Chemistry Final Exam Review

Chemistry Final Exam Review Multiple Choice Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1. The study of chemicals that, in general, do not contain carbon is traditionally called what type of chemistry? a. bio c. physical b. inorganic d. analytical ____ 2. Which of the following is NOT an example of matter? a. air c. smoke b. heat d. water vapor ____ 3. A golf ball has more mass than a tennis ball because it ____. a. takes up more space c. contains different kinds of matter b. contains more matter d. has a definite composition ____ 4. An example of an extensive property of matter is ____. a. temperature b. pressure c. mass d. hardness ____ 5. All of the following are physical properties of matter EXCEPT ____. a. mass c. melting point b. color d. ability to rust ____ 6. Which state of matter has a definite volume and takes the shape of its container? a. solid c. gas b. liquid d. both b and c ____ 7. Which of the following CANNOT be classified as a substance? a. table salt c. nitrogen b. air d. gold ____ 8. Which of the following is a heterogeneous mixture? a. air c. steel b. salt water d. soil ____ 9. Which of the following is a heterogeneous mixture? a. vinegar in water c. oil and vinegar b. milk d. air ____ 10. Separating a solid from a liquid by evaporating the liquid is called ____. a. filtration c. solution b. condensation d. distillation ____ 11. A substance that can be separated into two or more substances only by a chemical change is a(n) ____. a. solution c. mixture b. element d. compound ____ 12. The chemical symbol for iron is ____. a. fe b. FE c. Fe d. Ir ____ 13. Which of the following is a chemical property? a. color c. freezing point b. hardness d. ability to react with oxygen ____ 14. Which of the following is NOT a physical change? a. grating cheese c. fermenting of cheese b. melting cheese d. mixing two cheeses in a bowl ____ 15. Which of the following does NOT involve a physical change? a. mixing c. grinding b. melting d. decomposing ____ 16. A chemical change occurs when a piece of wood ____. a. is split c. decays b. is painted d. is cut ____ 17. When an iron nail is ground into powder, its mass ____. a. stays the same c. increases b. decreases d. cannot be determined ____ 18. The expression of 5008 km in scientific notation is ____. a. 5.008 10 km c. 5.008 b. 50.08 10 km d. 5.008 10 km 10 km ____ 19. The closeness of a measurement to its true value is a measure of its ____. a. precision c. reproducibility b. accuracy d. usefulness ____ 20. If the temperature changes by 100 K, by how much does it change in C? a. 0 C c. 100 C b. 37 C d. 273 C ____ 21. What is the density of an object having a mass of 8.0 g and a volume of 25 cm ? a. 0.32 g/cm c. 3.1 g/cm b. 2.0 g/cm d. 200 g/cm ____ 22. As the density of a substance increases, the volume of a given mass of that substance ____. a. increases c. decreases b. is not affected d. fluctuates ____ 23. The smallest particle of an element that retains the properties of that element is a(n) ____. a. atom c. proton b. electron d. neutron ____ 24. Which of the following is NOT a part of Dalton's atomic theory? a. All elements are composed of atoms. b. Atoms are always in motion. c. Atoms of the same element are identical. d. Atoms that combine do so in simple whole-number ratios. ____ 25. Which of the following is true about subatomic particles? a. Electrons are negatively charged and are the heaviest subatomic particle. b. Protons are positively charged and the lightest subatomic particle. c. Neutrons have no charge and are the lightest subatomic particle. d. The mass of a neutron nearly equals the mass of a proton. ____ 26. All atoms are ____. a. positively charged, with the number of protons exceeding the number of electrons b. negatively charged, with the number of electrons exceeding the number of protons c. neutral, with the number of protons equaling the number of electrons d. neutral, with the number of protons equaling the number of electrons, which is equal to the number of neutrons ____ 27. The particles that are found in the nucleus of an atom are ____. a. neutrons and electrons c. protons and neutrons b. electrons only d. protons and electrons ____ 28. As a consequence of the discovery of the nucleus by Rutherford, which model of the atom is thought to be true? a. Protons, electrons, and neutrons are evenly distributed throughout the volume of the atom. b. The nucleus is made of protons, electrons, and neutrons. c. Electrons are distributed around the nucleus and occupy almost all the volume of the atom. d. The nucleus is made of electrons and protons. ____ 29. The nucleus of