Health Assessment Practice Questions Final Examination

Health Assessment Practice Questions Final Examination Print Name: __________________________________ Today’s Date: ___________ Seat Number: ______ Multiple Choice: Please follow instructions. 1. A client with diabetes has A1C (glycosylated hemoglobin of 8%. Based on the test result, the nurse plans to teach the client about the need for which measure (p.241)? A) Avoiding infection. B) Taking adequate fluids. C) Preventing and recognizing hypoglycemia. D) Preventing and recognizing hyperglycemia. 2. The nurse is evaluating a new graduate’s ability to perform a rebound tenderness test. The nurse identifies correct technique when the new graduate is observed pressing deeply at which abdominal location (p.517)? A) Right upper quadrant B) Left upper quadrant C) Right lower quadrant D) Left lower quadrant 3. The client’s bladder is found to be distended. At which location should the nurse begin palpating (p.516)? A) At the umbilicus B) At the symphysis pubis C) In the right lower quadrant D) In the left lower quadrant 4. To assess for tactile discrimination, the client closes the eyes, the nurse places a familiar object such a quarter, paper clip or key in the client’s and ask the client to identify. This test is called (p.591) – A) Two-point discrimination B) Babinski reflex C) Tandem test D) Stereognosis 5. The nurse asks the client to walk in heel-to-toe fashion; next on the heels, then on the toes. This tandem walk is designed to (p. 587) – A) Test coordination B) Test balance C. Test pain D. Test light touch 1 1/18 6. Which urinary symptom may be associated with age in women (p.642)? A) Dysuria B) Muscles flaccidity C) Muscle spasticity D) Less urethral elasticity 7. The stage where some women may have mixed feelings about experiencing loss of child-bearing capabilities while others may welcome this new phase of life (p.641). A) Pregnancy B) Menarche C) Childbirth D) Menopause 8. The following structures are parts of the internal genitalia for women except (p.638) – A) Uterus B) Fimbria C) Labium majus D) Cervix 9. This congenital disorder is characterized by a small dimple or cyst that contains hair (p.634) – A) Rectal polyp B) Pilonidal cyst C) Rectal shelf D) Rectal cancer 10. The inflammation of the testes associated frequently with mumps where the scrotum appears enlarged and reddened is found in (p.631) – A) Varicocele B) Orchitis C) Hydrocele D) Hernia 11. If the client is not circumcised, a tight foreskin that cannot be retracted is called (p.619) – A) Hydrocele B) Hypospadias C) Chancres D) Phimosis 12. The best position when performing anorectal examination in men are the following. Select all that apply (p.617). A) Lithotomy B) Standing C) Left lateral D) Prone E) Supine 13. Dysphagia or hoarseness may indicate a lesion of which cranial nerve (p.585)? A) CN – IX B) CN – V C) CN – VII D) CN – XII 2 2/18 14. During vaginal examination, copious amount of mucopurulent yellowish discharge from the client’s external os are noted. The nurse knows this type of discharge is often associated with infection caused by (p.667) – A) Candida vaginitis (Moniliasis) B) Trichomonas vaginitis C) Bacterial vaginitis D) Mucopurulent cervicitis (Gonorrhea) 15. Before using the speculum, choose the instrument that is correct size for the client. There are two basic types that are recommended. For clients who are virgins and postmenopausal who have narrow vaginal orifice the appropriate speculum to use is (p.659) – A) Graves speculum B) Pederson speculum C) Strictly metal speculum D) Strictly plastic speculum 16. When inspecting the perianal area of a female client, the anal opening should appear hairless, moist, and tightly closed. The skin around the anal opening is coarser and more darkly pigmented. The surrounding perianal area should be free of (Select all that apply, p.656): A) Redness B) Lumps C) Ulcers D) Lesions E) Fissures F) Sutures 17. When educating sexually active women regarding prevention of STIs, all the following is appropriate to discuss with the client except (p.645) – A) Use of light cotton clothing to promote air circulation. B) Ensure vaginal and urethral openings are cleanse or wiped from front to back after each bowel movement or urination. C) Douche every day. D) Use client’s knowledge as the basis for health education. 