Integrated Advertising, Promotion, and Marketing Communications

Integrated Advertising, Promotion, and Marketing Communications Advertising Design 1) According to a survey by Adweek Media and Harris Interactive, 55 percent of consumers said ads were: A) somewhat or very interesting. B) not interesting. C) very influential in their purchase decisions. D) somewhat influential in their purchase decisions. 2) An outline of the key ideas in an advertisement is the: A) message theme. B) message strategy. C) cognitive message. D) generic message. 3) The primary tactic or approach used to deliver a message theme is a: A) message identification. B) message strategy. C) cognitive message. D) generic message. 4) A cognitive message strategy: A) invokes feelings or emotions and matches these with the goods, service, or company being advertised. B) is the presentation of rational arguments or pieces of information to consumers. C) is designed to lead more directly to some type of consumer behavior. D) is the manner in which an ad appeal is presented. 5) Which message strategy is linked with reasoning and thinking processes? A) Cognitive B) Conative C) Affective D) Resonance 6) Which message strategy has the goal of creating an impact on a person's beliefs or knowledge structure? A) Affective B) Conative C) Cognitive D) Resonance 7) Which type of cognitive message strategy is a direct promotion of a brand without any claim of superiority? A) Generic B) Hyperbole C) Preemptive D) Brand 8) The generic cognitive message strategy is a(n): A) claim of superiority based on a product's specific attribute or benefit, which cannot be made by a competitor. B) direct promotion of product attributes or benefits without any claim of superiority. C) explicit, testable claim of uniqueness or superiority that can be supported or substantiated in some manner. D) untestable claim based upon some attribute or benefit. 9) Which type of cognitive message strategy works best for a firm that is clearly the brand leader and the dominant company in the industry? A) Generic B) Preemptive C) Unique selling proposition D) Hyperbole 10) Nintendo holds 47 percent of the market share in the handheld game market. An advertisement for Nintendo using a cognitive message strategy would probably use which approach? A) Comparative B) Generic C) Preemptive D) Unique selling proposition 11) The goal of a generic message strategy is to: A) increase brand loyalty. B) persuade viewers of the brand's superiority. C) make the brand synonymous with the product category. D) preempt the competition from using a particular claim or benefit. 12) When Crest is featured as a "cavity fighter" in its advertising, competitors are not likely to make the same claim. This is an example of which type of cognitive message strategy? A) Generic B) Preemptive C) Hyperbole D) Comparative 13) Which message strategy is a claim of superiority based on a product's specific attribute or benefit that cannot then be used by a competitor? A) Generic B) Preemptive C) Unique selling proposition D) Hyperbole 14) The preemptive cognitive message strategy is a(n): A) claim of superiority based on a product's specific attribute or benefit, which cannot be made by a competitor. B) direct promotion of product attributes or benefits without any claim of superiority. C) explicit, testable claim of uniqueness or superiority that can be supported or substantiated in some manner. D) untestable claim based upon some attribute or benefit. 15) A unique selling proposition cognitive message strategy is a(n): A) claim of superiority based on a product's specific attribute or benefit, which cannot be made by a competitor. B) direct promotion of product attributes or benefits without any claim of superiority. C) explicit, testable claim of uniqueness or superiority that can be supported or substantiated in some manner. D) untestable claim based upon some attribute or benefit. 16) A unique selling proposition strategy differs from a preemptive or generic approach in that the unique selling proposition is: A) preemptive. B) testable. C) emotional. D) comparative. 17) A hyperbole cognitive message strategy is a(n): A) claim of superiority based on a product's specific attribute or benefit, which cannot be made by a competitor. B) direct promotion of product attributes or benefits without any claim of superiority. C) explicit, testable claim of uniqueness or superiority that can be supported or substantiated in some manner. D) untestable claim based upon some attribute or benefit. 18) "We are Chicago's friendliest car dealer!" is an example of which type of cognitive message? A) Preemptive B) Unique selling proposition C) Hyperbole D) Comparative 19) The cognitive message strategy approach that is most likely to require substantiation of claims to prevent potential lawsuits made would be: A) hyperbole. B) preemptive. C) unique selling proposition. D) comparative. 20) Consumers often think comparative ads: A) are less believable. B) are more believable. C) contain accurate information. D) develop more favorable attitudes toward the brand. 21) Showing greasy potato chips versus Pringles is an example of a: A) preemptive claim of superiority. B) generic demonstration of product quality. C) negative comparison ad. D) positive comparison ad. 22) A negative comparison ad that causes people to dislike the sponsor brand may be due to: A) the preemptive claim of superiority. B) a generic demonstration of product quality. C) spontaneous trait transference. D) internal cognitive consistency. 23) Which of the following tends to work the best when developing comparative ads? A) Comparing a low-market share brand to another low-market share brand B) Comparing a low-market share brand to a market leader C) Comparing a market leader to a low-market share brand D) Comparing a market leader to another market leader 24) Which organization is most likely to investigate comparative advertising complaints? A) Federal Trade Commission B) World Trade Organization C) Congress D) U.S. Postal Service 25) In terms of attitude formation, the sequence being used with a cognitive message strategy is: A) affective → conative → cognitive. B) conative → cognitive → affective. C) cognitive → conative → affective. D) cognitive → affective → conative. 