Hippology Practice Test Part 1

Eastern National Hippology Contest Written Test Exam I Carefully read each of the following questions, and enter the correct answer on your scantron sheet. Do not mark on this page. Make sure you are using the space for Exam I for this set of questions. Please completely fill in the space of your preferred answer. The management committee will not hand score questions that the scantron cannot read. Good luck on the exam. 1. Which of these identifies the Phylum to which the horse belongs? A. Animalia B. Chordata C. Equidae D. Perissodactyla 2. Which color is not recognized as a color of a registered Arabian horse? A. bay B. brown C. chestnut D. white 3. Which of these describes the paso, the natural gait of both the Paso Fino and the Peruvian Paso? A. two-beat lateral gait B. two-beat diagonal gait C. four-beat lateral gait D. four-beat diagonal gait 4. Which of these terms refers to a horse that is black with white spots? A. overo B. piebald C. skewbald D. tobiano 5. Which of these matings would be most likely to result in a palomino foal? A. palomino by palomino B. chestnut by palomino C. palomino by cremello D. chestnut by cremello 6. Which breed requires that a horse be reasonably shown to be authentic and be inspected prior to being registered? A. Spanish-Barb B. Spanish Mustang C. American Indian Horse D. American Bashkir Curly Page 1 of 21 7. Which of these identifies the maximum height of a miniature horse? A. 32 inches B. 38 inches C. 44 inches D. 56 inches 8. Which of these breeds did not originate in Germany? A. Gotland B. Hanoverian C. Holstein D. Trakehner 9. Which of these best describes a difference between a horse and an ass? A. A horse has longer ears. B. A horse has smaller hooves. C. A horse has a sparser mane and tail. D. A horse has a shorter gestation period. 10. What does the term PCV refer to in regards to blood? A. Plasma coagulant variable B. Packed cell value C. Plasma cell value D. Porfuria cell variable 11. What amino acid is necessary for growth and milk production? A. Methionine B. Argininine C. Lysine D. Tryptophan 12. Which of these systems is responsible for the chemical control of the body? A. endocrine B. integumentary C. muscular D. reproductive 13. Which of these connects bones to other bones? A. ligaments B. limbs C. muscles D. tendons 14. How many teeth does a mature female horse have? A. 24 B. 30 C. 36 D. 42 Page 2 of 21 15. Which of these regions of the spinal column has the fewest vertebrae? A. cervical B. coccygeal C. sacral D. thoracic 16. Which of these terms is also known as an offset knee? A. bench-kneed B. buck-kneed C. calf-kneed D. splint-kneed 17. Which of these best describes a blemish? A. acquired and affects usefulness B. acquired and does not affect usefulness C. congenital and affects usefulness D. congenital and does not affect usefulness 18. Which of these identifies a voluntary type of muscle? A. cardiac B. respiratory C. skeletal D. smooth 19. Plants contain a pigment called carotene. Which of these vitamins is created by the horse using carotene? A. vitamin A B. vitamin D C. vitamin E D. vitamin K 20. Which of these refers to an infection of the frog? A. corns B. founder C. gravel D. thrush Which of these describes atrophy of the muscles of the shoulder? A. carpitis B. epiphysitis C. sweeney D. thoroughpins 21. 22. Which of these terms refers to throwing the front feet outward while in flight? A. paddling B. pounding C. winding D. winging Page 3 of 21 23. Which of these vices is described as a habit of force-swallowing gulps of air? A. bolting B. cribbing C. shying D. weaving 24. Which part of the digestive tract has the largest capacity? A. colon B. esophagus C. small intestine D. stomach 25. Which of these would cause an increase in the water needs of a horse? A. a decrease in the activity of a horse B. a decrease in the total dry matter intake C. an increase in the environmental temperature D. an increase in the amount of fresh young grass 26. Which of these types of hay is classified as a legume? A. bluestem B. clover C. fescue D. timothy 27. What is the term for providing an area where a foal can eat without interference from the mare? A. gestation B. lactation C. creep feeding D. bottle feeding 28. What body condition score would most likely be given to a horse that is moderate to fleshy? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 29. Which of these is a condition in which the lungs do not function efficiently? A. colic B. founder C. heaves D. thrush 30. Which of these is not a part of the mare‟s reproductive tract? A. cervix B. scrotum C. uterus Page 4 of 21 D. vagina 31. Which of these is the length of a typical mare‟s estrous cycle? A. 12 to 15 days B. 21 to 23 days C. 335 to 340 days D. 350 to 354 days 32. Which of these terms refers to a mare that has never been bred? A. barren B. lactating C. maiden D. open 33. Which of these happens at the end of the first stage of parturition? A. the cervix dilates B. the foal is expelled C. the first water bag breaks D. the mare walks the stall anxiously 34. How many pairs of chromosomes does a pony have? A. 31 B. 32 C. 62 D. 64 35. In which walk gait would you expect the horse to have the lowest head carriage? A. Working walk B. Collected walk C. Extended walk D. Free walk 36. Which is a macromineral? A. Zinc B. Selenium C. Calcium D. Magnesium 37. Which Vitamin is most likely to be toxic when overfed? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin E C. Vitamin B D. Vitamin C Page 5 of 21 38. Which hay would be expected to have the highest protein content? A. Bermuda grass B. Oat hay C. Alfalfa D. Reed canary grass 39. Which hay should be avoided when feeding pregnant mares? A. Lespedeza B. Bluegrass C. Rye grass D. Fescue 40. What disease is caused by the bacteria Clostridium perfringes? A. Equine Infectious Anemia B. West Nile C. Enterotoxemia D. Tetanus 41. What term describes the site on the ovary where ovulation occurs? A. Ovulation spot B. Ovulation divet C. Ovulation fora D. Ovulation fossa 42. Which is the longest stage in the estrous cycle? A. Metestrus B. Proestrus C. Estrus D. Diestrus 43. What is the term used when a mare does not show behavioral estrus? A. Silent heat B. Anestrus C. Night heat D. Occult heat 44. Which of the following criteria for semen evaluation evaluates the shape of the sperm cells? A. Concentration B. Motility C. Morphology D. Volume 45. Which describes the Flehmen reflex? A. Upward extension of the neck and curling of the lip B. Arching of the neck and snorting C. Flicking of the tail and kicking out D. Arching of the neck and striking Page 6 of 21 46. When is the optimal time to breed a mare? A. 2 days before ovulation B. 6-12 hours before ovulation C. 6-12 hours after ovulation D. 2 days after ovulation 47. What term describes the failure of a mare to produce milk? A. Alopecia B. Adjuvant C. Agalactia D. Aiken 48. Mare colostrum provides what, that is essential for survival? A. Antibiotics B. Antibodies C. Vaccines D. Antigens 49. Which of the following breeding strategies creates the greatest increase in homozygosity? A. Random selection B. Inbreeding C. Linebreeding D. Crossbreeding 50. Which genotype would result in an animal that got progressively lighter as it aged? A. GG B. gg C. Rnrn D. RnRn 51. Which genotype is lethal, and results in death of the embryo? A. GG B. gg C. Rnrn D. RnRn 52. What type of horse is most likely to be affected by Lethal White Syndrome? A. Pinto B. Paint C. Tobiano D. Overo Page 7 of 21 53. Which genetic disease is also known as equine spinal ataxia? A. EPM B. Aniridia C. Wobbles D. Atresia coli 54. What percentage of the genes of it‟s grandsire would a foal carry? A. 50% B. 25% C. 12.5% D. None of the above 55. Which is a calculation of how highly related horses are? A. Additive affect B. Linebreeding estimate C. Estimated breeding value D. Inbreeding coefficient 56. Which disease is detected using the Coggins test? A. Tetanus B. Encephalitis C. Equine infectious anemia D. Equine protozoal myelitis 57. Which disease is caused by a bacteria found in the feces of horses, and can affect both horses and humans? A. Tetanus B. Rabies C. Swamp fever D. Encephalitis 58. What is the common name for laryngeal hemiplegia? A. Coughing B. Snorting C. Blowing D. Roaring 59. What condition results in a tightening of the muscles that makes it extremely difficult for the horse to