an atom is ____. a. the central core and is composed of protons and neutrons b. positively charged and has more protons than neutrons c. negatively charged and has a high density d. negatively charged and has a low density ____ 30. The atomic number of an element is the total number of which particles in the nucleus? a. neutrons c. electrons b. protons d. protons and electrons ____ 31. An element has an atomic number of 76. The number of protons and electrons in a neutral atom of the element are ____. a. 152 protons and 76 electrons c. 38 protons and 38 electrons b. 76 protons and 0 electrons d. 76 protons and 76 electrons ____ 32. The sum of the protons and neutrons in an atom equals the ____. a. atomic number c. atomic mass b. nucleus number d. mass number ____ 33. What does the number 84 in the name krypton-84 represent? a. the atomic number c. the sum of the protons and electrons b. the mass number d. twice the number of protons ____ 34. All atoms of the same element have the same ____. a. number of neutrons c. mass numbers b. number of protons d. mass ____ 35. Isotopes of the same element have different ____. a. numbers of neutrons c. numbers of electrons b. numbers of protons d. atomic numbers ____ 36. The mass number of an element is equal to ____. a. b. c. d. the total number of electrons in the nucleus the total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus less than twice the atomic number a constant number for the lighter elements ____ 37. Which of the following sets of symbols represents isotopes of the same element? a. c. J J J M M M b. d. L L L Q Q Q ____ 38. In which of the following is the number of neutrons correctly represented? a. c. F has 0 neutrons. Mg has 24 neutrons. b. As has 108 neutrons. d. U has 146 neutrons. ____ 39. What unit is used to measure weighted average atomic mass? a. amu c. angstrom b. gram d. nanogram ____ 40. In the Bohr model of the atom, an electron in an orbit has a fixed ____. a. position c. energy b. color d. size ____ 41. How does the energy of an electron change when the electron moves closer to the nucleus? a. It decreases. c. It stays the same. b. It increases. d. It doubles. ____ 42. What is the shape of the 3p atomic orbital? a. sphere b. dumbbell c. bar d. two perpendicular dumbbells ____ 43. How many energy sublevels are in the second principal energy level? a. 1 c. 3 b. 2 d. 4 ____ 44. What is the maximum number of d orbitals in a principal energy level? a. 1 c. 3 b. 2 d. 5 ____ 45. The shape (not the size) of an electron cloud is determined by the electron's ____. a. energy sublevel c. speed b. position d. principal quantum number ____ 46. The letter "p" in the symbol 4p indicates the ____. a. spin of an electron c. principle energy level b. orbital shape d. speed of an electron ____ 47. What is the next atomic orbital in the series 1s, 2s, 2p, 3s, 3p? a. 2d c. 3f b. 3d d. 4s ____ 48. According to the aufbau principle, ____. a. an orbital may be occupied by only two electrons b. electrons in the same orbital must have opposite spins c. electrons enter orbitals of highest energy first d. electrons enter orbitals of lowest energy first ____ 49. What is the electron configuration of potassium? a. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s c. 1s 2s 3s 3p 3d b. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p d. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s ____ 50. How many unpaired electrons are in a sulfur atom (atomic number 16)? a. 0 c. 2 b. 1 d. 3 ____ 51. How does the speed of visible light compare with the speed of gamma rays, when both speeds are measured in a vacuum? a. The speed of visible light is greater. b. The speed of gamma rays is greater. c. The speeds are the same. d. No answer can be determined from the information given. ____ 52. Which color of visible light has the shortest wavelength? a. yellow c. blue b. green d. violet ____ 53. Which of the following electromagnetic waves have the highest frequencies? a. ultraviolet light waves c. microwaves b. X-rays d. gamma rays ____ 54. Which type of electromagnetic radiation includes the wavelength 10 a. gamma ray c. radio wave b. microwave d. visible light m? ____ 55. How are the frequency and wavelength of light related? a. They are inversely proportional to each other. b. Frequency equals wavelength divided by the speed of light. c. Wavelength is determined by dividing frequency by the speed of light. d. They are directly proportional to each other. ____ 56. The light given off by an electric discharge through sodium vapor is ____. a. a continuous spectrum c. of a single wavelength b. an emission spectrum d. white light ____ 