3rd Interim Test Review Chapters 25-30

3rd Interim Test Review Chapters 25-30 1. Which of the following body systems or components is the LEAST critical for supplying and maintaining adequate blood flow to the body? A) An effectively pumping heart B) An intact system of blood vessels C) Adequate blood in the vasculature D) The filtering of blood cells in the spleen 2. The systemic veins function by: A) returning deoxygenated blood back to the heart. B) delivering oxygen-poor blood to the capillaries. C) returning oxygen-rich blood back to the left atrium. D) delivering deoxygenated blood to the capillaries. 3. The smaller vessels that carry blood away from the heart and connect the arteries to the capillaries are called the: A) venules. B) arterioles. C) vena cavae. D) capillary arteries. 4. Blood stasis, changes in the vessel wall, and certain medications affect the: A) systolic blood pressure exclusively. B) ability of the blood to effectively clot. C) ability of red blood cells to carry oxygen. D) white blood cells' ability to fight infection. 5. Which of the following occurs after tissues are injured? A) Local blood vessels begin to dilate B) Red blood cells separate from plasma C) Platelets collect at the injury site D) Red blood cells become less sticky 6. Which of the following organs can tolerate inadequate perfusion for 2 to 3 hours? A) Brain B) Heart C) Kidneys D) Skeletal muscle 3rd Interim Test Review Chapters 25-30 7. An organ or tissue may be better able to resist damage from hypoperfusion if the: A) body's demand for oxygen is markedly increased. B) body's temperature is considerably less than 98.6°F (37.0°C). C) systolic arterial blood pressure is at least 60 mm Hg. D) heart rate is maintained at more than 100 beats/min. 8. An infant with a total blood volume of 800 mL would start showing signs of shock when as little as ______ of blood is lost. A) 50 mL B) 100 mL C) 150 mL D) 200 mL 9. The ability of a person's cardiovascular system to compensate for blood loss is MOST related to: A) his or her baseline blood pressure. B) the part of the body injured. C) how rapidly he or she bleeds. D) how fast his or her heart beats. 10. Early signs and symptoms of intra-abdominal bleeding include: A) bruising only. B) pain and distention. C) widespread ecchymosis. D) significant hypotension. 11. A) B) C) D) Gastrointestinal bleeding should be suspected if a patient presents with: dyspnea. hematuria. hemoptysis. hematemesis. 12. In nontrauma patients, an early indicator of internal bleeding is: A) a rapid, thready pulse. B) rapid, shallow breathing. C) dizziness upon standing. D) a decreasing blood pressure. 13. A 39-year-old male sustained a large laceration to his leg during an accident with a chainsaw and is experiencing signs and symptoms of shock. You should first: A) apply direct pressure to the wound. B) place the patient on high-flow oxygen. C) follow appropriate standard precautions. D) perform a rapid head-to-toe assessment. 3rd Interim Test Review Chapters 25-30 14. Most cases of external bleeding from an extremity can be controlled by: A) elevating the injured extremity. B) packing the wound with gauze. C) compressing a pressure point. D) applying local direct pressure. 15. A patient is bleeding severely from a severed femoral artery high in the groin region. Which of the following would MOST likely control the bleeding? A) Position the patient with his injured side down B) Apply a pelvic binder device to stabilize the pelvis C) Apply chemical ice packs to the wound and transport D) Apply a topical hemostatic agent with direct pressure 16. A 70-year-old man presents with a severe nosebleed. His medical history includes COPD, depression, and a hemorrhagic stroke 3 years ago. His BP is 190/110 mm Hg, his pulse is 100 beats/min, and his respirations are 24 breaths/min. His medications include albuterol, sertraline (Zoloft), and multivitamins. Which of the following is MOST likely causing his nosebleed today? A) High blood pressure B) Diabetic complications C) Hemorrhagic stroke D) His prescribed albuterol 17. What layer of the skin forms a watertight, protective seal for the body? A) Dermis B) Epidermis C) Muscular layer D) Subcutaneous layer 18. Which of the following statements regarding the dermis is correct? A) The dermis produces a substance that provides color to the skin. B) The dermis contains hair follicles, sweat glands, and nerve endings. C) The cells of the dermis are worn away and are constantly replaced. D) The dermis lies above the germinal layer and provides protection. 19. All of the following body structures are lined with mucous membranes, EXCEPT for the: A) lips. B) nose. C) anus. D) mouth. 