move? A. Choke B. Spasmodic atrophy C. Tying up D. Potomac Horse Fever Page 8 of 21 60. Which of the following may cause diarrhea? A. Lush pasture B. Sudden change in feed C. Salmonella D. All of the above 61. Which disease is caused by Streptococcus equi? A. Tetanus B. Anthrax C. Strangles D. Influenza 62. For which disease do we vaccinate mares several times during pregnancy? A. Influenza B. Viral arteritis C. Pneumonia D. Rhinopneumonitis 63. What is an ectoparasite? A. A parasite that lives in the body B. A parasite that lives outside the body C. Parasites that cause damage D. Parasites that are transmissible to humans 64. Which is a bot? A. Trichostrongylus B. Gasterophilus C. Cylicocerus D. Ecdysus 65. What organ is preferred by the adult Strongylus species? A. Stomach B. Lungs C. Small intestine D. Large intestine 66. Which term is used to describe a medication used to eliminate parasites? A. Vaccine B. Anthelmintic C. Antibody D. Antibiotic 67. Which parasite might cause tail rubbing? A. Ascarids B. Strongyles C. Pinworms D. Bots Page 9 of 21 68. A stimuli that can naturally elicit a response, with no prior training, is: A. Unconditioned stimuli B. Conditioned stimuli C. Natural stimuli D. Learned stimuli 69. Most cues that are used in training horses are: A. Unconditioned stimuli B. Conditioned stimuli C. Natural stimuli D. Learned stimuli 70. Which of the following is a primary reinforcer of behavior? A. Pat on the neck B. Kind words „good boy‟ C. Feed D. Spur 71. Which is a natural aid when training? A. Bit B. Spur C. Whip D. Voice 72. What is the result of using non-contingent punishment in horse training? A. Cessation of undesired behavior B. Maximizing athletic potential C. Creating general fear D. None of the above 73. At what stage of training would intermittent reinforcement be used? A. Teaching something new B. When overcoming a fear C. When eliminating a learned behavior D. When maintaining a learned behavior 74. Reinforcing increments of a behavior as it moves toward the goal is known as: A. Successive approximation B. Positive reinforcement C. Incremental reinforcement D. „tuning up‟ a horse 75. Which signals would you expect in the dominant horse in a herd? A. Lowered head and gumming B. Tail between legs C. Ears pinned back D. Rounded shoulders Page 10 of 21 76. The navicular bone is also known as: A. Pedal bone B. Coffin bone C. Proximal sesamoid D. Distal sesamoid 77. The tibia and fibula combine to form what external part? A. Stifle B. Forearm C. Gaskin D. Hip 78. Laminitis primarily affects what bone? A. 1st phalanx B. 2nd phalanx C. 3rd phalanx D. 4th phalanx 79. Which term most correctly describes the bone of the elbow? A. Radius B. Ulna C. Tarsus D. Olecranon Page 11 of 21 80. How many bones are in the carpal joint? A. 7-8 B. 5-6 C. 3-4 D. 1-2 81. The cannon bone is also be known as: A. 1st metacarpal B. 2nd metacarpal C. 3rd metacarpal D. 4th metacarpal 82. Which tendon runs over the distal sesamoid? A. Deep flexor tendon B. Extensor tendon C. Superficial sesamoidean tendon D. Superficial flexor tendon 83. Which is an example of enarthrosis? A. Elbow joint B. Hock joint C. Atlas-atlanto joint D. Hip joint 84. 85. 86. 87. Muscles that work together to provide movement are: A. Synergistic B. Antagonistic C. Agonistic D. Sympathetic What is the largest nerve in the horse‟s body. A. Tibial nerve B. Lumbosacral nerve C. Dorsal nerve D. Sciatic nerve What tool is used to remove dead sole from the hoof? A. Hoof pick B. Hoof knife C. Nippers D. Shears What heavy metal tool is used as a foundation for shaping shoes? A. Anvil B. Bellows C. Rasp D. Clinchers Page 12 of 21 88. What is the purpose of heel and toe clips on shoes? A. Add weight B. Hold the shoe in place C. Increase traction D. Correction of leg faults 89. For what unsoundness might the heart-bar shoe be used therapeutically? A. Laminitis B. Navicular disease C. Quarter crack D. Seedy toe 90. What is the minimum recommended depth for a run-in shed? A. 20 feet B. 30 feet C. 40 feet D. 50 feet 91. Which does not provide natural ventilation? A. Window B. Soffett C. Fan D. Ridge vent Why should hay be stored in a separate building from horses? A. Fire risk B. Decreases ventilation C. Increases dust in barn D. All of the above 92. 