26) Which message strategy is most closely linked to emotions? A) Cognitive B) Affective C) Hyperbole D) Conative 27) An affective message strategy: A) invokes feelings or emotions and matches these with the good, service, or company being advertised. B) is the presentation of rational arguments or pieces of information to consumers. C) is designed to lead more directly to some type of consumer behavior. D) is the manner in which an ad appeal is presented. 28) Using music to build emotions surrounding a product is tied to which type of message strategy? A) Cognitive B) Affective C) Brand D) Conative 29) The two types of affective message strategies are: A) emotional and hyperbole. B) resonance and emotional. C) preemptive and unique selling proposition. D) affective and conative. 30) An affective message strategy that connects a product with a consumer's experiences to build stronger ties with the consumer is which form of message strategy? A) Generic B) Cognitive C) Resonance D) Emotional 31) A new form of resonance advertising that reassures consumers looking for value that branded products have stood the test of time is: A) comfort marketing. B) highlight marketing. C) buzz marketing. D) stealth marketing. 32) For products with no real tangible differences among the various brands, which message strategy is best at developing positive feelings toward a particular brand? A) Affective B) Cognitive C) Conative D) Generic 33) Which message strategy attempts to elicit powerful emotions that eventually lead to higher product recall? A) Generic B) Cognitive C) Emotional D) Preemptive 34) A print advertisement for Bijan uses the picture of a grandmother with a testimony about the perfume and how her granddaughters now wear Bijan. The advertisement presents a testimonial execution with which type of message strategy? A) Cognitive B) Affective C) Conative D) Brand 35) Which message strategy is designed to trigger impulse buys? A) Unique selling proposition B) Resonance C) Affective D) Conative 36) An advertisement by Philadelphia Cream Cheese encourages individuals to visit the brand's website and download free recipes. The ad uses which type of message strategy? A) Unique selling proposition B) Affective C) Conative D) Cognitive 37) Which message strategy is used to support promotions, such as coupons, premiums, and sweepstakes? A) Cognitive B) Emotional C) Affective D) Conative 38) Conative message strategies utilize an attitude formation sequence of: A) affective → conative → cognitive. B) conative → cognitive → affective. C) cognitive → conative → affective. D) affective → cognitive → conative. 39) In the hierarchy of effects model, cognitive message strategies would be most closely tied to which stage(s)? A) Awareness and knowledge B) Liking, preference, and conviction C) Actual purchase D) Knowledge and preference 40) In the hierarchy of effects model, affective message strategies would be most closely tied to which stage(s)? A) Awareness and knowledge B) Liking, preference, and conviction C) Actual purchase D) Awareness and liking 41) In the hierarchy of effects model, conative message strategies would be most closely tied to the: A) Awareness. B) Liking, preference, and conviction. C) The purchase or consumer response. D) Knowledge. 42) When using the hierarchy of effects model to develop liking for a product or brand, the best creative message strategy to use would be: A) affective. B) cognitive. C) conative. D) corporate. 43) When using the hierarchy of effects model to develop conviction for a particular product or brand, the best creative message strategy to use would be: A) affective. B) cognitive. C) conative. D) corporate. 44) When using the hierarchy of effects model to develop knowledge for a product or brand, which would be the best message strategy? A) Affective B) Cognitive C) Conative D) Corporate 45) The advertising appeal is the primary tactic or approach used to deliver a message theme. TRUE or FALSE 46) The three categories of message strategies coincide with the three components of attitudes. TRUE or FALSE 47) The three categories of message strategies are cognitive strategies, affective strategies, and brand strategies. TRUE or FALSE 48) In a recent Adweek Media and Harris Interactive survey, the majority of consumers, 55 percent, said advertisements were somewhat or very interesting. TRUE or FALSE 49) A conative message strategy is a presentation of rational arguments or pieces of information about a good or service. TRUE or FALSE 50) The mcgarrybowen advertising agency bases its work on storytelling, along with marketing research. TRUE or FALSE 51) When using a conative message strategy, the primary message is about a product's attributes or benefits. TRUE or FALSE 52) If an advertisement highlights the benefits of a local bank using a rationale argument, then it is using a cognitive message strategy. TRUE or FALSE 53) A generic message is a direct promotion of a good or service without any claim of superiority. TRUE or FALSE 54) The preemptive message strategy works best for a firm that is clearly the brand leader and is the dominant company in the industry. TRUE or FALSE 55) Generic message strategies are not used in business-to-business advertisements, because few firms dominate an industry. TRUE or FALSE 56) Generic message strategies can be used to create brand awareness. TRUE or FALSE 57) Cognitive message strategies include generic messages, preemptive messages, hyperbole messages, resonance messages, and conative messages. TRUE or FALSE 58) A hyperbole message strategy involves an explicit, testable claim of uniqueness or superiority. TRUE or FALSE 59) A unique selling proposition does not require support or substantiation although the claims made could be tested or substantiated in some manner. TRUE or FALSE 60) A hyperbole form of cognitive message strategy is a claim that can be tested based on some attribute or benefit. TRUE or FALSE 61) "We make the best tacos in town," is an example of a hyperbole form of cognitive message strategy. TRUE or FALSE 62) The "Soup is Good Food" tagline used by Campbell's Soup is an example of hyperbole in advertising. TRUE or FALSE 63) A hyperbole message strategy is a conative form of message strategy. TRUE or FALSE 64) To provide protection