accurately identify the immunoglobulin antibody involved in mucous membrane infections. When a person is exposed to most antigens, antibodies can be usually detected in his or her circulation within: a. 12 hours b. 24 hours c. 3 days d. 6 days - Answer -ANS: D After only approximately 5 to 7 days is an IgM antibody specific for that antigen detected in the circulation. Antibodies that are associated with mucosal immune system, such as immunoglobulins, function to prevent which type of infections? a. infections that attack the respiratory system b. infections that tend to be chronic in nature c. infections likely to be resistant to antibiotics d. infections that focus on epithelial surfaces of the body - Answer -ANS: D Antibodies of the systemic immune system function throughout the body, whereas antibodies of the secretory (mucosal) immune system— primarily immunoglobulins of the IgA class—are associated with bodily secretions and function to prevent pathogenic infection on epithelial surfaces. The other options are not necessarily true when considering the immunoglobulins. Graves disease is an autoimmune disease that results in which maternal antibody? a. binding with receptors for neural transmitters on muscle cells, causing neonatal muscular weakness b. affecting the receptor for TSH, causing neonatal hyperthyroidism c. Inducing anomalies in the fetus or causing pregnancy loss d. destroying platelets in the fetus and neonate - Answer -ANS: B Graves disease is an autoimmune disease in which maternal antibody against the receptor for TSH causes neonatal hyperthyroidism. Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease in which maternal antibody binds with receptors for neural transmitters on muscle cells (acetylcholine receptors), causing neonatal muscular weakness. Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com Systemic lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune disease in which diverse maternal autoantibodies induce anomalies (e.g., congenital heart defects) in the fetus or cause pregnancy loss. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura causes both autoimmune and alloimmune variants to occur, during which maternal antiplatelet antibody destroys platelets in the fetus and neonate. Which disorders are considered autoimmune? (Select all that apply.) a. Crohn disease b. Addison disease c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Systemic lupus erythematosus e. noninsulin-dependent diabetes - Answer -ANS: A, B, C, D Crohn disease, Addison disease, rheumatoid arthritis, and systemic lupus erythematosus are all diseases that result from autoimmune pathologic conditions. Insulin-dependent diabetes is also an autoimmune disorder, but noninsulin-dependent diabetes is not. What is the most common pathophysiologic process that triggers aplastic anemia (AA)? a. autoimmune disease against hematopoiesis by activated cytotoxic T (Tc) cells b. Malignancy of the bone marrow in which unregulated proliferation of erythrocytes crowd out other blood cells c. autoimmune disease against hematopoiesis by activated immunoglobulins d. Inherited genetic disorder with recessive X-linked transmission - Answer -ANS: A Most cases of AA result from an autoimmune disease directed against hematopoietic stem cells. Tc cells appear to be the main culprits. None of the remaining options is considered a common trigger of AA. Which statement is true regarding warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia? a. warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia occurs primarily in men b. it is self-limiting and rarely produces hemolysis c. erythrocytes are bound to macrophages and sequestered in the spleen d. Immunoglobulin M coats erythrocytes and binds them to receptors on monocytes - Answer -ANS: C The immunoglobulin G-coated red blood cells bind to the Fc receptors Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com on monocytes and splenic macrophages and are removed by phagocytosis. The other options are not true when considering this type of anemia. When considering hemolytic anemia, which statement is true regarding the occurrence of jaundice? a. erythrocytes are destroyed in the spleen b. Heme destruction exceeds the livers ability to comjugate and excrete bilirubin c. The patient has elevations in aspartate transaminase (AST) and alanine transaminase (ALT) d. The erythrocytes are coated with an immunoglobulin - Answer -ANS: B Jaundice (icterus) is present when heme destruction exceeds the liver's ability to conjugate and excrete bilirubin. This selection is the only option that accurately describes the process that affects the occurrence of hemolytic anemia-related jaundice. Erythrocyte life span of less than 120 days, ineffective bone marrow response to erythropoietin, and altered iron metabolism describe the pathophysiologic characteristics of which type of anemia? a. Aplastic b. Sideroblastic c. Anemia of chronic disease d. Iron deficiency - Answer -ANS: C Anemia of chronic disease results from a combination of (1) decreased erythrocyte life span, (2) suppressed production of erythropoietin, (3) ineffective bone marrow erythroid progenitor response to erythropoietin, and (4) altered iron metabolism and iron sequestration in macrophages. This result is not true of the other options. Considering iron replacement therapy prescribed for iron deficiency anemia, who is likely to require long-term daily maintenance dosage? a. a woman who has not yet experienced menopause b. a teenager who is involved in strenuous athletics c. A middle-aged man who smokes two packs of cigarettes a day d. an older person demonstrating signs of dementia - Answer -ANS: A Menstruating women may need daily oral iron replacement therapy (325 mg/day) until menopause as a result of their menstrual blood loss. None of the other options are a chronic source of blood loss. Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com Which statement is true regarding the physical manifestations of vitamin B12 deficiency anemia? a. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia seldom results in neurologic symptoms b. The chances of a cure are good with appropriate treatment c. The condition is reversible in 75% of the cases d. Symptoms are a result of demyelination - Answer -ANS: D The neurologic manifestations characteristic of vitamin B12 deficiency anemia result from nerve demyelination that may produce neuronal death. These complications pose a serious threat because they are not reversible, even with appropriate treatment. Which medications are associated with an intermediate increase in a person's risk for developing aplastic anemia? (Select all that apply.) a. penicillin b. chloramphenicol (Chloromycetin) c. phenytoin (dilantin) d. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) e. thiazides - Answer -ANS: B, C, D Chloramphenicol (Chloromycetin), phenytoin (Dilantin), and trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) are associated with an intermediate increase in the risk of developing aplastic anemia. The other options are not associated with a rare increase in risk. Which conditions are generally included in the symptoms of pernicious anemia (PA)? (Select all that apply.) a. weakness b. weight gain c. low hemoglobin d. paresthesis e. low hematocrit - Answer -ANS: A, C, D, E When the hemoglobin and hematocrit levels in the blood have significantly decreased, the individual experiences the classic symptoms of PA—weakness, fatigue, paresthesias of the feet and fingers, difficulty in walking, loss of appetite, abdominal pains, and weight loss. What are the clinical manifestations of folate deficiency anemia? (Select all that apply.) Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com a. constipation b. flatulence c. dysphagia d. stomatitis e. cheilosis - Answer -ANS: B, C, D, E Specific symptoms of folate deficiency anemia include severe cheilosis (scales and fissures of the lips and corners of the mouth), stomatitis (inflammation of the mouth), and painful ulcerations of the buccal mucosa and tongue. Gastrointestinal symptoms may be present and include dysphagia (difficulty swallowing), flatulence, and watery diarrhea. Which diseases are commonly associated with anemia of chronic disease? (Select all that apply.) a. rheumatoid arthritis b. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) c. Polycythemia vera d. Systemic lupus erythematosus e. Chronic hepatitis - Answer -ANS: A, B, D, E AIDS, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, malaria, acute and chronic hepatitis, and chronic renal failure are commonly associated with anemias of chronic disease. Polycythemia vera is not associated with this form of anemia. Pernicious anemia is what type of anemia? - Answer -Pernicious anemia, a form of macrocytic-normochromic anemia, is caused by vitamin B12 Sideroblastic anemia is a form of what type of anemia? - Answer -The microcytic-hypochromic anemias include sideroblastic anemia. Aplastic anemia is what type of anemia? - Answer -Normocytic-normochromic anemias, including aplastic anemia, are characterized by erythrocytes that are relatively normal in size but with hemoglobin content that is insufficient in number What type of necrosis results from ischemia of neurons and glial cells? Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com a. coagulative b. liquefactive c. caseous d. gangrene - Answer -ANS: B Liquefactive necrosis commonly results from ischemic injury to neurons and glial cells in the brain. The other types of necrosis are not related to ischemic injuries in the brain. Hypomethylation and the resulting effect on oncogenes result in a(an): a. decrease in the activity of the oncogene, thus suppressing cancer development b. deactivation of MLH1 to halt DNA repair c. Increase in tumor progression from benign to malignant d. Over-expression of microRNA, resulting in tumorigenesis - Answer -ANS: C Tumor cells typically exhibit hypomethylation (decreased methylation), which can increase the activity of oncogenes. Hypomethylation increases as tumors progress from benign neoplasms to malignancy. What is an example of compensatory hyperplasia? a. hepatic cells increase cell division after part of the liver is excised b. skeletal muscle cells atrophy as a result of paralysis c. The heart muscle enlarges as a result of hypertension d. The size of the uterus increases during pregnancy - Answer -ANS: A Compensatory hyperplasia is an adaptive mechanism that enables certain organs to regenerate. For example, the removal of part of the liver leads to hyperplasia of the remaining liver cells (hepatocytes) to compensate for the loss. Removal of part of the liver leads to the remaining liver cells undergoing compensatory: a. atrophy b. metaplasia c. hyperplasia d. dysplasia - Answer -ANS: C Compensatory hyperplasia is an adaptive mechanism that enables certain organs to regenerate. For example, the removal of part of the Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com liver leads to hyperplasia of the remaining liver cells (hepatocytes) to compensate for the loss. The lung is innervated by the parasympathetic nervous system via which nerve? a. vagus b. phrenic c. brachial d. pectoral - Answer -ANS: A Fibers of the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system (ANS) travel only in the vagus nerve to the lung. Which statement is correct regarding the functions of the pancreas? (Select all that apply.) a. cholecystokinin stimulates the release of pancreatic enzymes b. bilirubin and S cells inhibit the secretion of pancreatic enzymes c. Pancreatic polypeptide is released after eating d. Acetylcholine (ACh) is liberated from the pancreatic branches of the vagus nerve e. ACh stimulates the release of pancreatic enzymes - Answer -ANS: A, C, D Enzymatic secretion follows, stimulated by cholecystokinin, which activates ACh from the vagus nerve and the release of ACh from pancreatic stellate cells. Cholecystokinin is released in the duodenum in response to the essential amino and fatty acids already present in chyme. Once in the small intestine, activated pancreatic enzymes inhibit the release of more cholecystokinin and ACh. This feedback mechanism inhibits the secretion of more pancreatic enzymes. Pancreatic polypeptide is released after eating and inhibits postprandial pancreatic exocrine secretion. The Bainbridge reflex is thought to be initiated by sensory neurons in which cardiac location? a. Atria b. Aorta c. Sinoatrial (SA) node d. Ventricles - Answer -ANS: A The Bainbridge reflex causes changes in the heart rate after intravenous infusions of blood or other fluid. The changes in heart rate are thought to be caused by a reflex mediated by volume receptors found only in Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com the atria that are innervated by the vagus nerve. After the baroreceptor reflex is stimulated, the resulting impulse is transmitted from the carotid artery by which sequence of events? a. vagus nerve to medulla to increase parasympathetic activity and to decrease sympathetic activity b. Glossopharyngeal cranial nerve through the vagus nerve to the medulla to increase sympathetic activity and to decrease parasympathetic activity c. Glossopharyngeal cranial nerve through the vagus nerve to the medulla to increase parasympathetic activity and to decrease sympathetic activity d. Glossopharyngeal cranial nerve through the vagus nerve to the hypothalamus to increase parasympathetic activity and to decrease sympathetic activity - Answer -ANS: C Neural impulses are transmitted over the glossopharyngeal nerve (ninth cranial nerve) from the carotid artery and through the vagus nerve from the aorta to the cardiovascular control centers in the medulla. These centers initiate an increase in parasympathetic activity and a decrease in sympathetic activity, causing blood vessels to dilate and the heart rate to decrease. This selection is the only option that accurately describes the correct sequence of events asked for in the question. What is the most important negative inotropic agent? a. norephinephrine b. epinephrine c. acetylcholine d. dopamine - Answer -ANS: C Chemicals affecting contractility are called inotropic agents. The most important negative inotropic agent is acetylcholine released from the vagus nerve. The most important positive inotropic agents produced by the body are norepinephrine released from the sympathetic nerves that supply the heart and epinephrine released by the adrenal cortex. Other positive inotropes include thyroid hormone and dopamine. Many medications have positive or negative inotropic properties that can have profound effects on cardiac function. This selection is the only option that accurately identifies the regulation that is involved in the described process. Which organism is a common sexually transmitted bacterial infection? a. staphylococcus aureua b. Clostridium perfringens Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com c. heliobacter pyloi d. Treonema pallidum - Answer -ANS: D Treponema pallidum (spirochete, syphilis) is a sexually transmitted disease. Staphylococcus aureus is commonly ingested, causing food poisoning; Clostridium perfringens (gas gangrene) is a skin or wound infection; and Helicobacter pylori (gastritis, peptic ulcers) is found in the gastrointestinal tract. Which compensatory mechanism is spontaneously used by children diagnosed with tetralogy of Fallot to relieve hypoxic spells? a. lying on their side b. peforming the valsalva maneuver c. squatting d. hyperventilating - Answer -ANS: C Squatting is a spontaneous compensatory mechanism used by older children to alleviate hypoxic spells. Squatting and its variants increase systemic resistance while decreasing venous return to the heart from the inferior vena cava. The other options would not result in these changes. By what mechanism does intussusception cause an intestinal obstruction? a. telescoping of part of the intestine into another section of intestine, usually causing strangulation of the blood supply b. Twisting the intestine on its mesenteric pedicle, causing occlusion of the blood supply c. Loss of peristalic motor activity in the intestine, causing an adynamic ileus d. Forming fibrin and scar tissue that attach to the intestinal omentum, causing obstruction - Answer -ANS: A Intussusception is the telescoping of part of the intestine into another section of intestine, usually causing strangulation of the blood supply. This selection is the only option that accurately describes how intussusception causes an intestinal obstruction. Which term is used to describe an intestinal obstruction caused by the invagination of the ileum into the cecum and part of the ascending colon by collapsing through the ileocecal valve? a. congenital