18. The common cause of itching or pain in the rectal area of an adult woman (Evidenced Based Health Promotion and Disease Prevention) are the following conditions, p.643 – Select all that apply. A) STI’s B) Hemorrhoids C) Pinworms D) Vaginal trauma E) Candida 3 3/18 19. The nurse is performing an assessment of a client admitted to the emergency department in status asthmaticus. The nurse should carefully inspect which part of the body to differentiate central cyanosis from peripheral cyanosis (p.258)? A) B) C) D) Nail beds Sclerae Palms Oral mucosa 20. A 45-year-old African American client comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, thirst, and frequent urination. During the examination, the nurse notices areas of hyperpigmentation around the neck and in the axillae. What would the nurse do next (p.258)? A) B) C) D) 21. Document the benign findings. Perform a random blood sugar test. Ask the client about a family history of cancer. Refer the client for medical follow-up. Dry, pruritic skin; stretch marks, skin tags, dark patches and skin infections are common in (p.249) A) extremely thin clients B) obese clients C) post-operative clients D) elderly clients 22. A nurse has been asked to assess an older adult resident of a long-term care facility. During assessment of the resident's skin, the nurse notes a break in the skin, erythema, and a small amount of serosanguineous drainage over the resident's sacrum. Inspection reveals that the area appears blisterlike. The nurse should interpret this finding as indicating which stage of pressure ulcer? (p.271) A) Stage I B) Stage II C) Stage III D) Stage IV 23. A 15-year-old boy shows the school nurse a “bump” on his neck. The nurse observes a raised, erythematous, solid, 0.3- by 0.2-cm mass. How would the nurse document this finding (p.273)? A) Macule B) Papule C) Nodule D) Pustule 24. A client has sought care because he is concerned that a mole on his scalp may be evidence of skin cancer. Which finding would the nurse identify as being most suggestive of melanoma (p.276)? A) Solid, dark brown color B) Asymmetric, irregular borders C) Diameter of 3 mm D) Flat with silvery scales 4 4/18 25. An older adult client reports that he is experiencing severe trunk pain and is concerned that he might have shingles. Which type of lesion would the nurse most likely assess (p.273)? A) Papule B) Vesicle C) Bulla D) Crust 26. A client's history reveals that he has been taking oral steroid therapy for several years for the treatment of an autoimmune disorder. During assessment, the nurse would expect the client's skin to have what characteristic (p.260)? A) Increased thickness and hair loss B) Increased thinness C) Pallor D) Erythema 27. An older adult client states that he has trouble cutting his toenails because they are hard and thick, and the nurse notes that they are long and unkempt. Which system would be most important for the nurse to assess (p.264)? A) Integumentary B) Digestive C) Neurologic D) Circulatory 28. The client's nail is detached from the nail plate, called onycholysis is seen in cases of (p.264) A) Poor hygiene B) Infection or trauma C) Auto immune disorder D) Circulatory disorder 29. Assessment of a client's nails reveals the presence of Beau lines. The nurse interprets this finding as suggestive of which of the following (p.264)? A) Oxygen deficiency B) Acute illness C) Psoriasis D) Trauma 30. A client has sought care because of the development of pruritic lesions between her toes, which the nurse suspects are attributable to a fungal etiology. How can the nurse best corroborate this suspicion (p.260)? A) Test whether gentle abrasion with an emery board is painful. B) Apply hydrogen peroxide to see whether the client's pruritus is relieved. C) Perform a trial with a topical antibiotic. D) Illuminate the area using a Wood light. 5 5/18 31. The nurse is assessing a middle-aged client who is new to the clinic. The nurse observes the presence of significant facial hair that is uncharacteristic of the client's ethnicity. What assessment question should the nurse ask (p.260)? A) “Has anyone in your family ever been diagnosed with skin cancer?” B) “Have you ever been assessed for diabetes?” C) “What dietary supplements do you usually take?” D) “Do you take steroid medications on a regular basis?” 