3rd Interim Test Review Chapters 25-30 20. When a person is exposed to a cold environment: A) sweat is produced and is warmed when the vessels constrict. B) blood vessels dilate and divert blood to the core of the body. C) the skin becomes flushed secondary to peripheral vasodilation. D) peripheral vessels constrict and divert blood away from the skin. 21. During the normal wound-healing process, bleeding may occur from even a minor injury because: A) there is a substantial decrease in the number of platelets in and around the wound, which increases the risk of bleeding. B) histamines released by the immune system constrict the blood vessels, which increases the pressure within them. C) new capillaries that stem from intact capillaries are delicate and take time to become as stable as the preexisting capillaries. D) bacteria and other microorganisms invade the wound site and damage the capillaries, which makes them more prone to bleeding. 22. When assessing a patient with a closed soft-tissue injury, it is MOST important to: A) manipulate the injury site for signs of a fracture. B) assess circulation distal to the site of the injury. C) remain alert for more severe underlying injuries. D) recognize that the integrity of the skin is broken. 23. A laceration: A) is an injury that separates various layers of soft tissue. B) is a sharp, smooth cut that is made by a surgical scalpel. C) is a jagged cut caused by a sharp object or blunt force trauma. D) rarely penetrates through the subcutaneous tissue to the muscle. 24. An injury that separates various layers of soft tissue, resulting in complete detachment or a flap of skin, is called a(n): A) incision. B) avulsion. C) laceration. D) amputation. 25. A 17-year-old male was shot in the right anterior chest during an altercation. As your partner is applying oxygen, you perform a rapid assessment and find an open chest wound with a small amount of blood bubbling from it. You should: A) place a sterile dressing over the wound and apply direct pressure. B) control the bleeding from the wound and prepare to transport at once. C) apply an occlusive dressing to the wound and continue your assessment. D) direct your partner to assist the patient's ventilations with a BVM. 26. During an altercation in a bar, two patrons got into a fist fight. The first patient, a 3rd Interim Test Review Chapters 25-30 44-year-old female, was struck in the mouth and refuses EMS care. The second patient, a 39-year-old female, has a small laceration to her left knuckle and also refuses EMS care. Which of the following statements regarding this scenario is correct? A) You should contact the police and have the patients arrested. B) The 39-year-old female is at high risk for an infection. C) The patient struck in the mouth should be immobilized. D) The 44-year-old female is at high risk for an infection. 27. Which of the following is a severe burn in a 35-year-old patient? A) Circumferential partial-thickness burn to the chest B) Full-thickness burn to 5% of the body surface area C) Partial-thickness burn to 20% of the body surface area D) Superficial burn covering 50% of the body surface area 28. Which of the following is of LEAST importance when initially assessing the severity of a burn? A) Area(s) burned B) Age of the patient C) Past medical history D) Known drug allergies 29. A partial-thickness burn involves the outer layer of skin and a portion of the: A) epidermis. B) fatty layer. C) muscle fascia. D) dermal layer. 30. Patients with full-thickness (third-degree) burns generally do not complain of pain because: A) blister formation protects the burn. B) they are generally not conscious. C) the nerve endings have been destroyed. D) subcutaneous vessels are usually clotted. 31. Which of the following statements regarding the rule of nines is correct? A) A child's head is equal to 14% of his or her total BSA. B) The anterior trunk of an adult is equal to 18% of the BSA. C) The posterior of a child's leg is equal to 13.5% of the BSA. D) The anterior arm in the adult is equal to 9% of the total BSA. 32. With regard to the pediatric rule of nines, the: A) head is proportionately smaller than an adult's. B) thorax is proportionately larger than an adult's. 3rd Interim Test Review Chapters 25-30 C) legs are proportionately smaller than an adult's. D) arms are proportionately larger than an adult's. 33. Which of the following is a severe burn in a 2-year-old child? A) Superficial burn that covers 25% of the BSA B) Any full-thickness burn, regardless of its location on the body C) Partial-thickness burn that covers 10% of the BSA D) Any burn that involves the arms, legs, or posterior part of the body 34. A utility worker was trimming branches and was electrocuted when he accidentally cut a high-power line. He fell approximately 20 feet and is lying unresponsive on the ground; the power line is lying across his chest. You should: A) rapidly assess the patient after ensuring that the power line is not live. B) apply insulated gloves and assume manual control of his c-spine. C) quickly but carefully move the patient away from the power line. D) manually stabilize his head as your partner assesses for breathing. 