Stroke MCQZ Quiz Part 7

Question 84. 55 year old present. Registry of Summer Ignite hemorrhage 3 days. No complaints of worsening of the headache, drowsiness and he has nuanced left sided weakness. His MRI brain. And, TCD show u. Cerebral vasospam Which of the following is true about? delete civil versus fathom a. It begins after 72 hour and peaks at six to seven days. b. It begins at 24 hours and peaks at 72 hours. c. Triple H therapy or induced hypertension is considered effective d. In cases where triple H therapy is Contraindication or not aplicable ballon catheter may be used e. .Nimodipine has been found to be ineffective to prevent DCM Question 85. a pt with SAH one week back has become drowsy today. He has no new defecit and repeat CT and MRI doesn't show any bleed or new infarct. Hos electrolytes show hyponatremia. a. It is most likely due to SIADH b. It is most likely due to cerebral salt wasting syndrome c. SIADH is associated with hypovolemic status. d. CSWS is associated with hypovolemic status e. It is treated by fluid and water restrictions. Question.86 A 55 year old male presented with history of SAH for last 3 days. Now he complained of worsening of the headache, drowsiness and he has no new left sided weakness. His MRI brain and TCD show vasospasm What is true a. There are no symptoms unless infarct or brain injury actually occurs b. worsening headache or drop in GCS are not a feature of DCI. c. The new defecit or symptoms should persist at least 12 hour to be considered as vasospam . d. Younger patients have higher risk of vasospasm e. Risk of vasospasm doesn't depend on size of hemorrhage Question: 87 . A 55 year old male presented with history of SAH for last 3 days. Now he complained of worsening of the headache, drowsiness and he has no new left sided weakness. His MRI brain and TCD show vasospasm. what is true of induced hypertension therapy used to treat this complication. a. Electrolyte imbalance may predispose to risk of DCI eg hyponatremia and hypivolymeia b. Hypertonic saline is fluid of choice. c. MAP target of 200 mm is use d. Induced hypertension is safer and can be carried out safely in cardiac patients. e. Hemoglobin optimization has no role . Question 88: 50 year old male with history of subarachnoid hemorrhage develop headache drowsiness and worsening of consciousness. His CT brain is shown below . which of the following statements is true for this condition. a. SAH hemorrhage causes communicating hydrocephalus only. b. Non communicating hydrocephalus is not seen in subarachnoid hemorrhage c. A COM aneurysm is associated with high risk of hydrocephalus d. Rebleeding increases the risk of developing hydrocephalus. e. Hunt and hess grading is not predictive of risk of hydrocephalus. Question 89. A 50 year male presented with worst headache of life. Within the six hours. his initial CT brain done in ER was normal. You suspect SAH . What next step should be taken a. Repeat CT after one week. b. Do an MRI Brain with MRA c. Do the DSA f. Do the lumbar puncture g. Perform CTA Question 90: A 50 years old male hypertensive presented with worst headache of the life. You are suspecting SAH. Which of the following option is most suitable for his workup of aneurysmal SAH. a. Sensitivity of CT improves with time. b. CT within 6 hours have sensitivity of 50 percent in detecting Early c. TOF MRA is as good as CTA in detecting aneurysm SAH. d. Patients with normal early CT and normal CSF RE may not need further workup for SAH e. DSA should be performed in all cases. Question.91. A patient with. History of Aorctic Surgery. Or systemic hypotension. Presented with. Weakness of both lower limbs. initial MR spine in is normal. What steps should be taken? f. Perform CT g. Perform DSA. h. Repeat MRI after 72 hour i. Do CSF RE. j. preform serial CT of the spine Question. 92. A patient with history of aortic and cardiac surgery. He has transient episode of hypotension . He presented with lower limb weakness after procedure. His MRI spine show acute anterior spinal artery infarct. Which of the therapy Maybe helpful. a. Thrombolytic Therapy. b. dual antiplatelet c. Anticoagulation. d. Mechanical thrombectomy e. Placement of lumbar drain. Question. 93.. A 15 year old man. The history of progressive weakness of both lower limbs. This progressive weakness was punctated by intermittent acute worsening of the weakness that resolves spontaneously. MRI of the spine show presence of vascular malformation which spinal Av malformation have similar presentation. a. Dural AV malformation b. intramedullary malformation c. Intramedullary cavernous malformation. d. intramedullary port wine e. intermedullary hemangiomas Question. 94. A 15 year old boy presented with acute onset lower limb weakness. His examination was consistent with dorsal myelopathy .MRI and MRA show suspicion of spinal vascular malformation. Which of the malformation have presentation like this. a. Dural AV malformation b. Intramedullary AV malformation c. Cavernous AV malformation d. Port wine neavus e. Spinal hemangiomas Question 95: An infant presented with complaint of decrease movement of the left side since 2 hours . He slept well but woke up with crying and decrease movement of the left half. There is no previous significant past or family history. His initial CT brajn was unremarkable. Which statement is best for management of this patient. a. He should be considered for TPA. b. He should be considered for mechanical thrombectomy c. Should be considered for anticoagulation as soon as possible d. Regular aspirin for secondary prevention of stroke is needed in children e. Metabolic disturbances, such as acidosis, hypoglycemia, hypocalcemia, or electrolyte disorders, should be monitored and corrected. Question 96: 10 year old boy pesented with Left sided weakness. He has history of cardiac disease for which no record is available . MRI brain show evidence of ischemic stroke. Which of the statements is best for stroke management in this case a. It is It is reasonable to consider him for TPA. b. Mechanical thrombectomy is contraindicated in children as acute stroke therapy. c. Anticoagulation is associated with high chance of adverse outcomes. d. Clopidogrel is considered superior to aspirin for secondary stroke prevention in children e. children with cardioembolic stroke dual antiplatelet are considered safer than anticoagulants. In