from lawsuits, company leaders and advertisers must be sure that any claim made about the competition using a unique selling proposition message strategy approach can be clearly substantiated. TRUE or FALSE 65) The major advantage of comparison ads is that they are effective in capturing the viewer's attention. TRUE or FALSE 66) Comparative ads tend to be more believable and have a greater positive impact on consumer attitudes than other cognitive message strategies. TRUE or FALSE 67) Negative comparison ads may transfer negative feelings toward the sponsor's product. TRUE or FALSE 68) In terms of attitude formation, cognitive message strategies are designed to follow the sequence of cognitive → affective → conative. TRUE or FALSE 69) The largest number of complaints that the FTC hears about potentially misleading advertisements are ads using the hyperbole message strategy approach. TRUE or FALSE 70) In general, comparing a low-market share brand to the market leader does not work as well in comparative advertising as comparing two brands with approximately the same level of market share. TRUE or FALSE 71) Cognitive message strategies are designed to invoke feelings and emotions and match them to a good, service, or company. TRUE or FALSE 72) The concept of spontaneous trait transference suggests that when someone calls another person dishonest, other people tend to remember the speaker as also being less than honest. TRUE or FALSE 73) Affective message strategies take two major forms: emotional and hyperbole. TRUE or FALSE 74) Resonance advertising attempts to connect a product with a consumer's past experiences and is a form of affective message strategy. TRUE or FALSE 75) When Sprint advertising says "our reception is better than Verizon's," it is a form of negative comparison. TRUE or FALSE 76) Comfort marketing is a form of cognitive message strategy that attempts to assure consumers that a branded product is a good value because it has stood the test of time. TRUE or FALSE 77) If a product's benefits can be presented within an emotional framework, the advertisement is normally more effective, even in business-to-business advertisements. TRUE or FALSE 78) Affective message strategies utilize the attitude formation sequence of affective → conative → cognitive. TRUE or FALSE 79) For some products, affective ads are an effective approach because there are no real tangible differences among brands. TRUE or FALSE 80) Impulse buys are primarily linked to cognitive message strategies. TRUE or FALSE 81) In terms of the relationship between message strategies and the hierarchy of effects model, affective message strategies are best suited to develop awareness and knowledge about a particular product or brand. TRUE or FALSE 82) In terms of the relationship between message strategies and the hierarchy of effects model, affective message strategies are best suited to develop awareness, liking, and preference for a particular product or brand. TRUE or FALSE 83) In terms of the relationship between message strategies and the hierarchy of effects model, conative message strategies are best suited to develop conviction and the actual purchase of a particular product or brand. TRUE or FALSE 84) Cognitive message strategies are a common approach to developing a strong brand name. TRUE or FALSE 85) Conative message strategies utilize the attitude formation sequence of conative → cognitive → affective. TRUE or FALSE 86) Name the five major forms of cognitive strategies. 87) What are the advantages and disadvantages of comparative ads? 88) What are the two types of affective message strategies? Define both. 89) Each of the following is a type of appeal that could be used in designing ads except: A) economic. B) fear. C) humor. D) sex. 90) Each of the following is a type of appeal that can be used in designing ads except: A) music. B) cognitive. C) rationality. D) emotion. 91) Although almost any type of appeal can be used to create an advertisement, it is the key responsibility of the marketer to make sure, to whatever degree possible, that the appeal is the right choice for the: A) advertising agency and creative that will be working on the ad. B) product, media planner, and media buyer. C) brand and the target market. D) account executive and creative. 92) In a fear appeal, showing the potential for a devastating injury when seat belts are not used is an example of: A) cognition. B) severity. C) vulnerability. D) self-efficacy. 93) One reason teenagers who smoke do not quit is because they are afraid they will lose their friends. The social aspect of their lives is more important than their health. Losing friends is which component of the behavioral response model and fear appeal? A) Intrinsic reward B) Severity C) Vulnerability D) Response cost 94) Most advertisers believe which level of fear is most likely to succeed in an advertisement? A) Low, non-threatening B) Moderate C) High D) Severe 95) Humor overcomes clutter by: A) making the person laugh. B) frequently repeating the company's name. C) capturing attention. D) making other products less memorable. 96) Humor causes consumers to watch, laugh, and, most importantly: A) make a purchase. B) tell their friends. C) remember. D) tune out other messages. 97) The appeal that has proven to be one of the most effective at cutting through clutter is: A) humor. B) music. C) sex. D) fear. 98) The appeal that often wins awards and tends to be favored among consumers is: A) fear. B) humor. C) sex. D) emotions. 99) The goal of a humorous ad is to have consumers: A) pause, remember, and act. B) watch, laugh, and remember. C) concentrate on the funny part. D) ignore the musical element. 100) To be successful, the funniness in a humor appeal should be: A) directed at the target audience of the ad. B) of a low level since humor that is too heavy tends to interfere with message recall. C) directed to the audience's value system. D) connected directly to the product's benefits. 101) Many advertisers are shifting to which form of sex appeal? A) Subliminal advertising techniques B) Nudity and partial nudity C) Subtle sexual cues, suggestions, and innuendos D) Overt sexual themes 102) Attempting to place a sexual cue in an ad to affect a viewer's subconscious mind is: A) seductive advertising. B) subliminal advertising. C) partial instead of full nudity. D) sexual suggestiveness. 