32. The nurse is assessing a dark-skinned client whose forearms and hands have distinct regions of pigmentation. The nurse should document the presence of what health problem (p.265)? A) Vitiligo B) Striae C) Angiomas D) Albinism 33. The nurse's assessment reveals that a client can neither turn his head against resistance nor shrug his shoulders. The nurse should document a potential deficit in the functioning of which cranial nerve (p.281)? A) Abducens (VI) B) Accessory (XI) C) Hypoglossal (XII) D) Trochlear (IV) 34. During the health history, a client describes recent episodes of intermittent facial pain lasting several minutes. The nurse should recognize that this complaint is suggestive of what health problem (p.284)? A) Trigeminal neuralgia B) Migraine headache C) Meningitis D) Temporomandibular joint dysfunction 35. A client describes her frequent headaches as being severe and lasting for days. The client's positive response to what question would most clearly suggest to the nurse that these headaches are migraines (p.299)? A) “Do they occur after you have been tensed or anxious?” B) “When you consume alcohol, do you get a headache?” C) “Do you have any eye symptoms, such as tearing?” D) “Do you have any visual changes before the headache?” 36. Which factor, if present in a client's lifestyle and health practices assessment, would alert the nurse to the need for performing a more thorough head and neck assessment (p.285)? A) Alcohol abuse B) Recreational drug use C) Smokeless tobacco use D) Multiple sex partners 6 6/18 37. A nurse is palpating the head and neck of a newly referred client. What would the nurse suspect if assessment reveals that the client's skull and facial bones are larger and thicker than normal (p.301)? A) Acromegaly B) Brain tumor C) Paget disease D) Parkinson disease 38. When talking to a client before starting the physical exam, the nurse notes that the client consistently tilts her head to one side. What would the nurse examine first (p.290)? A) Hearing acuity B) Thyroid gland C) Mental status D) Lymph nodes 39. Which of the following findings should the nurse document after assessing the thyroid gland of an older adult without abnormalities (p.293)? A) Nodularity B) Tenderness C) Enlargement D) Bruits 40. A nursing educator is evaluating a colleague's examination of a client's thyroid gland. The educator would determine that the nurse needs additional instruction when the nurse demonstrates which technique (p.294)? A) Inspection B) Auscultation C) Palpation D) Percussion 41. When preparing to assess a client's thyroid gland, the nurse should ensure that which piece of equipment is readily available (p.292)? A) Penlight B) Tongue depressor C) Centimeter-scale ruler D) Cup of water 42. A client tells the clinic nurse that she has sought care because she has been experiencing excessive tearing of her eyes. Which assessment should the nurse next perform (p.305)? A) Inspect the palpebral conjunctiva. B) Assess the nasolacrimal sac. C) Perform the eye positions test. D) Test pupillary reaction to light. 7 7/18 43. A nurse is palpating the position of the client's trachea. At which anatomic site would the nurse first position a finger for palpation (p.293)? A) Sternocleidomastoid muscle B) Sternal notch C) Submental space D) Supraclavicular space 44. A nurse is assessing an adult client's neck. What would be most appropriate when auscultating the client's thyroid gland for bruits (294)? A) Hyperextend the client's neck. B) Turn the client's head to the right. C) Have the client swallow water. D) Have the client hold his or her breath. 45. A nurse is preparing to palpate a client's submental lymph nodes. At what anatomic location should the nurse position his or her hands (p.295)? A) At the angle of the client's mandible B) At the base of the client's skull C) On the area behind the client's ears D) Behind the tip of the client's mandible 46. The nurse is assessing the face of a client with a diagnosis of Parkinson disease. What would the nurse most likely assess (p.302)? A) Sunken face B) Drooping of one side C) Mask-like expression D) Asymmetry of earlobes 47. During a health history, a client reported complaints of headaches. What finding would lead the nurse to suspect that the client is experiencing cluster headaches (p.299)? A) Pain radiating from eye to temporal region B) Throbbing and severe pain C) Report of ringing in the ears prior to headache D) Complaint of sensitivity to light 48. A nurse has taught a group of older adults about the high incidence and prevalence of macular degeneration. What health promotion and prevention activity should the nurse encourage these clients to perform (p.311)? A) Obtain a home version of the Snellen chart and test their vision weekly B) Rinse their eyes with a warmed, normal saline solution three to four times per week C) Maintain a low sodium diet D) Post an Amsler grid in their home and perform the test on a regular basis 8 8/18 49. The nurse is assessing the head and neck of a 51-year-old client. Following inspection and palpation of the client's thyroid gland, the nurse determines that the gland is enlarged. What is the next action that the nurse should perform (p.294)? A) Obtain a full set of vital signs. B) Percuss the client's thyroid. C) Auscultate the client's thyroid. D) Perform a swallowing assessment. 