57. Which scientist developed the quantum mechanical model of the atom? a. Albert Einstein c. Niels Bohr b. Erwin Schrodinger d. Ernest Rutherford ____ 58. According to the Heisenberg uncertainty principle, if the position of a moving particle is known, what other quantity CANNOT be known? a. mass c. spin b. charge d. velocity ____ 59. What is another name for the representative elements? a. Group A elements c. Group C elements b. Group B elements d. transition elements ____ 60. What is another name for the transition metals? a. noble gases b. Group A elements c. Group B elements d. Group C elements ____ 61. Which of the following elements is in the same period as phosphorus? a. carbon c. nitrogen b. magnesium d. oxygen ____ 62. Each period in the periodic table corresponds to ____. a. a principal energy level c. an orbital b. an energy sublevel d. a suborbital ____ 63. The modern periodic table is arranged in order of increasing atomic ____. a. mass c. number b. charge d. radius ____ 64. Of the elements Pt, V, Li, and Kr, which is a nonmetal? a. Pt c. Li b. V d. Kr ____ 65. To what category of elements does an element belong if it is a poor conductor of electricity? a. transition elements c. nonmetals b. metalloids d. metals ____ 66. What element has the electron configuration 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p ? a. nitrogen c. silicon b. selenium d. silver ____ 67. Elements that are characterized by the filling of p orbitals are classified as ____. a. groups 3A through 8A c. inner transition metals b. transition metals d. groups 1A and 2A ____ 68. Which subatomic particle plays the greatest part in determining the properties of an element? a. proton c. neutron b. electron d. none of the above ____ 69. Which of the following elements is a transition metal? a. cesium c. tellurium b. copper d. tin ____ 70. Which of the following groupings contains only representative elements? a. Cu, Co, Cd c. Al, Mg, Li b. Ni, Fe, Zn d. Hg, Cr, Ag ____ 71. How does atomic radius change from top to bottom in a group in the periodic table? a. It tends to decrease. c. It first increases, then decreases. b. It tends to increase. d. It first decreases, then increases. ____ 72. How does atomic radius change from left to right across a period in the periodic table? a. It tends to decrease. c. It first increases, then decreases. b. It tends to increase. d. It first decreases, then increases. ____ 73. Atomic size generally ____. a. increases as you move from left to right across a period b. decreases as you move from top to bottom within a group c. remains constant within a period d. decreases as you move from left to right across a period ____ 74. What element in the second period has the largest atomic radius? a. carbon c. potassium b. lithium d. neon ____ 75. Which of the following elements has the smallest atomic radius? a. sulfur c. selenium b. chlorine d. bromine ____ 76. What is the charge of a cation? a. a positive charge b. no charge c. a negative charge d. The charge depends on the size of the nucleus. ____ 77. The metals in Groups 1A, 2A, and 3A ____. a. gain electrons when they form ions b. all form ions with a negative charge c. all have ions with a 1 charge d. lose electrons when they form ions ____ 78. What is the element with the lowest electronegativity value? a. cesium c. calcium b. helium d. fluorine ____ 79. What is the element with the highest electronegativity value? a. cesium c. calcium b. helium d. fluorine ____ 80. What is the energy required to remove an electron from an atom in the gaseous state called? a. nuclear energy c. shielding energy b. ionization energy d. electronegative energy ____ 81. Compared with the electronegativities of the elements on the left side of a period, the electronegativities of the elements on the right side of the same period tend to be ____. a. lower c. the same b. higher d. unpredictable ____ 82. Which of the following statements correctly compares the relative size of an ion to its neutral atom? a. The radius of an anion is greater than the radius of its neutral atom. b. The radius of an anion is identical to the radius of its neutral atom. c. The radius of a cation is greater than the radius of its neutral atom. d. The radius of a cation is identical to the radius of its neutral atom. ____ 83. How many valence electrons are in an atom of phosphorus? a. 2 c. 4 b. 3 d. 5 ____ 84. What is the electron configuration of the gallium ion? a. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p c. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s 4p b. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s d. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d ____ 85. The octet rule states that, in chemical compounds, atoms tend to have ____. a. b. c. d. the electron configuration of a noble gas more protons than electrons eight electrons in their principal energy level more electrons than protons ____ 86. A compound held together by ionic bonds is called a ____. a. diatomic molecule c. covalent molecule b. polar compound d. salt ____ 87. What is the formula unit of aluminum oxide? a. AlO b. Al O c. AlO d. Al O ____ 88. Which of the following is true about the melting temperature of potassium chloride? a. The melting temperature is relatively high. b. The melting temperature is variable and unpredictable. c. The melting temperature is relatively low. d. Potassium chloride does not melt. ____ 89. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of most ionic compounds? a. They are solids. b. They have low melting points. c. When melted, they conduct an electric current. d. They are composed of metallic and nonmetallic elements. ____ 90. Which of these elements does not exist as a diatomic molecule? a. Ne c. H b. F d. I ____ 91. Why do atoms share electrons in covalent bonds? a. to become ions and attract each other b. to attain a noble-gas electron configuration c. to become more polar d. to increase their atomic numbers ____ 92. Which of the following is the name given to the pairs of valence electrons that do not participate in bonding in diatomic oxygen molecules? a. unvalenced pair c. inner pair b. outer pair d. unshared pair ____ 93. Which of the following diatomic molecules is joined by a double covalent bond? a. c. b. d. ____ 94. When one atom contributes both bonding electrons in a single covalent bond, the bond is called a(n) ____. a. one-sided covalent bond c. coordinate covalent bond b. unequal covalent bond d. ionic covalent bond ____ 95. A bond formed between a silicon atom and an oxygen atom is likely to be ____. a. ionic c. polar covalent b. coordinate covalent d. nonpolar covalent ____ 96. Which of the following covalent bonds is the most polar? a. H—F b. H—C c. H—H d. H—N ____ 97. When placed between oppositely charged metal plates, the region of a water molecule attracted to the negative plate is the ____. a. hydrogen region of the molecule c. H—O—H plane of the molecule b. geometric center of the molecule d. oxygen region of the molecule ____ 98. What type of ions have names ending in -ide? a. only cations c. only metal ions b. only anions d. only gaseous ions ____ 99. When naming a transition metal ion that can have more than one common ionic charge, the numerical value of the charge is indicated by a ____. a. prefix c. Roman numeral following the name b. suffix d. superscript after the name ____ 100. An -ate or -ite at the end of a compound name usually indicates that the compound contains ____. a. fewer electrons than protons c. only two elements b. neutral molecules d. a polyatomic anion ____ 101. Which of the following compounds contains the Mn ion? a. MnS c. Mn O b. MnBr d. MnO ____ 102. How are chemical formulas of binary ionic compounds generally written? a. cation on left, anion on right b. anion on left, cation on right c. Roman numeral first, then anion, then cation d. subscripts first, then ions ____ 103. Which of the following formulas represents an ionic compound? a. CS c. N O b. BaI d. PCl ____ 104. Which element, when combined with fluorine, would most likely form an ionic compound? a. lithium c. phosphorus b. carbon d. chlorine ____ 105. Which of the following compounds contains the lead(II) ion? a. PbO c. Pb2O b. PbCl4 d. Pb2S ____ 106. What is the correct formula for potassium sulfite? a. KHSO c. K SO b. KHSO d. K SO ____ 107. Sulfur hexafluoride is an example of a ____. a. monatomic ion b. polyatomic ion c. binary compound d. polyatomic compound ____ 108. In naming a binary molecular compound, the number of atoms of each element present in the molecule is indicated by ____. a. Roman numerals c. prefixes b. superscripts d. suffixes ____ 109. When dissolved in water, acids produce ____. a. negative ions c. hydrogen ions b. polyatomic ions d. oxide ions ____ 110. When naming acids, the prefix hydro- is used when the name of the acid anion ends in ____. a. -ide c. -ate b. -ite d. -ic ____ 111. When the name of an anion that is part of an acid ends in -ite, the acid name includes the suffix ____. a. -ous c. -ate b. -ic d. -ite ____ 112. What is the formula for phosphoric acid? a. H PO b. H PO c. HPO d. HPO ____ 113. Suppose you encounter a chemical formula with H as the cation. What do you know about this compound immediately? a. It is a polyatomic ionic compound. c. It