aganglionic megacolon Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com b. malrotation c. Intussisception d. volvulus - Answer -ANS: C Intussusception is the telescoping or invagination of one portion of the intestine into another section of intestine. Usually, the ileum invaginates the cecum and part of the ascending colon by collapsing through the ileocecal valve. The other terms are not used to describe this event. An infant suddenly develops abdominal pain, becomes irritable (colicky), and draws up the knees. Vomiting occurs soon afterward. The mother reports that the infant passed a normal stool, followed by one that looked like currant jelly. Based on these data, which disorder does the nurse suspect? a. congenital aganglionic megacolon b. Intussusception c. Malrotation d. Volvulus - Answer -ANS: B Based on these data, the nurse should suspect intussusception. A single normal stool may be passed, evacuating the colon distal to the apex of the intussusception. After passing a normal stool, 60% of infants will pass "currant jelly" stools, which appear dark and gelatinous because of their blood and mucus content. Intussusception is the only option that describes the symptoms listed. Cystic fibrosis is characterized by which symptom? a. excessive mucus production b. elevated blood glucose levels c. low sodium content in perspiration d. abnormally thin exocrine secretions - Answer -ANS: A Excessive mucus production characterizes cystic fibrosis. However, the pathophysiologic triad that is the hallmark of cystic fibrosis includes (1) pancreatic enzyme deficiency, which causes maldigestion; (2) overproduction of mucus in the respiratory tract and an inability to clear secretions, which cause progressive chronic obstructive pulmonary disease; and (3) abnormally elevated sodium and chloride concentrations in sweat. Exocrine secretions tend to be abnormally thick and precipitate in the glandular ducts, obstructing flow. An elevated blood glucose level is not associated with this disorder. Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com Which medication compensates for the deficiency that occurs as a result of cystic fibrosis? a. salt tablets b. pancreatic enzymes c. antihypertensives d. antibiotics - Answer -ANS: B Pancreatic replacement enzymes are administered before or with meals, and high-calorie, high-protein diets with frequent snacks and vitamin supplements are used to treat the deficiency. What causes a person with cystic fibrosis to experience an exocrine pancreatic insufficiency? a. pancreatic ducts are obstructed with mucus b. impaired supply to the pancreas causes ischemia c. A genetically impaired pancreas is unable to produce digestive enzymes d. The pancreas has a volvulus at the ampulla of Vater - Answer -ANS: A Approximately 85% of individuals with cystic fibrosis experience pancreatic insufficiency. Obstruction of the pancreatic ducts with thick mucus blocks the flow of pancreatic enzymes and causes degenerative and fibrotic changes in the pancreas. This selection is the only option that accurately describes why an exocrine pancreatic insufficiency is observed in individuals diagnosed with cystic fibrosis. What is the cause of faulty digestion of fats in those diagnosed with cystic fibrosis? a. bile ducts obstructed with mucus, prohibiting the release of bile b. failure to metabolize fat-soluble vitamins c. deficiency of pancreatic enzymes d. Fat malabsorption that now occurs in the jejunum - Answer -ANS: C Severe problems with maldigestion of proteins, carbohydrates, and fats occur because of the insufficient secretion of pancreatic enzymes. This selection is the only option that accurately describes why fatty stools are observed in individuals diagnosed with cystic fibrosis. After a partial gastrectomy or pyloroplasty, clinical manifestations that include increased pulse, hypotension, weakness, pallor, sweating, and dizziness are the results of which mechanism? a. anaphylactic reaction Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com b. postoperative hemorrhage c. hypovolemic shock d. dumping yndrome - Answer -ANS: D Dumping syndrome occurs with varying severity in 5% to 10% of individuals who have undergone partial gastrectomy or pyloroplasty. Rapid gastric emptying and the creation of a high osmotic gradient in the small intestine cause a sudden shift of fluid from the vascular compartment to the intestinal lumen. Plasma volume decreases, causing vasomotor responses, such as increased pulse rate, hypotension, weakness, pallor, sweating, and dizziness. Rapid distention of the intestine produces a feeling of epigastric fullness, cramping, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. This selection is the only option that accurately identifies the mechanism responsible for the described situation. Which statement is consistent with dumping syndrome? a. dumping syndrome usually responds well to dietary management b. It occurs 1 to 2 hours after eating constipation is often a result of the dumping syndrome c. constipation is often a result of the dumping syndrome d. it can result in alkaline reflux gastritis - Answer -ANS: A Most individuals with the dumping syndrome respond well to dietary management. None of the other options is associated with the dumping syndrome. Tissue damage caused by the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing an antibody against the host DNA is the cause of which disease? a. hemolytic anemia b. pernicious anemia c. systemic lupus erythematosus d. myasthenia gravis - Answer -ANS: C Only the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing an antibody against the host DNA produce tissue damage in individuals with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which disorders are considered autoimmune? (Select all that apply.) a. crohn disease b. addison disease Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com c. rheumatoid arthritis d. systemic lupus erythematosus e. noninsulin-dependent diabetes - Answer -ANS: A, B, C, D Crohn disease, Addison disease, rheumatoid arthritis, and systemic lupus erythematosus are all diseases that result from autoimmune pathologic conditions. Insulin-dependent diabetes is also an autoimmune disorder, but noninsulin-dependent diabetes is not. Which diseases are commonly associated with anemia of chronic disease? (Select all that apply.) a. rheumatoid arthritis b. acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) c. Polycythemia vera d. systemic lupus erythematosus e. chronic hepatitis - Answer -ANS: A, B, D, E AIDS, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, malaria, acute and chronic hepatitis, and chronic renal failure are commonly associated with anemias of chronic disease. Polycythemia vera is not associated with this form of anemia. The calcium and phosphate balance is influenced by which three substances? a. parathyroid hormone, vasopressin, and vitamin D b. parathyroid hormone, calcitonin, and vitamin D c. Thyroid hormone, vasopressin, and Vitamin A d. Thyroid hormone, calcitonin, and vitamin A - Answer -ANS: B Three hormones regulate calcium and phosphate balance: parathyroid hormone (PTH), vitamin D, and calcitonin. Vasopressin, thyroid hormone, and vitamin A do not influence calcium and phosphate balance. Which are the early (prodromal) clinical manifestations of hepatitis? (Select all that apply.) a. fatigue b. vomiting c. itching d. splenomegaly e. hyperalgia Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com - Answer -ANS: A, B, E The prodromal (preicteric) phase of hepatitis begins approximately 2 weeks after exposure and ends with the appearance of jaundice. Fatigue, anorexia, malaise, nausea, vomiting, headache, hyperalgia, cough, and low-grade fever are prodromal symptoms that precede the onset of jaundice. Itching and splenomegaly are not associated with the prodromal phase of hepatitis. In an infant who is 5 weeks old, an increase in bilirubin production and persistent jaundice support which diagnosis? a. pathologic hyperbilirubinemia b. physiologic jaundice c. Hepatitis A d. Infantile cirrhosis - Answer -ANS: A Physiologic jaundice develops during the second or third day after birth and usually subsides in 1 to 2 weeks in full-term infants and in 2 to 4 weeks in premature infants. After this development, increased bilirubin values and persistent jaundice indicate pathologic hyperbilirubinemia. Physiologic jaundice in a newborn is caused by: a. reabsorption of bilirubin in the small intestine b. impaired hepatic uptake and excretion of bilirubin c. increased bilirubin production d. mild conjugated (indirect-reacting) hyperbilirubinemia - Answer -ANS: D Of the available options, physiologic jaundice in a newborn is caused by mild unconjugated (indirect-reacting) hyperbilirubinemia. When considering hemolytic anemia, which statement is true regarding the occurrence of jaundice? a. erythrocytes are destroyed in the spleen b. Heme destruction exceeds the liver's ability to conjugate and excrete bilirubin c. The patient has elevations in aspartate transaminase (AST) and alanine transaminase (ALT) d. The erythrocytes are coated with an immunoglobulin - Answer -ANS: B Jaundice (icterus) is present when heme destruction exceeds the liver's ability to conjugate and excrete bilirubin. This selection is the only option that accurately describes the process that affects the occurrence of hemolytic anemia-related jaundice. Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com Which foods should be eliminated from the diet for children who have gluten-sensitive enteropathy (celiac sprue)? (Select all that apply.) a. citrus fruit b. starchy vegetables c. cereal grains d. red meat e. dairy - Answer -ANS: C, E Treatment for celiac sprue consists of the immediate and permanent institution of a diet free of cereal grains (e.g., wheat, rye, barley, oats, malt). Lactose intolerance is presumed because of damage to the villi; therefore lactose (milk sugar) is excluded from the diet. The remaining options are not contraindicated on a celiac sprue-related diet. A patient is diagnosed with pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance. Which form of heart failure may result from pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance? a. right heart failure b. left heart failure c. low-output failure d. high-output failure - Answer -ANS: A Right heart failure is defined as the inability of the right ventricle to provide adequate blood flow into the pulmonary circulation at a normal central venous pressure. This condition is often a result of pulmonary disease and the resulting elevated pulmonary vascular resistance. Which component of the plasma protein system tags pathogenic microorganisms for destruction by neutrophils and macrophages? a. compliment cascade b. coagulation system c. kinin system d. immune system - Answer -ANS: A C3b (a component of the complement cascade) adheres to the surface of a pathogenic microorganism and serves as an efficient opsonin. Opsonins are molecules that tag microorganisms for destruction by cells of the inflammatory system, primarily neutrophils and macrophages. The other options do not accurately identify a component capable of tagging pathogenic microorganisms. Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com Which term is used to identify a condition in which the developing colon remains in the upper right quadrant instead of moving to its normal location? a. intestinal malrotation b. ileocecal displacement c. duodenal obstruction d. pyloric stenosis - Answer -ANS: A Intestinal malrotation is the only term used to identify a condition in which rotation does not occur and the colon remains in the upper right quadrant, where an abnormal membrane may press on and obstruct the duodenum. Which statements are true regarding renal colic? (Select all that apply.) a. renal colic results in mild-to-moderate pain b. pain originates in the flank area c. renal colic indicates the presence of renal stones d. pain radiated to the groin e. renal colic indicates obstruction of the renal pelvis or proximal ureter - Answer -ANS: B, C, D, E Renal colic is described as moderate-to-severe pain often originating in the flank and radiating to the groin. It usually indicates obstruction by renal stones of the renal pelvis or proximal ureter. Which term is used to identify an intestinal obstruction caused by meconium formed in utero that is abnormally sticky and adheres firmly to the mucosa of the small intestine? a. meconium cecum b. meconium ileus c. meconium obstruction d. meconium vivax - Answer -ANS: B Meconium ileus is the only term used to identify an intestinal obstruction caused by meconium formed in utero that is abnormally sticky and adheres firmly to the mucosa of the small intestine, resisting passage beyond the terminal ileum. The cause is usually a lack of digestive enzymes during fetal life. An infant has a continuous machine-type murmur best heard at the left upper sternal border throughout systole and diastole, as well as a Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com bounding pulse and a thrill on palpation. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect? a. atrial septal defect (ASD) b. ventricular septal defect (VSA) c. patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) d. atrioventricular canal (AVC) defect - Answer -ANS: C If pulmonary vascular resistance has fallen, then infants with PDA will characteristically have a continuous machine-type murmur best heard at the left upper sternal border throughout systole and diastole. If the PDA is significant, then the infant also will have bounding pulses, an active precordium, a thrill on palpation, and signs and symptoms of pulmonary overcirculation. The presentations of the other congenital heart defects are not consistent with the described the symptoms. What directly causes ovulation during the menstrual cycle? a. gradual decrease in estrogen levels b. sudden increase of LH c. Sharp rise in progesterone levels d. gradual increase in estrogen levels - Answer -ANS: B Menstrual cyclicity and regular ovulation are dependent on (1) the activity of the gonadostat (GnRH pulse generator); (2) the pituitary secretion of gonadotropins; and (3) estrogen (estradiol)-positive feedback for the preovulatory LH and FSH surges, oocyte maturation, and corpus luteum formation. Pain that results from tumor infiltration of nerve tissue, from trauma or chemical injury to the nerve, or from damage from radiation, chemotherapy, or surgical sectioning of the nerve is known as? a. myofascial pain syndrome b. neuropathic pain c. deafferentation pain d. sympathetically maintained pain - Answer -ANS C Deafferentation pain results from trauma or chemical injury to the peripheral nervous system, from tumor infiltration of nerve tissue, or from damage from radiation, chemotherapy, or surgical sectioning of a nerve with the loss of sensory input to the central nervous system. Pain that is thought to be caused by trauma or disease of nerves and Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com leads to abnormal processing of sensory information by the peripheral and central nervous systems is known as? a. myofascial pain syndrome b. neuropathic pain c. deafferentation pain d. sympathetically maintained pain - Answer -ANS B Neuropathic pain is the result of trauma or disease of nerves and leads to abnormal processing of sensory information by the peripheral and central nervous systems. Pain that occurs after peripheral nerve injury and is described as continuous with severe sensations and a burning quality is known as? a. myofascial pain syndrome b. neuropathic pain c. deafferentation pain d. sympathetically maintained pain - Answer -ANS D Sympathetically maintained pain (SMP) is another type of neuropathic pain that occurs after peripheral nerve or extremity injury and is characterized as continuous and severe with a burning quality. Pain that is the result of muscle spasms, tenderness, and stiffness and leads to muscle guarding that limits muscle motion is known as? a. myofascial pain syndrome b. neuropathic pain c. deafferentation pain d. sympathetically maintained pain - Answer -ANS A Myofascial pain syndrome (MPS) is associated with injury to muscle, fascia, and tendons. Painless diverticulum of the epididymis located between the head of the epididymis and the testis is known as? a. variocele b. hydrocele c. testicular torsion d. spermatocele - Answer -ANS D A spermatocele is a painless diverticulum of the epididymis located Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com between the head of the epididymis and the testis. Collection of fluid in the tunica vaginalis is known as? a. variocele b. hydrocele c. testicular torsion d. spermatocele - Answer -ANS B A hydrocele is a