50. The nurse is preparing to test a client's eyes for accommodation. The nurse would have the client focus on an object in which sequence for this test (p.324)? A) Far, then near B) Lateral, then near C) Near, then far D) Lateral, then far 51. The nurse is assessing a client whose electronic health record notes a diagnosis of esotropia. When examining this client, the nurse should expect what finding (p.330)? A) Eye turning outward B) Eye malalignment C) Eye turning inward D) Eye oscillating 52. A nurse is assessing an adult client's eyes and vision. When performing the cover test, what would the nurse do next after covering one of the client's eyes (p.319)? A) Ask the client to focus on a distant object, looking for movement in the other eye. B) Ask the client to close the other eye then open that eye quickly. C) Ask the client to follow the nurse's finger with the other eye. D) Ask the client to look directly at a light with the other eye. 53. A nurse is observing the red reflex in a client during an eye assessment. During this component of the assessment, the client states, “I hope you can see it because I have cataracts.” What finding should the nurse expect (p.325)? A) Black spots pointing inward B) White arc around the limbus C) Thickened bulbar conjunctiva D) A red spot on the retina 54. A nurse is presenting a class to a local community group about vision and eye health. As part of the presentation, the nurse explains how visual perception occurs. What would the nurse include in the explanation (p.305)? A) It refers to a client's subjective appraisal of his or her vision. B) It begins with light rays striking the retina. C) It primarily involves the lens of the eye. D) It allows the eyes to focus on near objects. 9 9/18 55. A client is being examined for drooping of the upper lid called ptosis. This type of condition is often associated with (p.320) A) infection B) injury C) bleeding D) nerve damage 56. A factory worker has presented to the occupational health nurse with a small wood splinter in his left eye. The nurse has assessed the affected eye and irrigated it with warm tap water, but the splinter remains in place. What should the nurse do next (p.327)? A) Attempt to remove the splinter using sterile forceps. B) Irrigate the eye with dilute hydrogen peroxide. C) Arrange for worker to be promptly assessed by an eye specialist. D) Encourage the worker to see an optometrist as soon as possible. 57. A nurse is completing a comprehensive health history of a 69-year-old woman who is a new client of the clinic. Which of the nurse's interview questions most directly addresses the client's risk for developing cataracts (p.314)? A) “Do you exercise regularly?” B) “Have you ever been tested for diabetes?” C) “Do you ever take over-the-counter pain medications?” D) “At what age did you first start wearing glasses?” 58. When assessing the client's ear, which finding should the nurse identify as indicating a need for further assessment and possible treatment? A) Darwin tubercle B) Red, flaky cerumen C) Tender tragus D) Pearly gray tympanic membrane 59. A 55-year-old client is being evaluated for a suspected hearing impairment. Which of the nurse's health interview questions is most likely to yield relevant data? A) “Are you having difficulty hearing high-frequency sounds?” B) “Do you notice any drainage from your ears?” C) “Are you experiencing any pain in your ears?” D) “Have you felt any popping sensations in your ears?” 60. A 66-year-old client states that he has increasing difficulty hearing high-pitched sounds. The patient's statement most likely suggests that he has what diagnosis? A) Vertigo B) Otalgia C) Tinnitus D) Presbycusis 10 10/18 61. The emergency department nurse notes a clear, watery discharge from the client's ear following a bicycle accident. Which action should the nurse do next? A) Refer the client immediately for further evaluation. B) Assess for foreign body impaction. C) Examine for postauricular cysts. D) Position the patient to facilitate drainage. 