is a base. b. It is an acid. d. It has a 1 charge. ____ 114. What does an -ite or -ate ending in a polyatomic ion mean? a. Oxygen is in the formula. c. Nitrogen is in the formula. b. Sulfur is in the formula. d. Bromine is in the formula. ____ 115. What SI unit is used to measure the number of representative particles in a substance? a. kilogram c. kelvin b. ampere d. mole ____ 116. Avogadro's number of representative particles is equal to one ____. a. kilogram c. kelvin b. gram d. mole ____ 117. How many molecules are in 2.10 mol CO ? a. 2.53 10 molecules b. 3.79 10 molecules c. 3.49 d. 1.26 10 10 molecules molecules ____ 118. The atomic masses of any two elements contain the same number of ____. a. atoms c. ions b. grams d. milliliters ____ 119. What is the molar mass of (NH ) CO ? a. 144 g b. 138 g ____ 120. What is the mass in grams of 5.90 mol C H ? c. 96 g d. 78 g a. 0.0512 g b. 19.4 g c. 389 g d. 673 g ____ 121. What is the number of moles in 432 g Ba(NO ) ? a. 0.237 mol c. 1.65 mol b. 0.605 mol d. 3.66 mol ____ 122. The volume of one mole of a substance is 22.4 L at STP for all ____. a. gases c. solids b. liquids d. compounds ____ 123. The molar volume of a gas at STP occupies ____. a. 22.4 L c. 1 kilopascal b. 0 C d. 12 grams ____ 124. What is the volume, in liters, of 0.500 mol of C H gas at STP? a. 0.0335 L c. 16.8 L b. 11.2 L d. 22.4 L ____ 125. If the density of a noble gas is 1.783 g/L at STP, that gas is ____. a. Kr c. Ar b. Xe d. He ____ 126. If 60.2 grams of Hg combines completely with 24.0 grams of Br to form a compound, what is the percent composition of Hg in the compound? a. 28.5% c. 71.5% b. 39.9% d. 60.1% ____ 127. What is the percent by mass of carbon in acetone, C H O? a. 20.7% c. 1.61% b. 62.1% d. 30.0% ____ 128. The lowest whole-number ratio of the elements in a compound is called the ____. a. empirical formula c. binary formula b. molecular formula d. representative formula ____ 129. What is the empirical formula of a compound that is 40% sulfur and 60% oxygen by weight? a. SO c. SO b. SO d. S O ____ 130. What does the symbol in a chemical equation mean? a. Heat is supplied to the reaction. c. yields b. A catalyst is needed. d. precipitate ____ 131. In the chemical equation H O (aq)  H O(l) O (g), the a. catalyst c. product b. solid d. reactant ____ 132. This symbol ( ) indicates that ____. a. heat must be applied b. an incomplete combustion reaction has occurred c. a gas is formed by the reaction is a ____. d. the reaction is reversible ____ 133. What are the coefficients that will balance the skeleton equation below? AlCl + NaOH a. 1, 3, 1, 3 b. 3, 1, 3, 1 Al(OH) NaCl c. 1, 1, 1, 3 d. 1, 3, 3, 1 ____ 134. When the equation Fe a. 1 b. 2 Cl FeCl is balanced, what is the coefficient for Cl ? c. 3 d. 4 ____ 135. Chemical equations must be balanced to satisfy ____. a. the law of definite proportions c. the law of conservation of mass b. the law of multiple proportions d. Avogadro’s principle ____ 136. In every balanced chemical equation, each side of the equation has the same number of ____. a. atoms of each element c. moles b. molecules d. coefficients ____ 137. What are the missing coefficients for the skeleton equation below? Al (SO ) (aq) a. 1, 3, 2, 3 b. 2, 12, 4, 6 KOH(aq)  Al(OH) (aq) K SO (aq) c. 4, 6, 2, 3 d. 1, 6, 2, 3 ____ 138. The type of reaction that takes place when one element reacts with a compound to form a new compound and a different element is a ____. a. combination reaction c. single-replacement reaction b. decomposition reaction d. double-replacement reaction ____ 139. Which of the following is a balanced equation representing the decomposition of lead(IV) oxide? a. PbO c. Pb O Pb 2O 2Pb O b. PbO Pb O d. PbO Pb O ____ 140. In the activity series of metals, which metal(s) will displace hydrogen from an acid? a. only metals above hydrogen c. any metal b. only metals below hydrogen d. only metals from Li to Na ____ 141. If a combination reaction takes place between rubidium and bromine, the chemical formula for the product is ____. a. RuBr c. RbBr b. Rb Br d. RbBr ____ 142. The calculation of quantities in chemical equations is called ____. a. stoichiometry c. percent composition b. dimensional analysis d. percent yield ____ 143. How many moles of aluminum are needed to react completely with 1.2 mol of FeO? 2Al(s) + 3FeO(s)  3Fe(s) + Al O (s) a. 1.2 mol b. 0.8 mol c. 1.6 mol d. 2.4 mol ____ 144. Hydrogen gas can be produced by reacting aluminum with sulfuric acid. How many moles of sulfuric acid are needed to completely react with 15.0 mol of aluminum? 