103) Subliminal sexual messages are: A) almost always ignored by viewers. B) highly effective with teenage viewers. C) increasingly used instead of humor. D) used to advertise children's products. 104) Using sensuality as a type of sex appeal in advertising: A) requires both visual and verbal cues. B) requires viewer imagination. C) is based on subliminal cues. D) works only with female viewers since they are more romantic than men. 105) An advertisement that hints that sex is about to take place is using which approach? A) Sensuality B) Subliminal C) Sexual suggestiveness D) Nudity or partial nudity 106) Television and print advertisements by Victoria's Secret models wearing only underwear use which type of sexual appeal? A) Subliminal technique B) Nudity or partial nudity C) Overt sexuality D) Sexual suggestiveness 107) Placing a female wearing a bikini in an advertisement for power tools targeted to men is an example of: A) a subliminal sexual cue. B) a decorative model. C) overt sexuality. D) sexual suggestiveness. 108) Decorative models are people who: A) are key product spokespersons. B) are nude models in television ads. C) adorn a product as a sexual stimulus. D) design attractive products. 109) A nude male on a calendar for household furniture is a(n): A) source or spokesperson. B) decorative model. C) example of subliminal advertising. D) example of overt sexuality. 110) Each of the following statements about the use of decorative models is true except: A) the presence of a decorative model improves ad recognition, but not brand recognition. B) attractive models produce higher levels of attention than do less attractive models. C) the presence of an attractive model produces higher purchase intentions for any type of product. D) the presence of a decorative model influences the affective component of attitude. 111) Research indicates that humor will: A) capture a person's attention, but adversely affects recall of the product's benefits. B) capture a person's attention, but interferes with brand recall. C) cut through clutter if the humor is tied closely to the product's attributes. D) elevate a person's mood, which will then be transferred to the product being advertised. 112) Ads that were rated as highly controversial in terms of sexual content by both males and females: A) were also rated as most interesting. B) had the lowest level of brand recall. C) were the best at relaying product information. D) produced the best results. 113) The cognitive impression made on viewers of a sexually-oriented ad depends on: A) the level of nudity in the ad. B) the level of sensuality in the ad. C) the type of product being advertised. D) whether the viewer feels the advertisement is pleasant or offensive. 114) When determining the level of sex appeal to use in an advertisement, it is important to consider: A) the amount of sexually-oriented advertising that is being used by competitors. B) how decorative models are being used. C) society's view and level of acceptance at the time the ad is to run. D) the target audiences' view of sexuality. 115) Music can be intrusive, which means it will: A) capture the attention of someone who previously was not listening or watching a program. B) be the most important aspect of an advertisement. C) be effective if the listener recognizes the tune. D) lead to a greater level of brand recall and create positive emotions in listeners. 116) Music is effective at gaining a viewer's attention: A) but often interferes with the person's ability to retain the information in the ad. B) but interferes with brand and product recall. C) and increases the retention of information in the ad. D) and increasing the viewer's propensity to action. 117) Using a popular song in an advertisement: A) does not have as much of an effect as writing a new tune. B) transfers the emotional affinity for the song to the product. C) creates brand parity. D) interferes with brand recall ability. 118) Using songs from popular musicians is: A) popular because musicians seek greater exposure of their songs. B) popular because the affinity for the song often transfers to the product. C) not popular because the songs typically overwhelm the message. D) not popular because people remember the musician and the song, not the message. 119) Some musicians now see writing and singing songs for advertisements as a way to get their songs heard and eventually played by people, apart from the ad. The advantages of this method of writing songs for ads include all of the following except: A) it is easier to develop brand awareness, brand equity, and brand loyalty. B) marketers see an opportunity to tie a new, emerging song to a product. C) many consumers are interested in finding out who performs the music in various ads. D) the internet provides an opportunity to post the song for people to enjoy. 120) Which type of appeal closely follows the steps in the hierarchy of effects model? A) Sexual B) Emotional C) Rational D) Scarcity 121) Rational appeals: A) match the traditional steps of the hierarchy of effects model. B) often include some other type of appeal to gain attention. C) are focused on brand image rather than product benefits. D) are used more in consumer advertising than in business-to-business advertising. 122) Which are the best outlets for rational appeals? A) Broadcast media B) Television and direct mail C) Print media and the internet D) Non-traditional media 123) Rational appeals work best when: A) there is low involvement and the product is simple. B) there is high involvement, but no emotion. C) there is high involvement and the viewer is willing to pay attention to the ad. D) they are related more to the product than the amount of involvement. 