collection of fluid within the tunica vaginalis Rotation of a testis, which twists blood vessels of the spermatic cord is known as? a. variocele b. hydrocele c. testicular torsion d. spermatocele - Answer -ANS C Torsion of the testis is rotation of a testis, which twists blood vessels in the spermatic cord. Torsion of the testis is rotation of a testis, which twists blood vessels in the spermatic cord is known as? a. variocele b. hydrocele c. testicular torsion d. spermatocele - Answer -ANS A A varicocele is an abnormal dilation of a vein within the spermatic cord and is classically described as a bag of worms Regulation of the release of catecholamines from the adrenal medulla is an example of which type of regulation? a. negative feedback b. positive feedback c. neural d. physiologic - Answer -ANS: C The release of hormones occurs either in response to an alteration in the cellular environment or in the process of maintaining a regulated Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com level of certain hormones or certain substances. Several different mechanisms, one of which is neural control (e.g., stress-induced release of catecholamines from the adrenal medulla), regulate the release of hormones. A person who has experienced physiologic stresses will have increased levels of which hormone? a. adrenocorticotropic hormone b. thyroid hormone c. somatostatin d. alpha endorphin - Answer -ANS: A Stress has been shown to increase adrenocorticotropic hormone secretion. The other options are not increased with stress. The secretion of adrenocorticotropic-stimulating hormone (ACTH) will result in the increased level of which hormone? a. thyroxine b. insulin c. cortisol d. antidiuretic hormone - Answer -ANS: C Psychologic and physiologic stress (e.g., hypoxia, hypoglycemia, hyperthermia, exercise) increases ACTH secretion, leading to increased cortisol levels. Only cortisol describes the appropriate feedback loop. cranial nerve: Controls motor functions to the pharynx and salivary glands and sensory functions from the pharynx and tongue. - Answer -Glossopharyngeal nerve The glossopharyngeal nerve affects control over the motor fibers that serve the pharynx (throat) and salivary glands, as well as the sensory fibers that carry impulses from the pharynx, posterior tongue (taste buds), and pressure receptors of the carotid artery. Cranial nerve: Fibers emerge from the midbrain, exit from the skull, and extend to the eye. - Answer -Oculomotor nerve The oculomotor nerve fibers emerge from the midbrain, exit from the skull, and extend to the eye. These fibers control: (1) the motor fibers to the inferior oblique, superior, inferior, and medial rectus extraocular Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com muscles that direct the eyeball; (2) the levator muscles of the eyelid; (1) the smooth muscles of the iris and ciliary body; and (4) proprioception (sensory) to brain from the extraocular muscles. cranial nerve: Fibers emerge from the posterior midbrain and exit from the skull to run to the eye. - Answer -Trochlear nerve The trochlear nerve fibers emerge from posterior midbrain and exit from skull to affect control over the proprioceptor and motor fibers for the superior oblique muscle of eye (extraocular muscle). Cranial nerve Innervates muscles that move the eye laterally. - Answer -Abducens nerve The abducens nerve affects control over the motor fibers to the lateral rectus muscle and the proprioceptor fibers from the same muscle to the brain, allowing the eyes to move laterally. cranial nerve: Provides motor and sensory functions to the face, mouth, nose, and eyes. - Answer -Trigeminal nerve The trigeminal nerve affects control over both the motor and sensory functions to the face; conducts sensory impulses from the mouth, nose, surface of eye, and dura mater; it also contains motor fibers that stimulate the chewing muscles. cranial nerve: Affects control over the motor fibers to the muscles of tongue and sensory impulses from the tongue to the brain. - Answer -Hypoglossal nerve The hypoglossal nerve affects control over the motor fibers to the muscles of tongue and sensory impulses from the tongue to the brain. cranial nerve: Is made up of parasympathetic motor fibers that supply the smooth muscles of the abdominal organs. - Answer -Vagus nerve The vagus nerve affects control over the fibers that carry sensory and motor impulses for the pharynx. A large part of this nerve is parasympathetic motor fibers that supply smooth muscles of the Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com abdominal organs and is capable of receiving sensory impulses from the viscera. cranial nerve Carries sensory and motor fibers to the pharynx and larynx. - Answer -Spinal accessory nerve The spinal accessory nerve affects control over the sensory and motor fibers for the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles and the muscles of the soft palate, pharynx, and larynx. cranial nerve: Is purely sensory and carries impulses for the sense of smell. - Answer -Olfactory nerve The olfactory nerve is purely sensory and carries impulses for the sense of smell. cranial nerve: Transmits impulses for the sense of hearing. - Answer -Vestibulocochlear nerve The vestibulocochlear nerve is purely sensory; the vestibular branch transmits impulses for the sense of equilibrium; the cochlear branch transmits impulses for the sense of hearing. What statement concerning the pathogenetic mechanisms of polycystic ovarian syndrome (POS) is true? a. POS causes a decrease in leptin levels; this decrease reduces the hypothalamic pulsatility of gonadotropin-releasing hormone, which reduces the number of follicles that mature b. POS is a result of a disorder in the anterior pituitary that increases the follicle-stimulating hormone, which reduces the luteinizing hormone released. c. POS is a result of a combination of conditions that include oligoovulation or anovulation, elevated levels of androgens, or clinical signs of hyperandrogenism and polycystic ovaries. d. POS inhibits testosterone, which stimulates androgen secretion by the ovarian stroma and indirectly reduces sex hormone-binding globulin. - Answer -ANS: C POS has at least two of the following conditions: oligo-ovulation or anovulation, elevated levels of androgens, or clinical signs of hyperandrogenism and polycystic ovaries. Of the options available, only this answer accurately defines the pathogenetic mechanisms of POS. Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com What is the leading cause of infertility in women? a. pelvic inflammatory disease b. endometriosis c. salpingitis d. polycystic ovary syndrome - Answer -ANS: D Polycystic ovary syndrome remains one of the most common endocrine disturbances affecting women, especially young women, and is a leading cause of infertility in the United States. Clinical manifestations that include irregular or heavy bleeding, the passage of large clots, and the depletion of iron stores support which diagnosis? a. premenstrual syndrome b. dysfunctional uterine bleeding c. polycystic ovary syndrome d. primary dysmenorrhea - Answer -ANS: B Unpredictable and variable bleeding, in terms of amount and duration, characterize dysfunctional uterine bleeding. Especially during perimenopause, dysfunctional bleeding also may involve flooding and the passage of large clots, which often indicate excessive blood loss. Excessive bleeding can lead to iron-deficiency anemia. This option is the only answer that demonstrates the clinical manifestations described. The function of arachnoid villi is to: a.Produce cerebrospinal fluid b.Provide nutrients to the choroid plexuses c.Transmit impulses within the meninges d.Absorb cerebrospinal fluid into the cerebral venous sinuses - Answer -ANS: D CSF is reabsorbed by means of a pressure gradient between the arachnoid villi and the cerebral venous sinuses. Diabetes insipidus is a result of: a. antidiuretic hormone hyposecretion b. antidiuretic hormone hypersecretion c. Insulin hyposecretion d. insulin hypersecretion - Answer -ANS: A Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com Of the available options, diabetes insipidus is a result of insufficient antidiuretic hormone. A patient who is diagnosed with a closed head injury has a urine output of 6 to 8 L/day. Electrolytes are within normal limits, but his antidiuretic hormone (ADH) level is low. Although he has had no intake for 4 hours, no change in his polyuria level has occurred. These symptoms support a diagnosis of: a.Neurogenic diabetes insipidus b.Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone c.Psychogenic polydipsia d.Osmotically induced diuresis - Answer -ANS: A The stated symptoms are reflective of neurogenic diabetes insipidus and not of the remaining options. Diabetes insipidus, diabetes mellitus, and syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone all exhibit which symptom? a. polyuria b. edema c. vomiting d. thirst - Answer -ANS: D Thirst is the only symptom common to all these conditions. The cause of neurogenic diabetes insipidus (DI) is related to an organic lesion of the: a. anterior pituitary b. thalamus c. posterior pituitary d. renal tubules - Answer -ANS: C Neurogenic DI is a result of dysfunctional antidiuretic hormone synthesis, caused by a lesion of the posterior pituitary, hypothalamus, or pituitary stalk. Which form of diabetic insipidus (DI) will result if the target cells for antidiuretic hormone (ADH) in the renal collecting tubules demonstrate insensitivity? a. neurogenic b. nephrogenic Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com c. psychogenic d. ischemic - Answer -ANS: B Only nephrogenic DI is associated with an insensitivity of the renal collecting tubules to ADH. Which laboratory value is consistently low in a patient with diabetes insipidus (DI)? a. urine specific gravity b. serum sodium c. urine protein d. serum total protein - Answer -ANS: A The basic criteria for diagnosing DI include a low urine-specific gravity while sodium levels are high. Protein levels are not considered. Which form of diabetes insipidus (DI) is treatable with exogenous antidiuretic hormone (ADH)? a. neurogenic b. psychogenic c. nephrogenic d. ischemic - Answer -ANS: A Neurogenic DI is treated with ADH replacement therapy. The other options are incorrect. Where is antidiuretic hormone (ADH) synthesized, and where does it act? a. hypothalamus; renal tubular cells b. renal tubules; renal collecting ducts c. anterior pituitary; posterior pituitary d. posterior pituitary; loop of henle - Answer -ANS: A Once synthesized in the hypothalamus, ADH acts on the vasopressin 2 (V2) receptors of the renal duct cells to increase their permeability. This information helps eliminate the other options. During which stage of syphilis do bloodborne bacteria spread to all the major organ systems? a. primary Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com b. secondary c. latent d. tertiary - Answer -ANS: B Bloodborne bacteria spread to all major organ systems during only stage II, secondary syphilis In which stage of syphilis would the following clinical manifestations be found: destructive skin, bone and soft tissue lesions, aneurysms, heart failure, and neurosyphilis? a. primary b. secondary c. latent d. tertiary - Answer -ANS: D Stage IV, tertiary syphilis, is the only stage during which significant morbidity and mortality occur, including destructive skin, bone, and soft-tissue lesions Which organism is responsible for the development of syphilis? a.Neisseria syphilis b.Treponema pallidum c.Haemophilus ducreyi d.Chlamydia trachomatis - Answer -ANS: B T. pallidum is the only cause of syphilis. Which is a characteristic lesion of secondary syphilis? a. condylomata late b. gummus c. chancroid d. donovan bodies - Answer -ANS: A The only secondary syphilis lesion is the condylomata lata. By which method is the organism that causes syphilis best identified? a. acid fast stain b. in vitro culture Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com c. gram-stained slide d. darkfield microscopy - Answer -ANS: D Because Treponema pallidum cannot be cultured in vitro, early definitive diagnosis of primary or secondary syphilis depends on darkfield microscopy of a specimen taken from a chancre, regional lymph node, or other lesion. The collateral blood flow to the brain is provided by the: a. carotid arteries b. basal artery c. circle of willis d. vertebral arteries - Answer -ANS: C The arterial circle (circle of Willis) (see Figure 15-20) is a structure credited with the ability to compensate for reduced blood flow from any one of the major contributors (collateral blood flow). The remaining options are not considered sources of collateral blood flow. Cryptorchidism can be defined as which of the following? a.Normal developmental state of the testes b.Abnormal state in which the testes are overdeveloped c.Lack of scrotum d.Testicular maldescent - Answer -ANS: D Cryptorchidism is a condition of testicular maldescent, the only option that accurately defines cryptorchidism. The risk of which cancer is greater if the man has a history of cryptorchidism? a. penile b. testicular c. prostate d. epididymal - Answer -ANS: B The risk of testicular cancer is 35 to 50 times greater in men with cryptorchidism or in those with a history of cryptorchidism than it is for the general male population. This is not true of the other options. A person diagnosed with type 1 diabetes experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. The Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com most probable cause of these symptoms is: a.Hyperglycemia caused by incorrect insulin administration b.Dawn phenomenon from eating a snack before bedtime c.Hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise d.Somogyi effect from insulin sensitivity - Answer -ANS: C The most likely cause of these symptoms is hypoglycemia, which is often caused by a lack of systemic glucose as a result of muscular activity. None of the remaining options appropriately describes why a person diagnosed with type 1 diabetes experiences the described symptoms. Which age group should be targeted for testicular cancer education and screening? a.15 to 35 year olds b. 20-45 year olds c. 30-55 year olds d. 45-70 year olds - Answer -ANS: A Overall, testicular cancers are rare, yet they are the most common form of cancer in young men between the ages of 15 and 35 years. Which statements are true regarding Koplik spots? (Select all that apply.) a.Koplik spots are associated with rubeola. b.They appear as white spots. c.The lesions are surrounded by a red ring. d.The lesions of Koplik spots are large in size. e.Koplik spots are primarily found on buccal mucosa. - Answer -ANS: A, B, C, E Rubeola infection begins with characteristic pinpoint white spots surrounded by an erythematous ring that develops over the buccal mucosa and are known as Koplik spots. Erythematous macular rash over the trunk and neck that lasts 24 hours describes: a. Rubella (german measles) b. Rubeola (red measles) c. Roseola (exanthema subitum) d. Varicalla (chickenpox) Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com e. Herpes zoster (Shingles) - Answer -c. Roseola (exanthema subitum) After the fever, roseola exhibits an erythematous macular rash that lasts approximately 24 hours and primarily develops over the trunk and neck. Pinpoint white spots surrounded by an erythematous ring over the buccal mucosa describes: a. Rubella (german measles) b. Rubeola (red measles) c. Roseola (exanthema subitum) d. Varicalla (chickenpox) e. Herpes zoster (Shingles) - Answer -b. Rubeola (red measles) Rubeola's characteristic pinpoint white spots are surrounded by an erythematous ring, develop over the buccal mucosa, and are known as Koplik spots. Groups of vesicles on an inflammatory base following the course of a sensory nerve describes: a. Rubella (german measles) b. Rubeola (red measles) c. Roseola (exanthema subitum) d. Varicalla (chickenpox) e. Herpes zoster (Shingles) - Answer -e. Herpes zoster (Shingles) Herpes zoster occurs in partially immune individuals who have had varicella. Pink-to-red coalescing maculopapular rash on the scalp or trunk describes: a. Rubella (german measles) b. Rubeola (red measles) c. Roseola (exanthema subitum) d. Varicalla (chickenpox) e. Herpes zoster (Shingles) - Answer -a. Rubella (german measles) Rubella exhibits a faint, pink-to-red coalescing maculopapular rash that develops on the face and spreads to the trunk and extremities 1 to 4 days after the onset of initial symptoms Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com Red papules, vesicles, and pustules in clusters on the trunk, scalp, or face describes: a. Rubella (german measles) b. Rubeola (red measles) c. Roseola (exanthema