2Al(s) + 3H SO (aq)  Al (SO ) (aq) + 3H (g) a. 0.100 mol c. 15.0 mol b. 10.0 mol d. 22.5 mol ____ 145. The equation below shows the decomposition of lead nitrate. How many grams of oxygen are produced when 11.5 g NO is formed? a. 1.00 g b. 2.00 g c. 2.88 g d. 32.0 g ____ 146. Iron(III) oxide is formed when iron combines with oxygen in the air. How many grams of Fe O are formed when 16.7 g of Fe reacts completely with oxygen? a. 12.0 g b. 23.9 g c. 47.8 g d. 95.6 g ____ 147. How many grams of chromium are needed to react with an excess of CuSO to produce 27.0 g Cu? 2Cr(s) + 3CuSO (aq) a. 14.7 g b. 18.0 g Cr (SO ) (aq) + 3Cu(s) c. 33.2 g d. 81.5 g ____ 148. When an equation is used to calculate the amount of product that will form during a reaction, then the value obtained is called the ____. a. actual yield c. theoretical yield b. percent yield d. minimum yield ____ 149. How does the gas propellant move when an aerosol can is used? a. from a region of high pressure to a region of lower pressure b. from a region of high pressure to a region of equally high pressure c. from a region of low pressure to a region of higher pressure d. from a region of low pressure to a region of equally low pressure ____ 150. What happens to the temperature of a gas when it is compressed? a. The temperature increases. b. The temperature does not change. c. The temperature decreases. d. The temperature becomes unpredictable. ____ 151. When the Kelvin temperature of an enclosed gas doubles, the particles of the gas ____. a. move faster b. strike the walls of the container with less force c. decrease in average kinetic energy d. decrease in volume ____ 152. Boyle's law states that ____. a. the volume of a gas varies inversely with pressure b. the volume of a gas varies directly with pressure c. the temperature of a gas varies inversely with pressure d. the temperature of a gas varies directly with pressure ____ 153. Charles's law states that ____. a. the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its temperature in kelvins b. the volume of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature in kelvins c. the pressure of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature in kelvins d. the volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its temperature in kelvins ____ 154. As the temperature of a fixed volume of a gas increases, the pressure will ____. a. vary inversely c. not change b. decrease d. increase ____ 155. If a sealed syringe is plunged into cold water, in which direction will the syringe piston slide? a. in c. No movement will occur. b. out d. The direction cannot be predicted. ____ 156. A gas occupies a volume of 2.4 L at 14.1 kPa. What volume will the gas occupy at 84.6 kPa? a. 497 L c. 14 L b. 2.5 L d. 0.40 L ____ 157. A sample of gas occupies 17 mL at –112 C. What volume does the sample occupy at 70 C? a. 10.6 mL c. 36mL b. 27 mL d. 8.0mL ____ 158. At high pressures, how does the volume of a real gas compare with the volume of an ideal gas under the same conditions? a. It is much greater. c. There is no difference. b. It is much less. d. It depends on the type of gas. ____ 159. Under what conditions of temperature and pressure is the behavior of real gases most like that of ideal gases? a. low temperature and low pressure c. high temperature and low pressure b. low temperature and high pressure d. high temperature and high pressure ____ 160. A breathing mixture used by deep-sea divers contains helium, oxygen, and carbon dioxide. What is the partial pressure of oxygen at 101.4 kPa if = 82.5 kPa and = 0.4 kPa? a. 82.9 kPa c. 18.5 kPa b. 19.3 kPa d. 101.0 kPa ____ 161. The tendency of molecules to move toward areas of lower concentration is called ____. a. suffusion c. effusion b. suspension d. diffusion ____ 162. Which of the following gases will effuse the most rapidly? a. bromine c. ammonia b. chlorine d. hydrogen ____ 163. If a crystal added to an aqueous solution causes many particles to come out of the solution, the original solution was ____. a. unsaturated c. an emulsion b. saturated d. supersaturated ____ 164. Which of the following occurs as temperature increases? a. Solubility decreases. c. Solubility remains the same. b. Solubility increases. d. Molarity doubles. ____ 165. What is the molarity of a solution that contains 6 moles of solute in 2 liters of solution? a. 6M c. 7M b. 12M d. 3M ____ 166. What is the molarity of a solution containing 7.0 moles of solute in 569 mL of solution? a. 81M c. 12M b. 0.081M d. 4.0M ____ 167. If an atom is reduced in a redox reaction, what must happen to another atom in the system? a. It must be oxidized. b. It must be reduced. c. It must be neutralized. d. Nothing needs to happen to another atom in