35. Which of the following statements regarding electrical burns is correct? A) Entrance wounds are small relative to the amount of internal tissue damage. B) Respiratory or cardiac arrest following an electrical burn is very uncommon. C) The exit wound caused by electrical burns is smaller than the entrance wound. D) The size of the entry and exit wounds is a reliable indicator of internal damage. 36. A 38-year-old male was electrocuted while attempting to wire a house. Your assessment reveals that he is unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. A coworker has shut off the power to the house. You should: A) begin CPR and apply the AED. B) begin CPR and transport at once. C) assess for entry and exit wounds. D) fully immobilize his spinal column. 37. The lower jawbone is called the: A) zygoma. B) maxillae. C) mandible. D) mastoid. 38. The mastoid process is located approximately: A) 1 inch posterior to the external opening of the ear. 3rd Interim Test Review Chapters 25-30 B) half an inch anterior to the external opening of the ear. C) 1 inch inferior to the external opening of the ear. D) 1 inch posterior to the angle of the mandible. 39. The cricoid cartilage: A) lies superior to the thyroid cartilage in the neck. B) is the only complete circular cartilage of the trachea. C) is easier to see and palpate than the thyroid cartilage. D) lies superior to the cricothyroid membrane in the neck. 40. The eyeball itself is referred to as the: A) orbit. B) globe. C) sclera. D) cornea. 41. The inner surface of the eyelids and the exposed surface of the eye itself are covered by a delicate membrane called the: A) sclera. B) cornea. C) retina. D) conjunctiva. 42. The white portion of the eye is called the: A) iris. B) retina. C) sclera. D) cornea. 43. The optic nerve endings are located within the: A) retina. B) sclera. C) pupil. D) cornea. 44. A young female experienced a laceration to her left eyeball from flying glass when her boyfriend broke a soda bottle against a wall. There is moderate bleeding and the patient states that she cannot see out of the injured eye. You should: A) carefully examine her eye and remove any foreign objects if needed. B) avoid applying pressure to the globe when you are covering the eye. C) ask her to move the injured eye to assess the integrity of the optic nerve. D) apply firm direct pressure to the injured eye and cover the opposite eye. 45. A patient who is complaining of seeing flashing lights, specks, or “floaters” in his or her field of vision has MOST likely experienced: 3rd Interim Test Review A) B) C) D) Chapters 25-30 conjunctivitis. acute hyphema. a blowout fracture. a detached retina. 46. A 39-year-old female experienced a severe closed head injury. She is unresponsive with her eyes slightly open; her pupils are bilaterally dilated and slow to react. In addition to managing problems with airway, breathing, and circulation, you should: A) close her eyes and cover them with a moist dressing. B) secure her eyes open so you can reassess her pupils. C) inspect her eyes and gently remove impaled objects. D) irrigate her eyes with water to prevent mucosal drying. 47. The _________ contain(s) about 75% of the brain's total volume. A) cerebrum B) cerebellum C) brain stem D) meninges 48. The _________ is the best-protected part of the CNS and controls the functions of the cardiac and respiratory systems. A) brain stem B) cerebellum C) spinal cord D) cerebral cortex 49. The tough, fibrous outer meningeal layer is called the: A) pia mater. B) arachnoid mater. C) gray mater. D) dura mater. 50. The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) that circulates in between each meningeal layer: A) regenerates brain cells after they have been damaged. B) acts as a shock absorber for the brain and spinal cord. C) delivers oxygen directly to the CNS. D) produces leukocytes that protect the brain from infection. 51. Which of the following nerves carry information from the body to the brain via the spinal cord? A) Motor B) Central 3rd Interim Test Review Chapters 25-30 C) Somatic D) Sensory 52. Which of the following statements regarding motor nerves is correct? A) They carry information from the CNS to the muscles. B) They perform special functions such as sight, smell, and hearing. C) They transmit information from the body to the brain via the spinal cord. D) They are part of the CNS and control reflexes. 