subitum) d. Varicalla (chickenpox) e. Herpes zoster (Shingles) - Answer -d. Varicalla (chickenpox) The first sign of illness may be itching or the appearance of vesicles, usually on the trunk, scalp, or face. The rash later spreads to the extremities. Characteristically, lesions can be observed in various stages of maturation with macules, papules, and vesicles present in a particular area at the same time Which disorder is characterized by the formation of abnormal new bone at an accelerated rate beginning with excessive resorption of spongy bone? a. osteomalacia b. Paget disease c. osteoporosis d. osteosarcoma - Answer -ANS: B Of the available options, only Paget disease (osteitis deformans) is a state of increased metabolic activity in bone characterized by abnormal and excessive bone remodeling, both resorption and formation. Chronic accelerated remodeling eventually enlarges and softens the affected bones. Which structures are most often affected by Paget disease? (Select all that apply.) a.Vertebrae b.Skull c.Sternum d.Metacarpals e.Pelvis - Answer -ANS: A, B, C, E Paget disease most often affects the axial skeleton, especially the vertebrae, skull, sacrum, sternum, and pelvis. The metacarpals are not associated with the axial skeleton or Paget disease. Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com Chickenpox (varicella) may be followed years later by which disorder? a. erysipelas b. cytomegalovirus c. warts (verrucae) d. herpes zoster - Answer -ANS: D The same herpesvirus—varicella zoster virus (VZV)—causes both herpes zoster (shingles) and varicella (chickenpox). Varicella is the primary infection, followed years later by herpes zoster, particularly among those who are immunosuppressed. These statements are not true of any of the other options. Elevated, firm circumscribed area less than 1 cm in diameter describes: a. Urticaria, allergic reaction b. varicella (chickenpox), herpes zoster (shingles) c. wart (verruca) or lichen planus d. psoriasis or seborrheic and actinic keratoses e. nevus (flat mole) - Answer -c. wart (verruca) or lichen planus Warts (verruca) or lichen planus are elevated, firm, circumscribed areas less than 1 cm in diameter. Elevated, firm, and rough lesion with a flat top surface greater than 1 cm in diameter describes: a. Urticaria, allergic reaction b. varicella (chickenpox), herpes zoster (shingles) c. wart (verruca) or lichen planus d. psoriasis or seborrheic and actinic keratoses e. nevus (flat mole) - Answer -d. psoriasis or seborrheic and actinic keratoses Psoriasis or seborrheic and actinic keratoses are elevated, firm, and rough lesions with flat-top surfaces that measure greater than 1 cm in diameter. Flat circumscribed area that is less than 1 cm in diameter describes: a. Urticaria, allergic reaction b. varicella (chickenpox), herpes zoster (shingles) c. wart (verruca) or lichen planus Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com d. psoriasis or seborrheic and actinic keratoses e. nevus (flat mole) - Answer -e. nevus (flat mole) A nevus is a flat, circumscribed area that is less than 1 cm in diameter. Elevated irregular-shaped area of cutaneous edema; solid and transient with a variable diameter a. Urticaria, allergic reaction b. varicella (chickenpox), herpes zoster (shingles) c. wart (verruca) or lichen planus d. psoriasis or seborrheic and actinic keratoses e. nevus (flat mole) - Answer -a. Urticaria, allergic reaction Urticaria exhibits elevated, irregular-shaped areas of cutaneous edema. Its lesions are solid and transient with a variable diameter. Elevated circumscribed, superficial lesion filled with serous fluid, less than 1 cm in diameter a. Urticaria, allergic reaction b. varicella (chickenpox), herpes zoster (shingles) c. wart (verruca) or lichen planus d. psoriasis or seborrheic and actinic keratoses e. nevus (flat mole) - Answer -b. varicella (chickenpox), herpes zoster (shingles) Varicella (chickenpox) and herpes zoster (shingles) are elevated circumscribed, superficial lesions filled with serous fluid and measure less than 1 cm in diameter. Considering the pathophysiologic process of postmenopausal osteoporosis, which changes are believed to play a significant role in the development of age-related bone loss? a.Increased oxidative stress and increased intracellular reactive oxygen species b.Hypoparathyroidism c.Increased body weight d.Decreased formation and short life span of osteoclasts - Answer -ANS: A Postmenopausal osteoporosis occurs in middle-aged and older women. It can occur because of estrogen deficiency, as well as estrogenindependent, age-related mechanisms (e.g., secondary causes such as hyperparathyroidism and decreased mechanical stimulation). Recent Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com studies indicate that increased oxidative stress (OS) and increased intracellular reactive oxygen species (ROS) play significant roles in the development of age-related bone loss, as well as other age-related changes in the body. Hormonal deficiency also can increase with stress, excessive exercise, and low body weight. Increased formation and longevity of osteoclasts results in increased bone resorption and is associated with a cascade of proinflammatory cytokines. What medical term is used to identify an inflammatory disorder of the skin that is often considered synonymous with dermatitis and characterized by pruritus with lesions that have an indistinct border? a.Eczema b. psoriasis c. atopic dermatitis d. pityriasis rosea - Answer -ANS: A The most common inflammatory disorder of the skin is eczema, or dermatitis. Eczema and dermatitis are general terms that describe a particular type of inflammatory response in the skin—these terms can be used interchangeably. Pruritus, lesions with indistinct borders, and epidermal changes generally characterize diseases that are considered eczematous. Of the available options, only eczema is associated with these characteristics. Which medical diagnosis is described as a chronic inflammatory joint disease characterized by stiffening and fusion of the spine and sacroiliac joints? a.Ankylosing spondylitis b.rheumatoid arthritis c. paget disease d. fibromyalgia - Answer -ANS: A Of the options available, only ankylosing spondylitis (spondyloarthritis) is described as a chronic, inflammatory joint disease characterized by stiffening and fusion (ankylosis) of the spine and sacroiliac joints. What is the primary pathologic alteration resulting from ankylosing spondylitis (AS)? a.Inflammation of the sacroiliac joint b.Inflammation of the long bones c.Inflammation of fibrocartilaginous joints of the vertebrae d.Inflammation of the small hand and feet bones - Answer -ANS: C Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com AS involves inflammation of fibrocartilage in cartilaginous joints, primarily in the vertebrae. The other options do not accurately describe the primary pathologic alterations of AS. In ankylosing spondylitis, the CD8+ T cells are presented with which antigen? a.Synovium b. cartilage c. tendons d. ligaments - Answer -ANS: B Cartilage antigens are proposed as the targets for the immune response and the presentation of such antigens to CD8+ T cells. This statement is not true of any of the other options. Which behaviors in newborns would support the possibility of shock? (Select all that apply.) a.Decreased heart rate variability b.Temperature instability c.Hyperalertness d.Increased muscle tone e.Hypoglycemia - Answer -ANS: A, B, E Nonspecific signs of distress in newborns include jitteriness or lethargy with decreased muscle tone, bradycardia or decreased heart rate variability, temperature instability, and hypoglycemia. What is the central component of the pathogenic model of multiple sclerosis? a.Myelination of nerve fibers in the peripheral nervous system (PNS) b.Demyelination of nerve fibers in the CNS c.Development of neurofibrillary tangles in the CNS d.Inherited autosomal dominant trait with high penetrance - Answer -ANS: B Multiple sclerosis (MS) is an autoimmune disorder diffusely involving the degeneration of CNS myelin and loss of axons. The other options are not central components of the pathogenic model of MS. Multiple sclerosis is best described as a(an): a.Central nervous system demyelination, possibly from an immunogenetic virus Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com b.Inadequate supply of