124) Byron has an interest in purchasing a motorcycle and is now looking at different models and gathering information about each one. Which type of appeal would be the most effective in developing or changing Byron's attitude and in establishing specific brand beliefs? A) Sex B) Emotional C) Humor D) Rational 125) Although sexually-oriented advertisements attract attention, ________ is lower than for ads using a different type of appeal. A) the interest level B) the level of physiological response C) brand recall D) the level of sexual arousal 126) Emotional appeals are based on each of the following ideas except: A) humor and sex appeals are being overused and therefore not as effective as in the past. B) consumers ignore most advertisements. C) rational appeals go unnoticed unless the consumer is in the market for the particular product at the time it is advertised. D) emotional advertising can capture a person's attention and foster an attachment between the consumer and the brand. 127) All of the following statements are true about sexually-oriented ads except sexually-oriented ads: A) increase the level of brand recall. B) attract attention. C) are rated as more interesting. D) produce higher levels of physiological arousal responses. 128) Emotional appeals are popular because: A) they are better at getting a viewer's attention than humor or sexuality. B) rational appeals are often ignored. C) they emphasize product features. D) they often contain subliminal messages. 129) Most creatives view which advertising appeal as the key to developing brand loyalty? A) Rational B) Humorous C) Emotional D) Sex-oriented 130) The types of sexually-oriented ads that will produce the highest level of physiological responses are: A) nudity and overt sexuality. B) nudity and sexual suggestiveness. C) sensuality and sexual suggestiveness. D) nudity and partial nudity. 131) A description of how a search engine can help the website designer feel good about its website's ability to handle the e-commerce traffic is an example of an advertisement using which type of appeal? A) Rational B) Emotional C) Scarcity D) Fear 132) Emotional appeals: A) have been used more frequently in business-to-business ads in the past decade. B) are designed to evoke cognitive responses. C) primarily describe product attributes. D) are difficult to create on television. 133) Of the following media, the best for using an emotional appeal is: A) magazines. B) radio. C) television. D) newspapers. 134) Scarcity appeals: A) only work in children's advertising because adults are aware of the ploy. B) do not work for children because they cannot process the information. C) urge consumers to buy a product because of some kind of limitation. D) urge consumers to save money to buy the product later. 135) Of the following products, the product that best fits a scarcity appeal would be: A) televisions. B) black dress socks. C) deodorant. D) a musical compilation CD from various artists. 136) The primary benefit of using a scarcity appeal is that it: A) increases brand awareness. B) encourages consumer action. C) offers an excellent method of conveying product information. D) offers an excellent method of gaining attention. 137) Business-to-business ads have tended to use rational advertising appeals almost exclusively. In recent years, there has been a move to use more ________ appeals. A) sex B) emotional C) fear D) scarcity 138) The particular type of appeal that should be used in an advertisement should be based on a review of the creative brief, the objective of the advertisement, and the means-end chain to be conveyed. TRUE or FALSE 139) Using a fear appeal in an advertisement increases both the viewer's interest in the ad and the persuasiveness of the ad. TRUE or FALSE 140) Fear is an ineffective form of advertising appeal that has been largely abandoned. TRUE or FALSE 141) In a fear appeal, vulnerability is the degree of potential physical, social, or psychological harm that can occur. TRUE or FALSE 142) In a fear appeal, vulnerability is based on the likelihood or probability that a negative event will occur. TRUE or FALSE 143) Severity and vulnerability are key elements in rational advertisements. TRUE or FALSE 144) An advertisement designed to convince viewers that if they do not use a particular brand of deodorant, they will be social outcasts stresses the severity of a negative consequence in a fear appeal. TRUE or FALSE 145) An advertisement featuring a fear appeal that suggests a person will feel good about losing weight is an example of highlighting extrinsic rewards. TRUE or FALSE 146) When a viewer of an advertisement believes he or she can take action to prevent negative consequences by purchasing a product, the individual is exhibiting self-efficacy. TRUE or FALSE 147) Low levels of fear in an ad may not create feelings of severity or vulnerability. TRUE or FALSE 148) A fear level that is too high is impossible to create, because viewers have become immune to fear tactics in advertising. TRUE or FALSE 149) Humor is a rarely-used form of advertising appeal. TRUE or FALSE 150) Humor has proven to be one of the best appeals for cutting through advertising clutter. TRUE or FALSE 151) Humor causes consumers to watch, laugh, and, most important, respond with an immediate purchase. TRUE or FALSE 152) To be successful, humor used in ads should be connected directly to the product's benefits. TRUE or FALSE 153) When humor in an ad is remembered, the product or brand is almost always easily recalled. TRUE or FALSE 154) An advantage of using humor in ads is that it easily transfers to other countries and cultures. TRUE or FALSE 155) While some evidence exists that humor may be universal, other research indicates that particular executions of humor appeals may not be universal and that humor is often based in one's culture. TRUE or FALSE 156) Although using sex in advertising no longer sells the way it used to and no longer has the shock value it had in the past, advertising in the United States and other countries contains more visual sexual themes than ever before. TRUE or FALSE 157) Women tend to respond more favorably to the use of overt sexuality in advertisements than they do to the use of sensuality. TRUE or FALSE 158) Truly subliminal sexual messages are highly effective advertising techniques. TRUE or FALSE 159) Sexually suggestive ads tend to work well with personal products such as perfume or cologne. TRUE or FALSE 160) Ads that use nudity or partial nudity are almost always designed to elicit some type of sexual response in viewers. TRUE or FALSE 161) Nudity and partial nudity in advertisements are most effective when the product has some form of sexual connotation. TRUE or FALSE 162) A decorative