53. Which of the following nerves allow sensory and motor impulses to be sent from one nerve directly to another? A) Somatic B) Connecting C) Peripheral D) Autonomic 54. A reflex arc occurs when: A) the motor nerves function automatically without receiving a message from the CNS. B) a sensory nerve sends a message to the brain but the motor nerve fails to send the appropriate response to the body. C) the brain interprets sensory information that it receives from peripheral and cranial nerves and sends a signal to the muscles. D) a sensory nerve detects an irritating stimulus and bypasses the brain by sending a direct message to the motor nerve. 55. The hormone responsible for the actions of the sympathetic nervous system is: A) insulin. B) thyroxine. C) epinephrine. D) aldosterone. 56. When the parasympathetic nervous system is activated: A) blood is shunted away from the digestive organs. B) the heart rate decreases and the blood vessels dilate. C) hormones are released that prepare the body for stress. D) heart rate and blood pressure increase. 57. The spinal cord is encased in and protected by the: A) spinal canal. B) vertebral body. C) vertebral arch. D) intervertebral disc. 58. The frontal and parietal bones of the skull are especially susceptible to: A) basilar skull fractures. B) depressed skull fractures. C) linear skull fractures. 3rd Interim Test Review Chapters 25-30 D) nondisplaced skull fractures. 59. Which of the following statements regarding a basilar skull fracture is correct? A) Bloody CSF commonly leaks from the nose. B) In most cases, mastoid bruising occurs. C) The absence of raccoon eyes or Battle sign does not rule it out. D) They are typically the result of local, low-energy trauma to the head. 60. Rapid deceleration of the head, such as when it impacts the windshield, causes: A) compression injuries and contusions to the anterior, posterior, and lateral aspects of the brain. B) primary impact to the posterior aspect of the brain, resulting in compression injuries, bruising, or torn blood vessels. C) stretching or tearing of the anterior aspect of the brain and compression injuries or bruising to the posterior aspect of the brain. D) compression injuries or bruising to the anterior portion of the brain and stretching or tearing to the posterior portion of the brain. 61. The MOST common and serious complication of a significant head injury is: A) a skull fracture. B) cerebral edema. C) a hypoxic seizure. D) acute hypotension. 62. An epidural hematoma is MOST accurately defined as: A) bleeding between the skull and dura mater. B) bleeding between the dura mater and brain. C) venous lacerations that occur within the brain. D) an injury caused by a damaged cerebral artery. 63. Which of the following head injuries would cause the patient's condition to deteriorate MOST rapidly? A) Cerebral contusion B) Subdural hematoma C) Cerebral concussion D) Epidural hematoma 64. Bleeding within the brain tissue itself is called a(n): A) epidural hematoma. B) intracerebral hematoma. C) subdural hematoma. D) subarachnoid hemorrhage. 65. A temporary loss or alteration of part or all of the brain's abilities to function without physical damage to the brain MOST accurately describes a(n): A) cerebral contusion. 3rd Interim Test Review Chapters 25-30 B) cerebral concussion. C) intracranial hemorrhage. D) intracerebral hematoma. 66. A female patient with a suspected head injury has slow, shallow breathing. The MOST appropriate treatment for her includes: A) hyperventilating her at 30 breaths/min. B) administering oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. C) ventilation assistance to maintain an oxygen saturation of 90%. D) ventilation assistance to maintain an ETCO2 of 30 to 35 mm Hg. 67. It would be MOST appropriate to perform a focused secondary assessment on a patient who: A) fainted and fell to the ground from a standing position. B) was restrained during a high-speed motor vehicle crash. C) has blood draining from the ears following a head injury. D) struck his or her head and is experiencing nausea or vomiting. 68. A 45-year-old male was working on his roof when he fell approximately 12 feet, landing on his feet. He is conscious and alert and complains of an ache in his lower back. He is breathing adequately and has stable vital signs. You should: A) obtain a Glasgow Coma Score value and give him oxygen. B) immobilize his spine and perform a focused secondary exam. C) allow him to refuse transport if his vital signs remain stable. D) perform a rapid head-to-toe exam and immobilize his spine. 69. The MOST reliable sign of a head injury is: A) a pulse that is rapid and thready. B) a decreased level of consciousness. C) an abnormally low blood pressure. D) decreased sensation in the extremities. 70. The effectiveness of positive-pressure ventilations when treating a head-injured patient can ONLY be determined by: A) immediate reassessment following the intervention. B) a neurosurgeon or emergency department physician. C) reassessing the patient's blood pressure after 10 minutes. D) noting a decrease in the heart rate during ventilations. 