the system. ____ 168. What is another name for an oxidation-reduction reaction? a. O-reaction c. redox reaction b. R-reaction d. oxred reaction ____ 169. In which of the following types of reaction are electrons gained? a. decomposition c. neutralization b. oxidation d. reduction ____ 170. Oxidation is ____. a. a loss of oxygen b. a gain of electrons c. a loss of electrons d. a gain of hydrogen ____ 171. Cu  Cu + 2 eThe equation above represents the type of reaction called ____. a. redox c. reduction b. hydrolysis d. oxidation ____ 172. Which type of reaction does Sn a. oxidation b. reduction  Sn represent? c. hydrolysis d. none of the above ____ 173. The oxidation number of magnesium in magnesium chloride is ____. a. –1 c. +1 b. 0 d. +2 ____ 174. The oxidation number of hydrogen when it is in a compound other than a hydride is ____. a. –2 c. 0 b. –1 d. +1 ____ 175. The oxidation number of bromime in bromime gas is ____. a. –2 c. 0 b. –1 d. +1 Chemistry Final Exam Review Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: OBJ: ANS: ANS: OBJ: ANS: ANS: OBJ: ANS: ANS: OBJ: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: OBJ: ANS: B B B C D B B D C D D C D C D C A A B C A C A 4.1.1, 4.1.2 B D 4.2.1 C C 4.2.1, 4.2.2 C A 4.2.2 B D D B B A 4.3.1 B DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: L2 L1 L1 L1 L1 L1 L2 L1 L1 L2 L2 L1 L1 L2 L2 L2 L1 L1 L1 L1 L2 L2 L1 REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: p. 8 p. 39 p. 39 p. 39 p. 40 p. 41 p. 40 p. 45 p. 45 p. 46 p. 48 p. 51 p. 53 p. 53 p. 53 p. 53 p. 55 p. 63 p. 64 p. 77, p. 78 p. 90, p. 91 p. 91 p. 101, p. 102 OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: 1.1.1 2.1.1 2.1.1 2.1.1 2.1.2 2.1.3 2.2.1 2.2.2 2.2.2 2.2.3 2.3.1 2.3.3 2.4.1 2.4.1 2.4.1 2.4.1 2.4.3 3.1.1 3.1.2 3.2.3 3.4.1 3.4.2 DIF: L2 DIF: L2 REF: p. 102 OBJ: 4.1.2 REF: p. 104, p. 105, p. 106 DIF: L3 DIF: L2 REF: p. 106 OBJ: 4.2.1 REF: p. 106, p. 107 DIF: L2 DIF: L2 REF: p. 108 OBJ: 4.2.2 REF: p. 107, p. 108 DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: L1 L1 L1 L1 L1 L1 DIF: L2 p. 110 p. 110 p. 111 p. 111 p. 110 p. 112, p. 113 REF: p. 111 OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: 4.3.1 4.3.1 4.3.1 4.3.1 4.3.1 OBJ: 4.3.1 37. ANS: OBJ: 38. ANS: OBJ: 39. ANS: 40. ANS: 41. ANS: 42. ANS: 43. ANS: 44. ANS: OBJ: 45. ANS: 46. ANS: 47. ANS: 48. ANS: 49. ANS: OBJ: 50. ANS: OBJ: 51. ANS: 52. ANS: 53. ANS: 54. ANS: 55. ANS: 56. ANS: 57. ANS: 58. ANS: 59. ANS: 60. ANS: 61. ANS: OBJ: 62. ANS: 63. ANS: 64. ANS: 65. ANS: 66. ANS: 67. ANS: 68. ANS: 69. ANS: 70. ANS: OBJ: 71. ANS: 72. ANS: 73. ANS: 74. ANS: 75. ANS: OBJ: C 4.3.1 D 4.3.2 A C A B B D 5.1.3 A B D D D 5.2.1 C 5.2.1 C D D D A B B D A C B 6.1.1 A C D C C A B B C 6.2.3 B A D B B 6.3.1 DIF: L3 REF: p. 112, p. 113 DIF: L2 REF: p. 112, p. 113 DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: L1 L2 L2 L2 L2 L2 REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: p. 115 p. 128 p. 128 p. 131 p. 131 p. 131, p. 132 DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: L2 L2 L2 L2 L2 REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: p. 131 OBJ: p. 131 OBJ: p. 133 OBJ: p. 133 OBJ: p. 133, p. 134, p. 135 OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: 4.3.3 5.1.2 5.1.3 5.1.3 5.1.3 5.1.4 5.1.4 5.2.1 5.2.1 DIF: L3 REF: p. 133, p. 134 DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: L2 L2 L2 L2 L2 L2 L1 L2 L1 L1 L1 REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: p. 139 p. 139 p. 139 p. 139 p. 139 p. 141 p. 130 p. 145 p. 164 p. 166 p. 162, p. 163 OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: 5.3.1 5.3.1 5.3.1 5.3.1 5.3.1 5.3.2 5.3.4 5.3.4 6.1.1 6.1.1 DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: L2 L2 L2 L3 L2 L2 L2 L1 L1 REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: p. 157 p. 157 p. 158 p. 160 p. 164 p. 166 p. 164 p. 166 p. 164, p. 166 OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: 6.1.1 6.1.1 6.1.3 6.1.3 6.2.2 6.2.2 6.2.2 6.2.3 DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: L1 L2 L2 L2 L3 REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: p. 171 p. 171 p. 171 p. 171 p. 171, p. 175 OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: 6.3.1 6.3.1 6.3.1 6.3.1 76. ANS: A 77. ANS: D OBJ: 6.3.2 78. ANS: A 79. ANS: D 80. ANS: B 81. ANS: B OBJ: 6.3.3 82. ANS: A OBJ: 6.3.3 83. ANS: D 84. ANS: D 85. ANS: A 86. ANS: D 87. ANS: D 88. ANS: A 89. ANS: B OBJ: 7.2.2 90. ANS: A 91. ANS: B 92. ANS: D 93. ANS: A 94. ANS: C 95. ANS: C OBJ: 8.1.1, 8.4.1 96. ANS: A OBJ: 8.4.1 97. ANS: A 98. ANS: B 99. ANS: C OBJ: 9.1.1 100. ANS: D 101. ANS: C OBJ: 9.2.1 102. ANS: A 103. ANS: B 104. ANS: A OBJ: 9.2.1 