acetylcholine at the neurotransmitter junction as a result of an autoimmune disorder c.Depletion of dopamine in the central nervous system as a result of a virus d.Degenerative disorder of lower and upper motor neurons caused by viral-immune factors - Answer -ANS: A Multiple sclerosis (MS) is an autoimmune disorder diffusely involving the degeneration of central nervous system (CNS) myelin and loss of axons. MS is described as occurring when a previous infectious insult to the CNS has occurred in a genetically susceptible individual with a subsequent abnormal immune response in the CNS. The other options do not adequately describe MS. Which skin disorder begins with a single lesion that is circular, demarcated, and salmon pink, measures approximately 3 to 4 cm in diameter, and is usually located on the trunk? a.Lichen planus b. pityriasis rosea c. psoriasis d. acne rosacea - Answer -ANS: B Of the options available, only pityriasis rosea begins as a single lesion known as a herald patch. This lesion is circular, demarcated, and salmon pink; it measures approximately 3 to 4 cm in diameter and is usually located on the trunk. Which type of fracture usually occurs in an individual who engages in a new activity that is strenuous and repetitive? a.Stress b. greenstick c. insufficiency d. pathologic - Answer -ANS: A Only a stress fracture occurs in normal or abnormal bone that is subjected to repeated stress, such as repetitive and strenuous activities that occur during athletics. The failure of bones to ossify, resulting in soft bones and skeletal deformity, characterizes which disorder? a.Osteogenesis imperfecta Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com b. rickets c. osteochondrosis d. Legg-calve-perthes disease - Answer -ANS: B Of the available options, only rickets is a disorder in which growing bone fails to become mineralized (ossified) and results in soft bones and skeletal deformity. An insufficient dietary intake of which vitamin can lead to rickets in children? a.C b. B12 c. B6 d. D - Answer -ANS: D Rickets results from either insufficient vitamin D, insensitivity to vitamin D, wasting of vitamin D by the kidney, or inability to absorb vitamin D and calcium in the gut. Vitamin D is the only vitamin associated with rickets. The disruption in cellular adhesion observed in bullous impetigo is caused by an exfoliative toxin related to which organism? a.Staphylococcus aureus b. streptococcus pyogenes c. Escherichia coli d. Candida albicans - Answer -ANS: A Bullous impetigo is a rare variant of impetigo caused by S. aureus. The staphylococci produce a bacterial toxin called exfoliative toxin (ET), which causes a disruption in desmosomal adhesion molecules with blister formation characteristic of bullous impetigo. This selection is the only option that identifies the correct organism. The staff member of a crowed day care center is a source for which bacterial infection? a.Atopic dermatitis b.Staphylococcal scalded-skin syndrome c.Impetigo d.Tinea capitis - Answer -ANS: C Impetigo is a common bacterial skin infection in infants and children Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com and is particularly infectious among people living in crowded conditions with poor sanitary facilities or in settings such as day care facilities. Skin lesions that rupture, creating a thin, flat, honey-colored crust, are the hallmark clinical manifestation of which skin disorder? a.Rubella b. Tinea capitis c. Atopic dermatitis d. bullous impetigo - Answer -ANS: D Of the options available, only the vesicular impetigo lesions that begin as small vesicles with a honey-colored serum are the hallmark clinical manifestation of bullous impetigo. Yellow to white-brown crusts form as the vesicles rupture and extend radially Which disorder is characterized by the formation of abnormal new bone at an accelerated rate beginning with excessive resorption of spongy bone? a.Osteomalacia b. paget disease c. osteoporosis d. osteosarcoma - Answer -ANS: B Of the available options, only Paget disease (osteitis deformans) is a state of increased metabolic activity in bone characterized by abnormal and excessive bone remodeling, both resorption and formation. Chronic accelerated remodeling eventually enlarges and softens the affected bones. Skin lesions that rupture, creating a thin, flat, honey-colored crust, are the hallmark clinical manifestation of which skin disorder? a.Rubella b. Tinea capitis c. Atopic dermatitis d. bullous impetigo - Answer - Which statement accurately describes a characteristic of osteosarcoma? a.Slow-growing tumor that begins in the bone marrow and infiltrates the trabeculae b.Solitary tumor that most often affects the metaphyseal region of the Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com femur or tibia c.Aggressive tumor most often found in the bone marrow of long bones d.Tumor that infiltrates the trabeculae in spongy bone and implants in surrounding tissue by seeding - Answer -ANS: C An osteosarcoma is a malignant bone-forming tumor. It is aggressive and most often found in bone marrow; it has a moth-eaten pattern of bone destruction. This selection is the only option that accurately describes a characteristic of osteosarcoma. What is the most common malignant bone tumor diagnosed during childhood? a.Chondrosarcoma b. fibrosarcoma c. Ewing sarcoma d. osteosarcoma - Answer -ANS: D Of the options available, osteosarcoma is the most common bone tumor that occurs during childhood; it originates from bone-producing mesenchymal cells. Molecular analysis has demonstrated that osteosarcoma is associated with which gene? a.TP53 b. src c. myc d. TSC2 - Answer -ANS: B Of the options available, only the oncogene src has been associated with osteosarcoma. Osteosarcoma usually metastasizes to the: a.Pancreas b. liver c. lungs d. brain - Answer -ANS: C Osteosarcoma disseminates through the bloodstream, usually to the lung. As many as 25% of children diagnosed with osteosarcoma exhibit lung metastases at diagnosis. This statement is not true of any of the Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com other options. Which protein, absent in muscle cells of Duchenne muscular dystrophy, mediates the anchoring of skeletal muscle fibers to the basement membrane? a.Syntrophin b. laminin c. dystrophin d. troponin - Answer -ANS: C Only dystrophin is present in normal muscle cells and absent in Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Dystrophin mediates anchorage of the actin cytoskeleton of skeletal muscle fibers to the basement membrane through a membrane glycoprotein complex. Osteosarcoma usually metastasizes to the: a.Pancreas b. liver c. lungs d. brain - Answer - Multiple sclerosis is best described as a(an): a.Central nervous system demyelination, possibly from an immunogenetic virus b.Inadequate supply of acetylcholine at the neurotransmitter junction as a result of an autoimmune disorder c.Depletion of dopamine in the central nervous system as a result of a virus d.Degenerative disorder of lower and upper motor neurons caused by viral-immune factors - Answer - In ankylosing spondylitis, the CD8+ T cells are presented with which antigen? a.Synovium b. cartilage c. tendons d. ligaments - Answer Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com Considering the pathophysiologic process of osteoporosis, which hormone exerts antiapoptotic effects on osteoblasts but proapoptotic effects on osteoclasts? a.Parathyroid hormone b. glucocorticoid c. growth hormone d. estrogen - Answer -ANS: D Data reveal that sex steroids (e.g., estrogens) exert antiapoptotic effects on osteoblasts but exert proapoptotic effects on osteoclasts; in both scenarios, activating the extracellular signal-regulated kinases (ERKs) accomplish these effects. This process is not true of any of the other options. What is the primary pathologic alteration resulting from ankylosing spondylitis (AS)? a. Inflammation of the sacroiliac joint b. Inflammation of the long bones c. Inflammation of fibrocartilaginous joints of the vertebrae d. Inflammation of the small hand and feet bones - Answer - Need assistance on Online classes, Exams & Assignments? Reach out for instant help!! Full Course Assistance, Plagiarism-free Essay Writing, Research Paper, Dissertation, Discussion Posts, etc…. Confidential & Secure services. Tutors are available for all subjects! Email now at: tutorjean01@gmail.com