62. A nurse palpates a client's ear and finds that the tragus is exquisitely tender. The nurse should suspect what health problem? A) Otitis media B) Otitis externa C) Ruptured tympanic membrane D) Mastoiditis 63. The nurse is performing an ear assessment of an adult client. Which action constitutes the correct procedure for using an otoscope when examining the client's ears? A) Keeping the dominant hand away from the client's head B) Inserting the speculum down and forward into the ear canal C) Using the smallest speculum on the otoscope head D) Holding the otoscope in the nondominant hand 64. While inspecting the client's tympanic membrane, the nurse notes a pearly gray and shiny appearance. The nurse would interpret this finding as what? A) Scarring from previous infections B) Otitis media C) Normal tympanic membrane D) Otitis externa 65. A clinic client's primary complaint is earache (otalgia). What question should the nurse include in the health interview? A) “What do you do for a living?” B) “Do you know if your vaccinations are up to date?” C) “Do you take medications or supplements?” D) “Have you been swimming lately?” 66. Otoscopic examination of a 69-year-old client's tympanic membrane reveals that it is red, bulging, and distorted. The nurse also notes a diminished light reflex. To what should the nurse most likely attribute this assessment finding? A) Repeated ear infections B) Trauma C) Age-related changes D) Acute otitis media 11 11/18 67. A 12-year-old boy was brought to the emergency department after being hit in the head with a ball during a baseball game. What assessment finding would suggest to the nurse trauma to the middle ear or inner ear? A) White spots on the tympanic membrane B) Dark red or bluish tympanic membrane C) Yellowish, bulging tympanic membrane D) Clear tympanic membrane 68. A decrease in tongue strength is noted on examination of a client. The nurse interprets this as indicating a problem with which cranial nerve? A) III B) VI C) VIII D) XII 69. When examining a child who complains of a sore throat, the nurse notes swelling on either side of the child's oropharynx. The nurse would include which of the following when documenting this finding? A) Enlarged pharyngeal tonsils B) Enlarged palatine tonsils C) Enlarged adenoids D) Enlarged lingual tonsils 70. The nurse is assessing the characteristics and positioning of the client's uvula, which deviates asymmetrically when the nurse has the client say “aaah.” This finding should prompt the nurse to focus on what during subsequent assessment? A) The client's nutritional status B) The client's neurologic status C) The client's immune function D) The client's respiratory function 71. The nurse is interviewing an adult client in the context of a focused mouth, nose, sinus, and throat assessment. After asking the client about his history of environmental allergies, the client states, “I'm pretty sure that I'm allergic to something, but I'm not exactly sure what triggers my allergies.” What would the nurse do next? A) Ask the client if his allergies respond to OTC antihistamines. B) Ask the client about the timing of his allergy symptoms. C) Perform a detailed inspection of the client's ears and throat using an otoscope. D) Perform transillumination of the client's sinuses. 72. The nurse inspects a client's mouth and notes the presence of a bifid uvula. The nurse understands that this finding is most common in which ethnic group? A) Italian Americans B) Native Americans C) African Americans D) Non-Hispanic Americans 12 12/18 73. During the health interview, a client reports an occasional blockage in the upper portion of the nasal passage. The nurse understands the most pronounced effect this would have on the client would be what? A) Decreased sense of taste B) Difficulty hearing C) Impaired sense of smell D) Occasional dizziness 74. The nurse is assessing an older adult client whose health problems include receding gums. The nurse notes gum ischemia and worn tooth surfaces. Which question would be most important for the nurse to ask? A) “Have you lost any teeth recently?” B) “How would you describe your typical diet?” C) “Has your dentist screened you for oral cancer recently?” D) “Are you able to taste the food you eat?” 75. The nurse is providing health education to an elderly client with dysphagia following a recent ischemic stroke. What would be most appropriate for the nurse to include? A) Sit with the head of the bed at a 45-degree angle during meals. B) Be aware of the possibility of temporomandibular joint pain. C) Thoroughly chew small amounts of food with each mouthful. D) Drink fluids before and after, but not during, meals. 