71. Which of the following sets of vital signs depicts Cushing triad? A) Blood pressure, 190/110 mm Hg; pulse, 55 beats/min; respirations, 30 breaths/min B) Blood pressure, 90/50 mm Hg; pulse, 120 beats/min; respirations, 10 breaths/min 3rd Interim Test Review Chapters 25-30 C) Blood pressure, 200/100 mm Hg; pulse, 140 beats/min; respirations, 28 breaths/min D) Blood pressure, 80/40 mm Hg; pulse, 30 beats/min; respirations, 32 breaths/min 72. When immobilizing a patient on a long backboard, you should: A) have the patient exhale before fastening the torso straps. B) secure the torso and then center the patient on the board. C) follow the commands of the person at the patient's torso. D) ensure that you secure the torso before securing the head. 73. After your partner assumes manual in-line stabilization of the patient's head, you should: A) apply an appropriately sized rigid cervical collar. B) assess distal neurovascular status in the extremities. C) thoroughly palpate the patient's head for deformities. D) use four people to log roll the patient onto a backboard. 74. A short backboard or vest-style immobilization device is indicated for patients who: A) are found supine and have stable vital signs. B) are in a sitting position and are clinically stable. C) require prompt extrication from an automobile. D) are sitting in their car and are clinically unstable. 75. When immobilizing a seated patient with a short backboard or vest-style immobilization device, you should apply a cervical collar: A) after the torso has been adequately secured. B) after moving the patient to a long backboard. C) after assessing distal neurovascular functions. D) before manually stabilizing the patient's head. 76. If you do not have the appropriate-size cervical collar, you should: A) use rolled towels to immobilize the patient's head. B) place sandbags on either side of the patient's head. C) ask the patient to keep his or her head in a neutral position. D) defer cervical immobilization and apply lateral head blocks. 77. In which of the following situations would the EMT be the LEAST likely to immobilize a patient's spine? A) No spinal pain, but tingling in the extremities B) No distracting injuries or evidence of intoxication C) Unresponsive, but moving all extremities equally D) Pain to the c-spine, but no numbness or tingling. 78. Which of the following interventions may be used to help reduce intracranial pressure? A) Supine with the legs elevated 3rd Interim Test Review Chapters 25-30 B) Maintaining SpO2 at 90% C) 30-degree elevation of the head D) Increasing the patient's body temperature 79. In a patient with a head injury, hypertension, bradycardia, and Biot respirations indicate: A) decreased cerebral blood flow. B) internal bleeding in the chest. C) an underlying skull fracture. D) herniation of the brain stem. 80. Pleural fluid is contained between the: A) visceral and parietal pleurae. B) parietal pleura and the heart. C) visceral pleura and the lung. D) parietal pleura and the chest wall. 81. Which of the following organs or structures does NOT reside within the mediastinum? A) Lungs B) Trachea C) Vena cavae D) Esophagus 82. Elevation of the rib cage during inhalation occurs when: A) the diaphragm descends. B) abdominal contents descend. C) intrathoracic pressure decreases. D) the intercostal muscles contract. 83. The phrenic nerves control the diaphragm and exit the spinal cord at: A) C1 and C2. B) C3 and C4. C) C1, C2, and C3. D) C3, C4, and C5. 84. The ________ nerves control the diaphragm. A) vagus B) costal C) phrenic D) intercostal 85. A patient who presents with profound cyanosis following a chest injury: A) should be placed in Trendelenburg position. B) is most likely experiencing severe blood loss. C) has most likely experienced a ruptured aorta. 3rd Interim Test Review Chapters 25-30 D) requires prompt ventilation and oxygenation. 86. During your assessment of a patient with blunt chest trauma, you note that the patient has shallow breathing and paradoxical movement of the left chest wall. You should: A) request a paramedic to decompress the chest. B) make note of it and continue your assessment. C) assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask. D) apply high-flow oxygen via nonrebreathing mask. 87. A 37-year-old male was pinned between a flatbed truck and a loading dock. On exam, you find bruising to the chest, distended neck veins, bilaterally diminished breath sounds, and bilateral scleral hemorrhaging. You should: A) aggressively manage his airway. B) request a paramedic ambulance. C) perform a secondary assessment. D) suspect a severe hemopneumothorax. 88. Bruising to the right upper quadrant of the abdomen following blunt trauma is MOST suggestive of injury to the: A) liver. B) spleen. C) kidney. D) stomach. 