An Example of An Event That is Likely to Be Associated with Eustress is

Study Guide 2 1) An example of an event most likely to be associated with eustress is A) bouncing several checks. B) getting sick right before finals week. C) getting the highest score in the class on a difficult exam. D) forgetting to do an assignment. 2) The term describing what happens to our bodies when we perceive danger is called A) homeostasis. B) fight-or-flight response. C) adaptation response. D) the resistance phase. 3) The final exam in Teri's anthropology class involved an oral presentation to her professor followed by an extensive question-and-answer period. It was very stressful. The prolonged effort to adapt to the stress lead to an exhaustive wear and tear on her body. This is called A) allostatic load. B) allosteric load. C) allopathic load D) allotrophic load. 4) After you realize the strange noise you heard late at night was your cat and not a burglar, the system stimulated by the stress response will be slowed down by the A) central nervous system. B) voluntary nervous system. C) sympathetic nervous system. D) parasympathetic nervous system. 5) Which of the following statements is probably true about tension-type headaches? A) Exercise makes most tension headaches worse. B) Over-the-counter medications may relieve these headaches. C) Stress is never a trigger for these kinds of headaches. D) They are usually preceded by a warning sign called an aura. 6) What percentage of college students report that their finances have been very difficult to handle during the past 12 months? A) 15 percent B) 25 percent C) 35 percent D) 45 percent 7) All stress is negative stress, so all stress is bad for you. Answer: TRUE or FALSE 8) Negative stress, also known as eustress, is caused by events that result in debilitative tension and strain, such as financial problems. Answer: TRUE or FALSE 9) In the resistance stage of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS), adaptation resources are mobilized to combat the stressor, and the body maintains a higher than normal level of resistance. Answer: TRUE or FALSE 10) Both eustress and distress can trigger the fight-or-flight response. Answer: TRUE or FALSE 11) Because of all the energy burned when dealing with stress, you are less likely to gain weight when stressed. Answer: TRUE or FALSE 12) Type A personalities are relaxed, noncompetitive, and tolerant of others. Answer: TRUE or FALSE 13) Coping is the act of managing events or conditions to lessen the effects of excess stress. Answer: TRUE or FALSE 14) To deal with anger, you can express it, suppress it, or calm it. The healthiest option is probably to suppress it. Answer: TRUE or FALSE 15) Which of the following are characteristics that define intimate relationships? A) Behavioral interdependence and need fulfillment B) Behavioral interdependence and emotional detachment C) Need fulfillment and emotional vulnerability D) Emotional detachment and emotional vulnerability 16) Sharing personal information with others is called A) self-discussion. B) self-indulgence. C) self-sacrifice. D) self-disclosure. 17) What percentage of couples living together in a given year are doing so as a precursor to marriage? A) 36 percent B) 46 percent C) 56 percent D) 66 percent 18) A relationship in which two unmarried people with an intimate connection live together is called A) serial monogamy. B) self-disclosure. C) cohabitation. D) a "rebound" relationship 19) Which of the following statements about genetics is true? A) All eggs (ova) carry a Y chromosome. B) The male gonads (reproductive organs) are the ovaries. C) The primary male sex hormone is testosterone. D) The XY combination of chromosomes produces a female. 20) Robert is emotionally, romantically, and sexually attracted to both sexes. Without knowing anything more about him, what is Robert's sexual orientation? A) Homosexual B) Heterosexual C) Bisexual D) Transsexual 21) The permanent cessation of menstruation is called A) menopause. B) ovulation. C) corpus luteum. D) menarche. 22) What percentage of college men who drank alcohol in the last year reported having unprotected sex as a consequence of their drinking? A) 2 percent B) 12 percent C) 22 percent D) 32 percent 23) Which of the following is not a potential "date rape" drug? A) Rohypnol B) Gamma hydroxybutyrate (GBH) C) Methamphetamine D) Ketamine 24) Lovers desire physical intimacy and want to touch, hold, and engage in sexual activities with the other. The term that this describes is A) fascination. B) exclusiveness. C) sexual desire. D) giving the utmost. 