76. nurse suspects intra-abdominal bleeding in a client who was recently involved in a motor vehicular accident. Which findings would most likely lead the nurse to this suspicion? Select all that apply. p.504 A) Cushing syndrome B) Obturator sign C) Cullen sign D) Grey Turner sign 77. A male client who was admitted to the emergency department was complaining of abdominal pain for the past 3-days is suspected of having s ruptured appendix. What additional abdominal sign would be assessed from this client? p. 520. A) Grey Turner sign B) Obturator sign C) Hyperactive bowel sound D) Normoactive bowel sound 13 13/18 78. While inspecting the skin of an older adult client, the nurse notes multiple small, flat, reddish-purple macules. The nurse should recognize the presence of which of the following (p.275)? A) Purpura B) Petechiae C) Ecchymosis D) Cherry angioma 79.This type of walk is seen with lesions of the upper motor neurons in the cortical spinal tract such as in patients with stroke. The client walks with flexed arm held close to body while client drags toe of leg or circles it stiffly outward and forward (p. 603). A) Foot drop B) Scissor gait C) Spastic hemiparesis D) Parkinson gait 80. Pain and increased resistance to extending the knee are positive Kernig signs. When Kernig sign is bilateral, the nurse will suspect (p.596) – A) Alcoholism B) Peripheral neuropathy C) Folic acid deficiency D) Meningeal irritation 81. When assessing brachioradialis reflex, normal findings would be (p.593) – A) Elbow flexes and biceps muscle is seen. B) Elbow extends and triceps contracts. C) Flexion and supination of forearm. D) Knee extends and quadriceps muscles contracts 82. What would the nurse interpret as a positive response to the Phalen test for a client suspected of having carpal tunnel syndrome? A) Numbness B) Atrophy of the thenar prominence C) No tingling D) Hard, painless Bouchard nodes 83. The nurse demonstrates the correct technique for assessing the psoas sign by which action? (p. 518). A) Applying deep palpation pressure to the client’s right lower quadrant, then suddenly releasing B) Tapping finger-pads over the client’s abdominal wall, feeling for a floating mass C) Percussing over the symphysis pubis with the client supine and then sitting upright D) Flexing the client’s right hip, applying downward pressure on the right thigh 84. Assessment reveals that a client has slight weakness with active range of motion against some resistance. How would the nurse document this finding? A) 2/5 B) 3/5 C) 4/5 D) 5/5 14 14/18 85.When testing the range of motion of the cervical spine, the nurse notes impaired range of motion and neck pain. A review of the client's history reveals fever, chills, and headache. What would the nurse suspect? A) Meningitis B) Cervical strain C) Compression fracture D) Cervical disc degeneration 86. Inspection of a client's knee reveals swelling, and the nurse suspects that there is significant fluid in the knee. What test would the nurse perform to confirm the suspicion? A) Phalen test B) Tinel test C) Ballottement test D) Leg-raising test 87. The nurse is preparing to palpate the anatomic snuffbox. At which location would the nurse palpate? A) At the anterior area of the sternoclavicular joint B) At the posterior temporomandibular joint C) At the olecranon process of the elbow D) At the back of the wrist and extended thumb 88. A nurse is providing health education about osteoporosis to a community group. What ethnicity is an independent risk factor for osteoporosis? A) Caucasian B) African American C) South Asian D) Native American 89. During the nursing history of a newly admitted client, the nurse is reviewing a client's current medication regimen. What medication category creates a risk for decreased bone density? A) Beta-adrenergic blockers B) Corticosteroids C) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatories (NSAIDs) D) Calcium channel blockers 90. The nurse is preparing to care for a dying client, and several family members are at the client's bedside. Which therapeutic techniques should the nurse use when communicating with the family? Select all that apply. A. Discourage reminiscing. B. Make the decisions for the family. C. Encourage expression of feelings, concerns, and fears. D. Explain everything that is happening to all family members. E. Touch and hold the client's or family member's hand if appropriate. F. Be honest and let the client and family know that they will not be abandoned by the nurse. 