89. Peritonitis usually occurs when: A) solid abdominal organs bleed secondary to penetrating trauma. B) the vessels that supply the abdominal organs become inflamed. C) bacteria or viruses invade the walls of the gastrointestinal tract. D) hollow abdominal organs are damaged and spill their contents into the peritoneal cavity. 90. The mesentery is: A) the point of attachment between the small and large intestines. B) a layer of thick skeletal muscles that protects the abdominal organs. C) a complex network of blood vessels that supply blood to the liver. D) a membranous fold that attaches the intestines to the walls of the body. 91. Assuming that no obvious signs of intra-abdominal injury are present, which of the following injuries would MOST likely cause an injury to the liver or spleen to be overlooked? A) Femur fracture B) Pelvic fracture C) Shoulder fracture D) Lumbar spine fracture 92. Contraction or tensing of the abdominal muscles in an effort to ease pain is called: 3rd Interim Test Review A) B) C) D) Chapters 25-30 flexing. referring. guarding. withdrawing. 93. Accumulation of blood in the abdominal cavity will MOST likely cause: A) distention. B) referred pain. C) diffuse bruising. D) nausea or vomiting. 94. When worn properly, a seatbelt should lie: A) below the anterior superior iliac spines of the pelvis and against the hip joints. B) across the abdominal wall at the level of the diaphragm and below the hip joints. C) above the anterior posterior iliac spines of the pelvis and below the hip joints. D) across the abdominal wall at the level of the umbilicus and against the hip joints. 95. The presence of tachycardia following a significant abdominal injury: A) is always accompanied by hypotension. B) indicates a state of decompensated shock. C) should be assumed to be a sign of shock. D) is most commonly caused by severe pain. 96. Early bruising following abdominal trauma often manifests as: A) localized pain. B) red areas of skin. C) gross distention. D) dark-purple marks. 97. During your assessment of a patient who experienced blunt trauma to the abdomen, you notice bruising around the umbilicus. This is a sign of: A) a ruptured spleen. B) a severe liver laceration. C) intra-abdominal bleeding. D) rupture of a hollow organ. 98. Which of the following statements regarding striated muscle is correct? A) Striated muscle is involuntary because you have no conscious control over it. B) Most of the body's striated muscle is found within the walls of the blood vessels. C) Striated muscle tissue is attached directly to the bones by tough bands of cartilage. D) It forms the major muscle mass of the body and usually crosses at least one joint. 99. Which of the following types of muscle is under direct voluntary control of the brain? A) Cardiac 3rd Interim Test Review Chapters 25-30 B) Skeletal C) Smooth D) Autonomic 100. Atrophy is a condition that occurs when: A) increased use of skeletal muscle causes an increase in its strength. B) the tendons that attach muscle to bone become stretched or injured. C) muscle decreases in size and function. D) carbon dioxide, lactic acid, and other wastes accumulate in the muscle. 101. What type of muscle contracts and relaxes to control the movement of the contents within its structures? A) Cardiac B) Skeletal C) Striated D) Smooth 102. Bone marrow produces: A) cartilage. B) blood cells. C) lymphocytes. D) electrolytes. 103. Bones are connected to other bones by bands of tough fibrous tissues called: A) bursa. B) tendons. C) cartilage. D) ligaments. 104. In moving joints, the ends of the bones are covered with: A) articular cartilage. B) synovial tendons. C) muscular fascia. D) gliding cartilage. 105. Which of the following joints allows no motion? A) Skull sutures B) Sacroiliac joint C) Shoulder joint D) Sternoclavicular joint 106. A fracture caused by minimal force that is associated with diseases such as cancer and osteoporosis is called a __________ fracture. A) greenstick B) pathologic 3rd Interim Test Review Chapters 25-30 C) transverse D) comminuted 107. A(n) __________ fracture occurs in the growth section of a child's bone and may lead to bone growth abnormalities. A) greenstick B) diaphyseal C) epiphyseal D) metaphyseal 108. Deformity caused by a fracture would MOST likely be masked by: A) swelling. B) guarding. C) crepitus. D) ecchymosis. 109. If a dislocated shoulder has spontaneously reduced before your arrival, the only way to confirm the injury is by noting: A) distal circulation. B) the patient history. C) bruising to the shoulder. D) the presence of deformity. 110. Common signs and symptoms of a sprain include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) swelling. B) deformity. C) ecchymosis. D) point tenderness. 