25) Supportive interpersonal relationships are beneficial to health. Answer: TRUE or FALSE 26) Spermatogenesis, the development of sperm, is governed by the prostate gland. Answer: TRUE or FALSE 27) HIV and other sexually transmitted infections (STIs) can be transmitted via unprotected oral-genital sex, just as through intercourse. Answer: TRUE or FALSE 28) Sexual identity is the recognition and acknowledgment of oneself as a sexual being. Answer: TRUE or FALSE 29) Which condom, male or female, can prevent the spread of STIs that can be transmitted by external genital contact? A) The male condom only B) The female condom only C) Both the male and female condoms D) Neither the male nor the female condoms 30) Used consistently and correctly, female condoms can be up to A) 98 percent effective in preventing pregnancy. B) 95 percent effective in preventing pregnancy. C) 85 percent effective in preventing pregnancy. D) 75 percent effective in preventing pregnancy 31) Which of the following is one disadvantage of using a diaphragm? A) It can decrease sensation, especially for the male partner. B) It is generally more effective for women who have given birth before. C) If used correctly, it is only 57 percent effective in preventing pregnancy. D) It may slip out of place, especially if it is inserted incorrectly. 32) Which of the barrier methods of contraception, if used consistently and correctly, can be 94 percent in preventing pregnancy? A) The sponge B) The diaphragm C) Spermicides D) The cervical cap 33) The only method of avoiding pregnancy that is 100 percent effective is A) withdrawal. B) fertility awareness. C) the female condom. D) abstinence. 34) The landmark U.S. Supreme Court decision that made it legal for a woman to terminate her pregnancy during the first trimester without legal restrictions was A) Roe v. Wayne B) Roe v. Wade C) Row v. Wade D) Row v. Wayne 35) An embryo becomes a fetus A) during the second trimester of pregnancy. B) during the third trimester of pregnancy. C) when all organ systems have developed and are in place. D) upon conception. 36) The purpose of the placenta is A) to help the mother's pelvic bones widen and become more flexible for childbirth. B) to ready the mother's body for breastfeeding once her baby is born. C) to increase the mother's total blood volume. D) to carry nutrients and oxygen to the fetus. 37) From the mid-1960s to 2007, the rate of cesarean section deliveries in the United States A) increased from 5 percent to 32 percent. B) decreased from 32 percent to 25 percent. C) decreased from 32 percent to 5 percent. D) increased from 5 percent to 15 percent. 38) The death of a fetus after the 20th week of pregnancy but before delivery is known as A) sudden fetal death syndrome. B) stillbirth. C) fatal infant syndrome. D) miscarriage. 39) Which of the following is a symptom of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)? A) Larger head B) Addiction to alcohol C) Mental retardation D) Lack of hair 40) A diaphragm may be inserted up to six hours in advance and can be used for multiple acts of intercourse. Answer: TRUE or FALSE 41) The cervical cap cannot be used for longer than 48 hours because of the risk of toxic shock syndrome (TSS). Answer: TRUE or FALSE 42) Although outercourse can be 100 percent effective for avoiding pregnancy, it is not 100 percent effective against STIs. Answer: TRUE or FALSE 43) One of the main disadvantages of a vasectomy is that it can adversely affect the male's sex drive and sexual performance. Answer: TRUE or FALSE 44) In a hysterectomy, the woman's fallopian tubes are sealed to block sperm's access to released eggs. Answer: TRUE or FALSE 45) What percentage of the population in the United States were estimated to be current users of illicit drugs in 2009? A) 0.8 percent B) 8 percent C) 18 percent D) 28 percent 46) Alcohol is the most widely used central nervous system depressant. Answer: TRUE or FALSE 47) Anabolic steroids promote muscle growth and strength. Answer: TRUE or FALSE 48) Which of the following is considered an over-the-counter drug? A) St. John's wort B) Chanel No. 5 (perfume) C) Prozac (fluoxetine) D) Tylenol (acetaminophen) 49) Which of the following is considered a recreational drug? A) Sleepy-time tea B) Aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) C) A six-pack of beer D) The herbicide Roundup (glyphosate) 50) Which of the following is an over-the-counter drug that is subject to misuse and abuse? A) Paint B) White wine C) Diet pills D) Marijuana 51) Which of the following is the most popular and widely consumed drug in the United States? A) Cocaine alkaloid (freebase) B) Crack cocaine C) Methamphetamine D) Caffeine 52) Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) belongs to which of the following types of drugs? A) Stimulant B) Depressant C) Hallucinogen D) Inhalant 53) The ice form of methamphetamine belongs to which of the following types of drugs? A) Stimulant B) Depressant C) Hallucinogen D) Inhalant 54) Women are more likely to have gambling problems than men. Answer: TRUE or FALSE 55) Crack cocaine would be categorized as an over-the-counter drug because it can be bought without a prescription. Answer: TRUE or FALSE