model is a person who adorns a product as a sexual or attractive stimulus, but has nothing to do with the product. TRUE or FALSE 163) Using overt sexuality in ads for products that are sexually-oriented is normally accepted, but it often becomes controversial when used for other types of products. TRUE or FALSE 164) Sex appeals and nudity tend to increase attention to advertisements, but only for males. TRUE or FALSE 165) Sexually-oriented ads attract attention and brand recall is higher than for ads using some other type of appeal. TRUE or FALSE 166) Controversial sexual ads are interesting to viewers, but sometimes fail to transmit key information to viewers. TRUE or FALSE 167) Advertisements using overt sexual stimuli or containing nudity produce higher levels of physiological arousal responses in males, but not for females. TRUE or FALSE 168) The cognitive impressions made on viewers of a sexually-oriented ad depend on whether viewers feel the advertisement is pleasant or offensive. TRUE or FALSE 169) When determining the level of sex appeal to use in an advertisement, it is important to consider society's view and level of acceptance at the time the ad is to run. TRUE or FALSE 170) One major criticism of sexually-based advertising is that it perpetuates dissatisfaction with one's body. This is true for females, not males. TRUE or FALSE 171) While a musical appeal can be effective in gaining a viewer's attention, it often decreases the retention of information in the ad. TRUE or FALSE 172) When featuring music in advertisements, the most common method is to use a song that has already been written or a jingle that already exists. TRUE or FALSE 173) The primary benefit of using a well-known song in a musical appeal is that consumers have already developed an affinity for a song, which normally is then transferred to the product or brand. TRUE or FALSE 174) Brand awareness, brand equity, and brand loyalty are more difficult to develop when consumers are already familiar with the music used in an advertisement than when a new song, music, or jingle is written. TRUE or FALSE 175) New, emerging musical artists are now more receptive to the idea of using their songs in advertisements because they believe that using the songs will capture the kind of attention that will lead radio disc jockeys to play the song on the air. TRUE or FALSE 176) A rational appeal is closely tied to the stages of visual and verbal imagining, moving viewers from the cognitive to the conative component of attitude. TRUE or FALSE 177) Rational appeals are most effective when consumers have low levels of involvement, but are willing to pay attention to the ad. TRUE or FALSE 178) Print media and television offer the best outlets for rational appeals. TRUE or FALSE 179) Rational appeals are superior to other appeals in developing and changing attitudes and establishing brand beliefs when a consumer has a high level of interest in a product or brand. TRUE or FALSE 180) Rational appeals are designed to capture a viewer's attention and foster an attachment between the consumer and the brand. TRUE or FALSE 181) Many creatives view emotional advertising as the key to developing brand loyalty. TRUE or FALSE 182) Emotional appeals are not useful for business-to-business advertisements because they do not incorporate cognitive elements. TRUE or FALSE 183) The underlying principle for using more emotional appeals in business-to-business advertising is that emotions can be a part of every type of decision, even in the business-tobusiness environment. TRUE or FALSE 184) Scarcity appeals are designed to build brand awareness and lead to positive attitudes toward the brand. TRUE or FALSE 185) What approaches to sexuality are used in advertising? TRUE or FALSE 186) What are the various types of appeals that can be used in advertising and what is the primary benefit of each type? 187) Discuss the concepts of severity, vulnerability and response efficacy in the behavioral response model. 188) Describe the sequence that occurs when a humorous ad is successful. 189) What are the major criticisms of sexuality in advertising? 190) What roles can music play in advertisements? 191) What is a scarcity ad? How is scarcity created? 192) The manner in which an advertising appeal is presented and a message strategy is conveyed is the: A) source methodology. B) rational approach. C) conative message strategy. D) executional framework. 193) Each of the following is a type of executional framework except: A) fantasy. B) informative. C) animation. D) hyperbole. 194) Pillsbury's cartoon character, the dough boy, is an example of which type of executional framework? A) Animation B) Dramatization C) Testimonial D) Fantasy 195) In recent years, the use of animation in advertising has: A) increased. B) decreased. C) stayed the same. D) increased in the consumer market, but declined in the business-to-business sector. 196) The process of digitally painting or sketching figures into live television sequences is called: A) digitalizing. B) rotoscoping. C) clay animation. D) a fantasy execution. 197) Rotoscoping is used in a(n): A) animation. B) dramatization. C) testimonial. D) authoritative. 198) When a product solves an everyday life problem, the executional framework being used in the ad is most likely: A) slice-of-life. B) authoritative. C) fantasy. D) informative. 199) The first component of a slice-of-life execution is the: A) interaction. B) problem. C) encounter. D) solution. 200) The component of a slice-of-life execution that follows the encounter is the: A) interaction. B) problem. C) information presentation. D) solution. 201) The last component of a slice-of-life execution is the: A) interaction. B) problem. C) encounter. D) solution. 