93. What does „get‟ refer to, in the context of horses? A. Offspring of sire B. Offspring of dam C. Total foals in a given year D. Total foals with the same sire and dam 94. Which is an example of a rider using lateral aids? A. Right hand, left leg B. Right hand, right leg C. Left hand, left leg D. Left and right hand, left leg Page 13 of 21 95. Which term describes inflammation of the ear? A. Otitis B. Auritis C. Gingivitis D. Laminitis 96. What term is used to describe a horse with a convex profile? A. Dished face B. Jibbah C. Roman nosed D. Hammerhead 97. Which part of the eye transmits an image to the optic nerve and lines the back surface of the eye‟s interior? A. cornea B. iris C. lens D. retina 98. Which part of the horse is located closest to the back? A. croup B. loin C. pastern D. stifle 99. Which organ is referred to with the use of the term renal? A. brain B. heart C. kidney D. lung 100. Which of these is the minimum age of a horse to be included in the Older Horse Registry? A. 10 years B. 15 years C. 20 years D. 25 years THE END. Congratulations on finishing Exam I move on to Exam II. Please change to the Exam II portion of the scantron. Page 14 of 21 2007 National Hippology Contest Written Test Exam II Carefully read each of the following questions, and enter the correct answer on your scantron sheet. Do not mark on this test. Make sure you are using the space for Exam II for this set of questions. Please completely fill in the space of your preferred answer. The management committee will not hand score questions that the scantron cannot read. Good luck on the exam. 1. Which of these is produced by mating a mare with a jack? A. a donkey B. a jack C. a mule D. a zebra 2. Which of these results in a bony enlargement at the place where the base of the hock tapers into the cannon bone? A. blind spavin B. blood spavin C. bog spavin D. bone spavin 3. Which of these fills the cavities of bones? A. bile B. blood C. marrow D. melanin 4. Which of these is the NCHA dedicated to? A. chasing horses B. cutting horses C. camping and horses D. cattle and horses 5. Which digit does the modern horse walk on? A. first B. second C. third D. fourth 6. Which of these is not a part of the manus? A. carpus B. hoof C. pastern D. tarsus Which of these is referred to as the near side of the horse? A. the back of the horse B. the front of the horse C. the left side of the horse 7. Page 15 of 21 D. the right side of the horse 8. Which of these describes the term proximal? A. toward the attached end of a limb B. away from the attached end of a limb C. toward the front end of the animal D. away from the front end of the animal 9. Which of these is parallel to the median plane? A. dorsal plane B. lateral plane C. sagittal plane D. transverse plane 10. Which of these is a bone-producing membrane covering the bone? A. cartilage B. endosteum C. marrow D. periosteum 11. Which of these is the body‟s largest organ? A. brain B. heart C. lung D. skin 12. Which of these shows the correct order of the first three stages of the hair cycle? A. anagen, catagen, telogen B. catagen, telogen, anagen C. catagen, anagen, telogen D. telogen, anagen, catogen 13. How many bones are in the skull? A. 20 B. 34 C. 114 D. 205 14 Which type of bone are vertebrae? A. flat B. irregular C. long D. short 15. Which type of joint is immovable? A. cartilaginous B. ellipsoid C. fibrous Page 16 of 21 D. synovial 16. Which of these muscles is closest to the poll? A. brachiocephalic B. deltoid C. semitendinous D. subclavian 17. Which of these describes a movement toward the median plane? A. abduction B. adduction C. extension D. rotation 18. Which of these describes a difference between veins and arteries? A. Veins contain less blood than arteries. B. Veins have thinner walls than arteries. C. Arteries usually have valves, while veins do not. D. Arteries direct blood toward the heart, while veins do not. 19. Which bone is not a part of the thigh and leg? A. femur B. patella C. scapula D. tibia 20. Which of these describes the conformation of a horse with a plaiting gait? A. base-wide and toe-in B. base-wide and toe-out C. base-narrow and toe-in D. base-narrow