91. A client is wearing a continuous cardiac monitor, which begins to sound its alarm. A nurse sees no electrocardiographic complexes on the screen. Which is the priority action of the nurse? A. Call a code. B. Call the health care provider. C. Check the client's status and lead placement. D. Press the recorder button on the electrocardiogram console. 15 15/18 92. The nurse is assigned to care for four clients. In planning client rounds, which client should the nurse assess first? A. A client scheduled for a chest x-ray. B. A client requiring daily dressing changes. C. A postoperative client preparing for discharge. D. A client receiving nasal oxygen who had difficulty breathing during the previous shift. 93. When reviewing the admission assessment, the nurse notes that a client was admitted to the mental health unit involuntarily. Based on this type of admission, the nurse should provide which intervention for this client? A. Monitor closely for harm to self or others. B. Assist in completing an application for admission. C. Supply the client with written information about their mental illness. D. Provide an opportunity for the family to discuss why they felt the admission was needed. 94. The role of the nurse regarding complementary and alternative medicine should include which action? A. Advising the client about "good" versus "bad" therapies. B. Recommending herbal remedies that the client should use. C. Discouraging the client from using any alternative therapies. D. Educating the client about therapies that (s)he is using or is interested in using. 95. The nurse knows the general symptoms of dementia includes the followings. Select all that apply. (p.75) A. Confusion with time and place. B. Trouble understanding visual images or spatial relationships. C. Sometimes forgetting which word to use. D. Poor judgement. E. Changes in mood or personality. 96. To palpate bimanually, stand at the client’s right side and place your left hand under the client’s back at the level of the eleventh to twelfth ribs., Lay your right hand parallel to the right costal margin, the fingertips pointing toward the client’s head. This procedure is known as (p.514) – A) Palpating the aorta. C) Bimanual technique for spleen palpation. B) Palpating the aorta by hooking technique. D) Bimanual technique for liver palpation. 97. The nurse is caring for a client who believes Allah is in control of the beginning and the end of life, and expressions of powerlessness are rare. The client’s religion is (p.206) – A. Buddhism B. Hinduism C. Islam D. Judaism 16 16/18 98. The nurse is working with an older adult client and is attempting to determine whether the client deems her life to have been meaningful and valuable. As well, the nurse has addressed the client's acceptance of the inevitability of death. This nurse's actions are best understood within the ideas of which theorist (p.114)? A) Freud B) Erikson C) Piaget D) Kohlberg 99. The nurse is completing the assessment of a client who takes a beta-adrenergic blocker and a diuretic. Which assessment would be most important for the nurse to complete to ensure safety with a client receiving antihypertensive agents (p.133)? A) Noting a widened pulse pressure B) Asking whether the client is experiencing headaches C) Assessing for a rise in blood pressure when standing D) Evaluating for orthostatic hypotension 100. The nurse is performing an assessment of a hospital client at the beginning of a shift. When assessing the client's heart rate, the nurse will most likely palpate what artery (p.132)? A) Femoral artery B) Aorta C) Ulnar artery D) Radial artery Dosage calculation questions: 101. The license provider writes 250mcg of digoxin. The supply comes in 0.5mg per scored tablet. How many tablet(s) should be administered? Answer: __________ 102. A liter of normal saline solution is to infuse at 125mL per hour. If the infusion was started at 1600 hour, at what time will the bag be completed? Answer: ________ 17 17/18 Week 11: Gen Health Assessment Workshop | Monday, April 26, 2021 at 8:00 AM – 11:00 AM 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 D C B D B D D C B B D B&C A D B A, B, C, D & E C A, B, C & E D B B B B B B 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 B D B B D D A B A D C A A A D D B B D D C A D C A 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 C A A B D C B C A D A B B C D D B D B B B B C A C 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 C&D B B C D C A D C A C D A B C, E & F C D A D A, B, D & E C C D D D Dosage: 101. ½ 102. 1200 noon 18 18/18