202) In a television advertisement, Chris is about ready to lose a girlfriend because he did not purchase the right jewelry. A voice-over offers a solution, the jewelry is purchased at the advertised store and the girlfriend is now happy. This is which type of executional framework? A) Slice-of-life B) Testimonial C) Fantasy D) Informative 203) A business-to-business ad featuring a routine business experience, a problem, an interaction, and then a company's product that provides a solution is which form of executional framework? A) Slice-of-life B) Dramatization C) Testimonial D) Expert authority 204) Which type of executional framework features someone expressing a positive experience with a company or product? A) Slice-of-life B) Dramatization C) Testimonial D) Fantasy 205) In an advertisement for the Weight Center, Casey talks about the weight she lost and how good the employees were to her. This is an example which type of executional framework? A) Dramatization B) Testimonial C) Authoritative D) Informative 206) The key to a testimonial execution is: A) likeability. B) negative likeability. C) credibility. D) visual consistency. 207) The testimonial execution is effective, especially with services, because it simulates: A) a fantasy. B) negative likeability. C) a word-of-mouth recommendation. D) visual Esperanto. 208) Which type of executional framework seeks to convince buyers that a given product is superior through employing some type of expert or evidence? A) Dramatization B) Ideological C) Authoritative D) Fantasy 209) Expert authorities would most likely be used in which type of executional framework? A) Testimonial B) Slice-of-life C) Informative D) Authoritative 210) Authoritative executions suggest buyers will be influenced by: A) testimonies from customers. B) action-inducing offers. C) rational thought. D) emotions. 211) An endorsement by Consumer Reports would typically be used in which type of executional framework? A) Slice-of-life B) Informative C) Authoritative D) Fantasy 212) Authoritative executions are the most widely used in which sector? A) Business-to-business B) Consumer C) Services D) Governmental 213) An authoritative execution assumes that consumer and business decision makers rely on which of the following when making purchase decisions? A) Cognitive processes B) Affective feelings C) Impulse behaviors D) Authoritative sources of information 214) Showing how a product works is found in which type of executional framework? A) Slice-of-life B) Testimonial C) Demonstration D) Fantasy 215) Showing how Windex makes a dirty window sparkle would be which type of executional framework? A) Dramatization B) Testimonial C) Demonstration D) Illustrative 216) Showing someone enjoying an exotic experience—such as a beach in Florida—would be which type of executional framework? A) Testimonial B) Dramatization C) Slice-of-life D) Fantasy 217) The fantasy executional framework relies on: A) raw sex and nudity. B) comparisons of product features. C) suggestiveness. D) cognitive thought processes. 218) A dessert that is promoted as being "sinfully delicious" with a person sitting on a sandy beach is using the which type of execution? A) Resonance B) Slice-of-life C) Fantasy D) Hyperbole 219) Presenting product facts in a straightforward manner is which type of executional framework? A) Testimonial B) Dramatization C) Slice-of-life D) Informative 220) Ads using an informative executional framework are best suited for: A) conative message strategies. B) high involvement purchase decisions. C) slice-of-life executions. D) brand image message strategies. 221) One of the major keys to successfully using the informative execution is: A) using customers in the ad. B) placement of the ad. C) the selection of the right media. D) the type of appeal that is used. 222) The authoritative execution works well in: A) print ads and on websites. B) broadcast ads. C) television. D) billboards. 223) Of the following executional frameworks, which is least likely to be used in business-tobusiness ads? A) Authoritative B) Informative C) Fantasy D) Testimonials 224) An executional framework is the manner in which an advertising appeal is presented. TRUE or FALSE 225) Rotoscoping is a new, high-tech form of fantasy execution. TRUE or FALSE 226) Animation has become increasingly popular and is now used in business-to-business ads in addition to consumer ads. TRUE or FALSE 227) The typical format for an animation ad is encounter, problem, interaction, and then solution. TRUE or FALSE 228) While the slice-of-life execution is ideal for television, it also can be used in print advertisements. TRUE or FALSE 229) The slice-of-life execution is seldom used for business-to-business advertisements. TRUE or FALSE 230) Testimonial executions have been successful for many years, especially in the business-tobusiness and service sectors. TRUE or FALSE 231) One major reason companies choose testimonial executions is that they offer a greater level of credibility, when the testimonies are made by actual customers. TRUE or FALSE 232) Consumers rely on word-of-mouth communications when choosing services, which makes the authoritative executional framework work well. TRUE or FALSE 233) A physician, dentist, engineer, or chemist endorsing a particular brand's advantages would typically be found in a slice-of-life execution. TRUE or FALSE 234) Many authoritative executions include some type of scientific or survey support. TRUE or FALSE 235) The authoritative execution assumes consumers and business decision-makers rely on affective processes when making purchase decisions. TRUE or FALSE 236) The authoritative execution works especially well in specialty magazines and trade journals. TRUE or FALSE 237) Demonstration ads are well suited to print ads because the actual product features can be clearly shown. TRUE or FALSE 238) Perfumes and colognes often rely on a demonstration form of executional framework, because they are easy to show in a positive light. TRUE or FALSE 239) The most common themes for fantasy executions are sex, love, and romance. TRUE or FALSE 240) An informative execution typically presents information to the audience in a straightforward manner. TRUE or FALSE 241) Informative executions work best for low-involvement products. TRUE or FALSE 242) Name the executional frameworks advertisers can utilize. 243) Describe the steps in a slice-of-life executional framework. 244) Name the ways to present claims in authoritative executions. 245) A celebrity endorser is used in advertisements because his or her stamp of approval offers all of the following advantages except: A) enhances the product's brand equity. B) enhances consumers' emotional bonds with the product. C) aids in the establishment of a "personality" for a brand. D) improves recall of brand benefits. 