Biochemistry Final Exam

Part 1 1- Fetal haemoglobin shifts the oxygen saturation curve in what direction Right and down b) Left and down Right and up Left and up 2- The Bohr Elfect/Shift moves the oxygen saturation curve in what direction a) Up and left b) Down and right e) Down and left d) (Up and right 3. At the highest partial pressures of oxygen, the saturation of oxygen slows down because a) The haemoglobin becomes saturated b) The haemoglobin becomes denatured c) The haemoglobin is too cold d) The oxygen is displaced by carbon dioxide 4- What are the main things responsible for causing the Bohr Shift a) Increased H-ions and increased carbon dioxide partial pressure b) Increased H-ions and decreased carbon dioxide partial pressure c) Increased oxygen zequirements d) Carbon monoxide's high affinity for haemoglobin 5. When carbon dioxide binds directly with haemoglobin it forms a) (Carbaminohaemoglobin b) Carboxyhaemoglobin c) Carbon diooxyhaemoglobin d) Deoxyhaemoglobin 6- About Sickle Cell Anemia a) There are four copies of the sickle cell gene needed to have the disorder b) The genotype which represents a sickle cell carrier is SS c) Sickle cell symptoms usually begin at the Puberty d) (Sickle Cell is inherited in an autosomal Recessive pattern 7- With regard to collagen molecule, the false statement is a) It is formed from trimers b) It is formed from polypeptides containing a chains c) (It contains less hydroxyproline than elastin d) Ascorbate is essential for hydroxylation of proline of Contains cross-linking polypeptides involving lysine It is the most common connective tissue in fungs Which is not true about Elastin? Cleverumes its length and return to its original shape is divented by al-antitryps 9. Which one of the following peptides can form a disulfide bridge? b) Tyr-Phe-Oln-Am-Cys-Pro 2) Phe-Gla-Asn-Cys-Pro-Arg 4) Cys-Tyr-His-Tyr-Ala-Metr 10- What gives a protein its unique shape? a) The unique sequence of arnino acids in its polypeptide chain b) The unique folding due to the sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain e) Hydrogen bonding & unique interactions between the 'R ' groups All these 11- This property of amino acids refers to their ability to act as an acid or a base a) Zwitterionic b) Chirality c) UV absorptive Amphoteric 12- A polypeptide with a net positive charge at physiologic pH, the R groups contains a) Aliphatic R groups b) Aromatic R groups c) Basic R groups d) Acidic R groups 13- Hydrogen bonding between separate subunits of DNA polymerase is an example of a) Primary structure b) (Secondary structure c) Tertiary structure d) Quaternary structure 14- All hydrophobic amino acids share which of the following properties a) Basic R groups b) Polar uncharged R groups c) Nonpolar uncharged R groups d) Acidic R groups function of chaperone protesis 10 It degrades proteina that have folded ingroperty the gentes should field fating correst fouling pathways in di degrades peutin which friding sam thar have folded properly same chain peptide chain held in place by hydrogen bonding betweon peptide hands in the Primary structure c) B-pleated shorte 4) Tertiary mucture 17- Which of the following is a false statement 4)Keratin helical by Collagen is a helical Haemoglobin has a quaternary structure a-keratin is p pleated structure 18 . Which is a non-essential, aromatic and (Off) containing amino acid a) Serine b) Threonine c) Tyrosine d) Histidine 19. Regarding enzymes, all of the following are true EXCEPT a) Enzymes are effective and highly specific catalysts by Enzymes increase the rate of reaction by creating new pathway 6) They increase the velocity and change the equilibrium constant d) Enzymes are used in the food, agricultural, cosmetic, and pharmaceutical industries 20-Regarding industrial and medical importance of enzyme, all of the following are true EXCEPT a) (Asparaginase is used for treatment of pancreatic insufficiency b) Palatase enzyme is used in Food industry to Enhance cheese flavour Pepsin enzyme is used in treatment of gastric indigestion c) d) Urokinase is used for treatment of pulmonary embolism 21- Regarding enzyme nomenclature a) Systematic name is short and convenient for use b) Trivial name of enzyme retains their original name, which indicate the site of the associated enzymic reaction c) Isomerase