105. ANS: A OBJ: 9.2.1 106. ANS: C OBJ: 9.2.2 107. ANS: C 108. ANS: C 109. ANS: C 110. ANS: A 111. ANS: A DIF: L1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 172 OBJ: 6.3.2 REF: p. 162, p. 163, p. 172, p. 176 DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: REF: REF: REF: REF: L1 L1 L2 L2 p. 177 OBJ: 6.3.3 p. 177 OBJ: 6.3.3 p. 173 OBJ: 6.3.3 p. 177, p. 178 DIF: L2 REF: p. 172, p. 176 DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: L1 L2 L2 L1 L2 L1 L1 REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: p. 187 p. 190 p. 188 p. 194 p. 195 p. 196 p. 196, p. 198 OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: 7.1.1 7.1.1 7.1.2 7.2.1 7.2.1 7.2.2 DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: L1 L2 L1 L2 L2 L2 REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: p. 217 p. 217 p. 218 p. 221 p. 223 p. 238, p. 239 OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: 8.2.1 8.2.1 8.2.2 8.2.3 8.2.4 DIF: L3 REF: p. 238, p. 239 DIF: L3 DIF: L1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 239 OBJ: 8.4.2 REF: p. 254 OBJ: 9.1.1 REF: p. 254, p. 255 DIF: L2 DIF: L1 REF: p. 257 OBJ: 9.1.2 REF: p. 262, p. 263 DIF: L1 DIF: L2 DIF: L2 REF: p. 261 OBJ: 9.2.1 REF: p. 262 OBJ: 9.2.1 REF: p. 253, p. 254, p. 262 DIF: L2 REF: p. 262, p. 263 DIF: L2 REF: p. 257, p. 261, p. 262 DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: L2 L1 L1 L2 L2 p. 268 p. 269 p. 271 p. 272 p. 272 OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: 9.3.1 9.3.2 9.4.1 9.4.1 9.4.1 112. ANS: B 113. ANS: B OBJ: 9.4.1, 9.5.2 114. ANS: A OBJ: 9.1.3, 9.5.3 115. ANS: D 116. ANS: D 117. ANS: D OBJ: 10.1.2 118. ANS: A 119. ANS: C OBJ: 10.1.4 120. ANS: D OBJ: 10.2.1 121. ANS: C 122. ANS: A 123. ANS: A 124. ANS: B 125. ANS: C 126. ANS: C OBJ: 10.3.1 127. ANS: B 128. ANS: A 129. ANS: C 130. ANS: A 131. ANS: C 132. ANS: D 133. ANS: A OBJ: 11.1.3 134. ANS: C OBJ: 11.1.3 135. ANS: C 136. ANS: A OBJ: 11.1.3 137. ANS: D OBJ: 11.1.3 138. ANS: C 139. ANS: B 140. ANS: A 141. ANS: D OBJ: 11.2.2 142. ANS: A 143. ANS: B OBJ: 12.2.1 144. ANS: D OBJ: 12.2.1 145. ANS: B OBJ: 12.2.2 DIF: DIF: L2 L2 REF: p. 272 OBJ: 9.4.2 REF: p. 271, p. 276, p. 277 DIF: L1 REF: p. 257, p. 278 DIF: DIF: DIF: L1 L1 L2 REF: p. 290 OBJ: 10.1.2 REF: p. 290 OBJ: 10.1.2 REF: p. 291, p. 292 DIF: DIF: L1 L2 REF: p. 294 OBJ: 10.1.3 REF: p. 295, p. 296 DIF: L2 REF: p. 297, p. 298 DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: L2 L1 L1 L2 L3 L2 REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: p. 299 p. 300 p. 300 p. 301 p. 302 p. 305, p. 306 OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: 10.2.1 10.2.2 10.2.2 10.2.2 10.2.2 DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: L2 L1 L2 L1 L1 L1 L1 REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: p. 307 p. 309 p. 310 p. 323 p. 323 p. 323 p. 324, p. 325 OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: 10.3.1 10.3.2 10.3.2 11.1.2 11.1.2 11.1.2 DIF: L1 REF: p. 327, p. 328 DIF: L1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 325 OBJ: 11.1.3 REF: p. 325, p. 327 DIF: L2 REF: p. 324, p. 327 DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: REF: REF: REF: REF: L1 L2 L2 L2 p. 333 OBJ: 11.2.1 p. 332 OBJ: 11.2.1 p. 333 OBJ: 11.2.1 p. 330, p. 337 DIF: L1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 354 OBJ: 12.1.1 REF: p. 359, p. 360 DIF: L2 REF: p. 359, p. 360 DIF: L2 REF: p. 360, p. 361, p. 362 146. ANS: OBJ: 147. ANS: 148. ANS: 149. ANS: 150. ANS: 151. ANS: 152. ANS: 153. ANS: 154. ANS: 155. ANS: 156. ANS: 157. ANS: 158. ANS: 159. ANS: 160. ANS: 161. ANS: 162. ANS: 163. ANS: 164. ANS: 165. ANS: 166. ANS: OBJ: 167. ANS: 168. ANS: 169. ANS: 170. ANS: 171. ANS: 172. ANS: 173. ANS: 174. ANS: 175. ANS: B 12.2.2 A C A A A A B D A D C A B C D D D B D C 16.2.1 A C D C D A D D C DIF: L2 REF: p. 360, p. 361, p. 362 DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: L2 L1 L1 L1 L1 L1 L1 L1 L2 L2 L2 L2 L2 L2 L1 L2 L2 L2 L1 L2 REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: p. 371 p. 372 p. 416 p. 416 p. 417 p. 418 p. 420 p. 422 p. 420 p. 419 p. 421 p. 428 p. 428 p. 434 p. 435 p. 436 p. 474 p. 474 p. 481 p. 480, p. 481 OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: 12.3.1 12.3.2 14.1.2 14.1.2 14.2.1 14.2.1 14.2.1 14.2.1 14.2.1 14.2.1 14.2.1 14.3.2 14.3.2 14.4.1 14.4.2 14.4.2 16.1.3 16.1.3 16.2.1 DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: L1 L1 L1 L1 L1 L1 L1 L1 L1 REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: p. 632 p. 632 p. 633 p. 633 p. 634 p. 634 p. 639 p. 639 p. 639 OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: 20.1.1 20.1.1 20.1.1 20.1.1 20.1.2 20.1.2 20.2.1 20.2.1 20.2.1