and toe-out 21. Which of these defects would most likely lead to curb? A. cow-hocked B. sickle hocks C. too straight behind D. short upright pasterns 22. Which of these is not classified as an equid? A. cattle B. donkeys C. horses D. zebras 23. Which of these is usually extracted as it may interfere with the bit? A. a canine tooth B. a deciduous tooth C. a premolar tooth Page 17 of 21 D. a wolf tooth 24. Which of these is a chamber common to both the digestive and respiratory tracts? A. heart B. lung C. pharynx D. stomach 25. What is the average length of the small intestine? A. 25 feet B. 45 feet C. 60 feet D. 70 feet 26. The shape and slope of the land is also known as: A. Zoning B. Topography C. Geography D. Morphology 27. What is the most important step in developing a facilities plan? A. Setting the budget B. Determining zoning regulations C. Getting a loan D. Establishing the goals of the operation 28. What is the minimum recommended height for horse fence? A. 5 feet B. 4 feet C. 6 feet D. 8 feet 29. Which type of fence is least desirable for horse fence? A. Board fence B. PVC fence C. Barbed wire fence D. Twisted wire fence 30. Which fence might contribute to colic in horses? A. Pipe and cable B. Chain link C. Board D. Rubber What percent slope is needed to maximize drainage away from a run-in shed? A. 1% B. 2% C. 10% 31. Page 18 of 21 D. 12% 32. Which disease most recently became an issue in the horse industry? A. Equine Infectious Anemia B. Eastern Equine Encephalitis C. Western Equine Encephalitis D. West Nile Virus 33. Which disease is caused by a protozoa? A. EPM B. EIA C. EEE D. WEE 34. What term best describes the horse‟s digestive system? A. Non ruminant B. Ruminant C. Non-ruminant herbivore D. Ruminant herbivore 35. What is the advantage to the horse of splenic dumping when exercising? A. Increases energy to muscles B. Increases red blood cells to carry oxygen C. Increases respiration rate D. Increases speed of muscle contraction 36. Which of these types of wood should not be used as bedding for horses? A. Oak B. Pine C. Red Maple D. Black Walnut 37. Which of these identifies a plant that causes anemia due to red blood cell destruction? A. Asters B. Onions C. Sweet Clover D. Johnson Grass 38. Which of these is not a type of horseshoe nail head? A. City B. Frosthead C. Medium D. Regular 39. Which of these identified a general management guideline that should be followed? A. Feed only when the horses seem hungry. Page 19 of 21 B. Feed by volume rather than weight of feed. C. Make changes to the horse's diet all at once. D. Make sure water is available except when the horse is hot. 40. What muscle fibers are also known as „slow twitch‟ fibers? A. Type I B. Type IIA C. Type IIB D. Type III 41. What type of cells secretes progesterone? A. Ovarian B. Luteal C. Uterine D. Kidney 42. The primary environmental cue regulating hair growth, and reproductive seasonality is: A. Humidity B. Temperature C. Barometric pressure D. Light 43. What hormone is used to „short cycle‟ a mare? A. Progesterone B. Estrogen C. Luteinizing hormone D. Prostaglandin 44. What breed is most likely to be affected by Hyperkalemic Periodic Paralysis? A. Quarter Horse B. Arabian C. Thoroughbred D. Shetland 45. How often does a horse operation need to show a profit to meet the IRS “presumption of an activity as a business”? A. Every year B. 1 of 5 C. 2 of 7 D. 3 of 7 46. Which stage of life has the highest energy need? A. Mature maintenance B. First half of pregnancy C. Second half of pregnancy D. Early lactation Page 20 of 21 47. What would you do to diagnose failure of passive transfer in a foal? A. Test colostrums B. Test foal‟s titer C. Test for immunoglobulin G D. Test for immunoglobulin M 48. Where does a horse have binocular vision? A. Directly in front B. To the left side C. To the right side D. Directly behind 49. Which is not a form of negative reinforcement? A. Punishment B. Flooding C. Escape D. Avoidance 50. What is the large muscle in the jaw that raises the jaw for chewing? A. Mandible B. Maxilla C. Manattah D. Massetter THE END. Congratulations on completing Exam II. You have completed the exam phase of the Eastern National HIppology test. Page 21 of 21