class describe enzymes catalyse racemization of optical or geometrical isomers d) Ligase enzyme catalyses cleavage of certain bonds 23. Which of the wings of encrime is responsible for cleavage of bund withous 23. According to propertie the retrate hy which the cur ne binds t used to describe Be catalytic efficiency of the Fazymes are rapidly sevsumed by the reaction so need to be replaced yed or highly efficient proceeding botti 103 in 108 mes Canter than catalysed reaction 24. Regarding reaction specificity The entyone can act on structurally related substance b) The enzymes are specific to only one isomer of the substrate one type of reaction The cost catalyses only d) The highest degree of specificity 25. Protein part of boloenzyme is called a) Cosubstrate b) Cofactor c) Activator d) Proenzyme 26- Pepsinogen enzyme is a good example of a) Simple enzyme b) Coenzyme d) Prosthetic group 27- Regarding enzyme catalysts a) They are generally equally active on D and L isomers of a given substrate b) (Their catalytic activity is independent of pH c) To be effective, they must be present at the same concentration as their substrate d) They can increase the reaction rate by a thousand-fold or more -About hexokinase enzyme, all of the following are true EXCEPT a) Can phosphorylate all hexoses b) (Inhibited by feedback inhibition) c) Has lower affinity for glucose than glucokinase d) Not regulated by insulin hormone 36. Aldolase A enzyme deficiency has been associated with Hacmolstic anemia Malahapon discare Myopathy d) Osteomalacia 37- About mitochondrial DNA a ) Formed of single stranded circular 2-10 copies ) Formed of double stranded circular 60 copies b c) Formed of single stranded straight chain Formed of double stranded circular super coil 35- About DNA helical structure a)The distance between one num and next 3.6mm b) Wath helical diameter double helix in B-form 2.4nm e) The distance between one turn in B-form and the next 3.4mm d) A. Single turn of B-form of DNA around the axis of the molecule contain 20 base pair 39- About Transfer RNA a) They form 75% of cellular RNA b) There are at least three type of 1-RNA for each Amino acid c) The acceptor arm of t-RNA terminates at its 5"OH end d) (Loop II contain the three specific bases known as Anti codon loop 40- About Messenger RNA a) It is 15% of cellular RNA b) It is composed of 4-40 nucleotides c) Contain Adenine and Guanine and Uracil and Cytosine d) Contain the anti-codon loop 41- About Ribosomal RNA a) The site where lipid Biosynthesis occur b) It is divided into 3 subunits c) It is formed 80% of total amount of cellular RNA d) (The large subunit 80s while small subunit 40s 42- About S-ADENOSYL METHIONINE (SAM) a) Its function in mitochondria only b) It is important in transcarboxlyation reaction c) Act as a methylene acceptor, d) Act as methyl donor in transmethylation reactions About Major Histocompatibility Complex: a) (Has a role in immune response b) Play an important role in organ transplantation c) Located on chromosome (16) on human d) Has a role in predisposition to bacterial infection 44- Regarding Hapiens a) Become antigenic only when carried on large molecules as a protein carrier b) It is a high molecular weight substance that can induce immune response by themselves c) Cannot induce immune response when it linked covalently to large molecules d) Haptens can be antigenic without linked by other molecules 45- About Immunoglobulin M (IgM) a) Has secretory component b) Can cross placenta c) Has long half-life in serum d) (5-10% in serum antibody) 46- About Immunoglobulin A (IgA) a) 5-10% in serum antibody b) (5-10% carbohydrate in its structure c) J-chain is not present d) Can cross placenta 47- About Immunoglobulin G (IgG) a) It is present as a pentamer b) J-chain is present c) Has secretory component d) Long Half-life in serum 48- About Immunoglobulin D (IgD) a) J-chain is present b) Long Half-life in serum c) It is located in blood and lymph and B-cell surface d) It is Dimer 9- Deficiency of which of the following vitamin causes Beri-Beri? a) Vitamin B12 b) Vitamin B2 c) Vitamin B6 d) (Vitamin B1 best detained abortion of valchen and phosphate on the ente 50. Which statement best describes xitamin D 1) It is required in the hepatic synthesis of prothrombin e) It is the most powerful natural