246) Of the following types of celebrity endorsements, the one that would have the greatest level of credibility would be: A) a celebrity endorsing a brand in a television show. B) a celebrity voice-over in a radio ad. C) an unpaid celebrity speaking on behalf of some charity or nonprofit organization. D) a dead-person endorsement of a particular brand. 247) Rachel is an actress who plays the part of a housewife in a commercial for a new brand of furniture polish. For this type of ad, Rachel would be considered which type of endorser? A) Celebrity B) CEO C) Expert D) Typical person 248) Dr. Locke has been paid to appear in an advertisement to endorse a new brand of antiinflammatory cream for muscle aches. For this type of ad, Dr. Locke is which type of endorser? A) Celebrity B) CEO C) Expert D) Typical person 249) Mr. Booth owns the local Ford dealership and recently filmed an advertisement where he talks about the deals consumers can obtain at his dealership. For this type of ad, Mr. Booth is which type of endorser? A) Celebrity B) CEO C) Expert D) Typical person 250) Which type of spokesperson is most likely to have all the source characteristics? A) A celebrity B) A typical person C) An expert D) A CEO 251) In terms of source characteristics, attractiveness consists of: A) physical characteristics of the spokesperson. B) intelligence of the spokesperson. C) both physical and personality characteristics of the spokesperson. D) the expertise and likeability of the spokesperson. 252) Identification is the ability of the audience to identify with the spokesperson in an ad and is derived from: A) expertise. B) attractiveness. C) likeability. D) similarity. 253) Britney really liked the advertisement by Saturn that featured an elementary school teacher, primarily because Britney is also an elementary school teacher. This identification with the spokesperson by Britney is an example of the concept of: A) attractiveness. B) similarity. C) likeability. D) trustworthiness. 254) When an accountant serves as a spokesperson in an advertisement for an accounting service, viewers who are also accountants find the ad to be more credible based on: A) attractiveness. B) similarity. C) likeability. D) persuasiveness. 255) An ad that is targeted toward stay-at-home moms, which begins with this phrase, "Since I stopped working, I have more time for my kids," emphasizes: A) likeability. B) similarity. C) consistency. D) continuity. 256) Wishing to think and act rich like the spokesperson in an advertisement, is a form of: A) empathy. B) intent to purchase. C) identification. D) attractiveness. 257) Giving to a charity because the spokesperson in the ad is a Republican, and the viewer is also a Republican, is based on: A) likeability. B) identification. C) consistency. D) empathy. 258) In terms of spokesperson characteristics, which is the degree of confidence or the level of acceptance consumers place in the spokesperson's message? A) Trustworthiness B) Expertise C) Credibility D) Likeability 259) A physician endorsing a specific brand of medicine would likely exhibit a high level of: A) attractiveness. B) likeability. C) expertise. D) personality. 260) One danger in using celebrities as spokespersons is that their endorsement of too many products tarnishes: A) credibility. B) likeability. C) expertise. D) attractiveness. 261) One danger of using a CEO or other prominent official of a corporation is that the person may not possess the source characteristics of: A) trustworthiness and expertise. B) attractiveness and likeability. C) credibility and expertise. D) likeability and trustworthiness. 262) Using typical persons and CEOs as spokespeople in ads are difficult because they: A) are often perceived as not being credible. B) do not have a high level of expertise. C) are not professional actors so they are more difficult to work with. D) are not physically attractive. 263) A business-to-business advertisement for Service Metrics about internet security shows a man blindfolded about to step into a manhole. The manhole illustrates the ________ component of the behavioral response model. A) severity B) vulnerability C) response cost D) negative consequence 264) Celebrity endorsers are used for ads because their stamp of approval on a product can enhance the product's brand equity and create emotional bonds between the consumers and the brand being endorsed. TRUE or FALSE 265) In terms of endorsers, celebrities and CEOs are not typically viewed as expert sources for product endorsements. TRUE or FALSE 266) Paid actors or models can be used in an advertisement to portray ordinary, everyday people. TRUE or FALSE 267) One reason companies are using more typical persons as endorsers is the overuse of celebrities in ads. TRUE or FALSE 268) A spokesperson's credibility is derived from the composite of attractiveness, likeability, trustworthiness, and intelligence. TRUE or FALSE 269) One reason for using typical persons as product endorsers is that they are more likely to possess at least some quantity of all of the source characteristics. TRUE or FALSE 270) In terms of source characteristics, attractiveness has two components: physical attractiveness and social attractiveness. TRUE or FALSE 271) Ads work better if the audience can identify with the spokesperson in the ad. TRUE or FALSE 272) As a source characteristic, similarity is the degree of confidence or the level of acceptance consumers place in a spokesperson's message. TRUE or FALSE 273) As a source characteristic, expertise can be valuable in persuasive advertisements designed to change the audience's opinions or attitudes. TRUE or FALSE 274) The potential for negative publicity caused by inappropriate actions of celebrities has led some advertisers to use deceased celebrities. TRUE or FALSE 275) In terms of source characteristics, CEOs score low on credibility. TRUE or FALSE 276) Typical person sources tend not to have high levels of credibility. TRUE or FALSE 277) Typical person spokespeople do not have the name recognition of celebrities, and as a result, advertisers often use multiple sources within one advertisement to build credibility. TRUE or FALSE 278) Celebrities normally score well in terms of similarity, believability, and likeability. TRUE or FALSE