antioxidant d) Vitamin D is consistently elevated in Osteomalacia 51- Which anemia is characterized by a lack of intrinsic factor that prevents B12 absorption at Tropical sprue to Transcobalamis deficiency Blins Jeep syndrome 4) (Pernicious anaemia 52- Which of the following characterizes vitamin K a) It is required for biological activity of fibrinolysis b) Its activity is enhanced by heparin therapy It is required for carboxylation of glutamate residues of some coagulation factors d) It is made by the endothelial cells 53. Which of the following vitamins required in the hepatic synthesis of prothrombin? a) Vitamin B12 b) Vitamin E c) Vitamin A d) Vitamin K 54- A deficiency in is the main cause of hemorrhagic disease in newborn babies a) Vitamin K b) Vitamin C c) Vitamin B12 d) Vitamin B1 55- Night blindness (nyctalopia) is one of the earliest signs of a) Vitamin A deficiency b) Vitamin B6 deficiency c) Vitamin B12 deficiency d) Vitamin C deficiency 56-Concerning disorders due to vitamin deficiency or excess: a) Excess intake of vitamin B1 can cause severe toxic reactions b) B2 deficiency is not fatal and characterized by Ocular disturbances c) Vitamin B12 deficiency results in microcytic anaemia d) Rickets can be prevented by large doses of vitamin C 64- A diet high in saturated fatty acids can be linked to which of the following? Marases Kadney failure sonny Bear Jiseases and novecardial intraction) Cirave disease 65. Choose the INCORRECT statement about BMR out of the following MR is the maximal function at rest Irate of energy expenditure to maintain basic physiological by For women, BMR-10 x weight (kg) +6.25 x beight (cm)-5x age (years)-5 c) For men: HMR - 10x weight (kg) 6.25 x beight (cm) 5x age (years)-161 we to maatain batte physiological) functions at rest 66-It has been recommended that carbohydrate in the diet of total energy )25-359 b) 5-15% c) 40-50% d) 55-65% 67-Child suffering from marasmus which of the flowing symptoms is NOT observed? a) Growth failure b) Old-looking face c) Thin d) Dermatitis of various forms 68-Nutrient is a) The amount of energy needs to carry out a physical function b) (Science of food and its relationship to health c) Necessary substance required by human for growth and maintenance of life d) The minimal rate of energy expenditure 69- About the significance of dietary fiber, all of the following are true EXCEPT a) Reduce constipation b) Increase absorption of fat-soluble vitamins c) Reduce cholesterol levels d) Reduce absorption of toxic compounds About nitrogen balance a) (Nitrogen balance means that nitrogen intake is lower than nitrogen loss from the body b) 100 gm protein contains 16 gm nitrogen c) Nitrogen balance is maintained by adequate fat intake d) About 1.9 gm/kg protein of good quality is sufficient to keep most adults in nitrogen balance - Deposited iron in paucreas damages fi cells and result in....!! a) Wilson's disease b) Bromac diabetes c) Hypertension di Grave's disease 79. Deficiency of causes hypothyroidism a) Potassium Fluoride c) Selenium 4) Lodime 80. The major force that maintains cell membrane stability is a) Chydrophobic, interactions b) Van der Wall attractive forces c) electrostatic bonding d) hydrogen bonds 81- The main lipid in cell membrane structure is a) phospholipid b) glycolipid c) cholesterol d) mixed triglyceride 82-Hereditary spherocytosis is due to mutation in gene of a) (Spectrin protein of erythrocyte membrang b) Ankyrin protein of erythrocyte membrane c) Glycophorin protein d) Elastin protein 83-Concerning fluidity of cell membrane select the right statement a) Cis-double bonds of PUFA decrease the cell membrane fluidity b) (Insulin sensitivity is improved with increase of cell membrane fluidity) c) Cell membrane fluidity is increased with high content of saturated fatty acids in Cell membrane d) The temperature has no effect on cell membrane fluidity 84-Respiratory distress of new-borns is usually due to deficiency of a) Di palmity lecitl b) Phosphatidyl serine c) Phosphatidyl ethanolamine d) Phosphatidyl inositol 85-pholipid cardiolipin found almost exclusively in mitochondrial membrane b) cell membrane lysosomal membrane d) smooth endoplasmic reticulum membrane 86-The cyclic compounds derived from arachidonic acid are a) sphingophospholipid b) phosphatidyl choline c) (cicosanoid d) ceramide oligosaccharide 87-Gaucher's disease is due to accumulation of a) complex glycolipid b) simple glycolipid c) ceramide d) sulpholipid 88-The derived lipid that promotes platelets aggregation is a) prostaglandin b) prostacyclin c) leukotriene d) thromboxane A2 89-Lipoprotein carrying dietary fat is a) VLDL b) HDL c) LDL d) (chylomicron 90-Ester of fatty acids with higher molecular alcohol are a) neutral fats b) waxes c) mixed TAG d) (glycerophospholipids 91-Which of the following is monosaccharide a) Sucrose b) Lactose c) Maltose d) Galactose 97- About carbohydrate chemistry, all of the following are true EXCEPT Homopolysaccharides are formed by a single type of monosaccharide Starch is the storage form of glucove in plants bogen in stored mainly in the Kadney Cellulose in important in the diet as fibre Lactase hydrolysis gives 4) Glucose Glacose b) e Calaunose c) Glucose Fructuse Fructose Fructose 94- Gradual change in rotation to an equilibrium point is known as a) Mutaromation b) (Optical ismerisin Epimerisation d) Optical activity 95-Which of the following is a simple sugar al Cellulose b) Glycogen e) Glucose d) Amylose 96- The principle carbohydrate of human milk is a) Glucose b) Fructose c) Lactose d) Glycogen 97-About cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), all of the following are true EXCEPT a) CSF is colourless b) CSF pH ranges from 7.35-7.45 c) Total CSF volume is about 20 ml d) (CSF glucose level decrease in meningitis 98-About urine, one statement is CORRECT a) Normal urine colour is greenish b) Urine normal volume per day is about 200 ml c) In obstructive jaundice urine colour is black d) (Urine pH ranges from 5.5-7.5 About semen, all of the following are true EXCEPT a) Oligozoospermia means no sperm count b) Colour is white or grey-white e) (Semen specific gravity is 1.030 d) Normal sperm count is about 15-150 million/ml semen 100- About sweat, one statement is CORRECT a) Glucose present at high concentration. 6) (Sodium and chloride (Na and C) are present at low concentration than blood c) Invisible perspiration is about 30-50 ml/day d) Sweat pH ranges from 2.5-3.5 Part II-Practical MCOs 1- Blood total protein result was (9.5 gm/dl), this result indicates a) (Patient may suffer from multiple myeloma b) Normal total protein result c) Patient nuay have nephrotic syndrome d) Hypoproteinaomia. 2- Blood albumin result was (2.5 gm/dl), this result indicates a) Within normal range b) Patient may suffer from liver cirrhosi c) Patient may suffer from acute dehydration d) Patient may suffer from shock 3-About vitamin C a) It is estimated by Bromcersol green (BCG) b) Vitamin C toxicity leads to scurvy c) Hyperlipidemia occurs in vitamin C deficiency d) Hyperlipidemia occurs in vitamin C overload (toxicity) 4-About calcium analysis a) In hyperparathyroidism there is a decrease in calcium concentration b) Milk-alkali syndrome leads to hypocalcaemia c) (Vitamin D toxicity leads to hypercalcaemia) d) Lithium therapy and thiazide diuretics may also cause hypocalcaemia 5- Children blood calcium result was (6.5 mg/dl) indicates a) Hypercalcaemia. b) Normal result c) Patient may suffer from milk-alkali syndrome d) Patient may suffer from rickets 6-Blackish colour urine indicates Fever b) Alkaptonuria c) Obstructive jaundice d) Polyuria 7- About urine specific gravity a) Normal for a 24-hour specimen about 1.015-1.930 b) Diabetes insipidus more than 1.050 c) Normal for a 24-hour specimen about 1.040-1,060 d) Normal for a 24-hour specimen about 1.000-1.005 8- About urine volume ay Excretion of less than 500 miligay is known as polyuria b) Excretion of more than 2000 ml/day is known as oligaria c) Decreased in urinary volume is seen in acute renal failure d) Increased in urinary volume is seen in prostatic hyperplasia 9- Blood calcium result was (12 mg/dl) indicates...... a) (Increased secretion of calcitonin b) Normal result c) Patient may suffer from hypoparathyroidism d) Patient may suffer from Paget's disease 10- About urine analysis a) Hay test is used to detect the presence of blood or intact red cells in urine b) (Fouchet's test is used to detect the presence of bilirubin in urine c) Benedict's test is used to detect the presence of protein in urine d) Bromcersol green (BCG) is used to detect the presence of ketone bodies in urine