111. The act of pulling on a body structure in the direction of its normal alignment is called: A) traction. B) reduction. C) stabilization. D) immobilization. 112. Traction splints are used primarily to immobilize and secure fractures of the: A) hip. B) pelvis. C) femur. D) humerus. 113. Care for a patient with a fractured tibia and suspected compartment syndrome includes: A) applying traction to maintain distal pulses. 3rd Interim Test Review Chapters 25-30 B) keeping the leg at the level of the heart. C) immobilizing the leg with an air splint. D) applying chemical hot packs to the leg. 114. The MOST commonly fractured bone(s) in the body is/are the: A) clavicle. B) scapula. C) radius and ulna. D) midshaft femur. 115. Following direct trauma to the left upper back, a 44-year-old male presents with diaphoresis and restlessness. His blood pressure is 100/50 mm Hg, his pulse rate is 120 beats/min and weak, and his respirations are 24 breaths/min and labored. Your assessment reveals abrasions and contusions over the left scapula. You should: A) hyperventilate him with a BVM and monitor his oxygen saturation. B) apply high-flow oxygen, perform a detailed secondary assessment, and transport. C) focus your assessment on his scapulae and clavicles and apply high-flow oxygen. D) apply high-flow oxygen, consider spinal precautions, and transport without delay. 116. You receive a call to a local gymnasium for a basketball player with a dislocated shoulder. Upon arrival, you find the patient, a 17-year-old male, sitting on the ground. He is holding his left arm in a fixed position away from his body. There is an obvious anterior bulge to the area of injury. You should: A) assess distal pulse, motor, and sensory functions. B) gently attempt to move his arm toward his body. C) place a pillow under his arm and apply a swathe. D) flex his arm at the elbow and then apply a sling. 117. A Colles fracture involves a fracture of the: A) distal ulna. B) distal radius. C) proximal radius. D) radius and ulna. 118. When splinting an injury of the wrist, the hand should be placed: A) into a fist. B) in a straight position. C) in an extended position. D) in a functional position. 119. A 45-year-old female was the unrestrained passenger of a small car that rear-ended another vehicle at a moderate rate of speed. She is conscious and alert, but complains of pain to both of her knees. There is visible damage to the dashboard on the passenger's side of the vehicle. In addition to fractures or dislocations of the knees, you should be 3rd Interim Test Review Chapters 25-30 MOST suspicious for: A) anterior hip dislocation. B) posterior hip dislocation. C) a thoracic spine fracture. D) fracture of the tibia or fibula. 120. A 77-year-old woman slipped and fell on a throw rug and landed on her left hip. She denies striking her head or losing consciousness. Assessment of her left leg reveals that it is shortened and externally rotated. Distal pulses, sensory, and motor functions are intact. You should: A) manually stabilize her left leg, apply a traction splint, and then secure her to a long backboard or scoop. B) carefully slide a long backboard underneath her, keep her in a supine position, and apply a splint to her leg. C) place her onto a scoop stretcher, pad around her left hip with pillows, and secure her to the scoop with straps. D) bind both of her legs together with triangular bandages and carefully secure her onto the ambulance stretcher. 121. Femoral shaft fractures can result in up to _____ mL of internal blood loss. A) 1,000 B) 1,500 C) 2,000 D) 4,000 122. The MOST common and significant complication associated with fractures or dislocations of the knee is: A) neurovascular compromise. B) internal bleeding and shock. C) ligament and cartilage damage. D) total depletion of synovial fluid. 123. A person who experiences a calcaneus fracture after jumping and landing on his or her feet would MOST likely experience an accompanying fracture of the: A) thoracic spine. B) lumbar spine. C) coccygeal spine. D) symphysis pubis. 124. A 20-year-old male collided with another player during a hockey game and complains of severe pain to the left shoulder. Assessment reveals that the clavicle is 3rd Interim Test Review Chapters 25-30 bulging anteriorly at the shoulder. The EMT should suspect: A) dislocation of the glenohumeral joint. B) posterior dislocation of the shoulder. C) separation of the acromioclavicular joint. D) multiple fractures of the proximal humerus. 125. You and your partner are preparing to apply a traction splint to a patient's deformed thigh. As you apply manual traction, the patient resists your efforts and states that the pain is getting worse. You should: A) stop and splint the leg in the deformed position. B) assess distal pulses and continue pulling traction. C) gently massage the thigh muscles to relax them. D) flex the knee and place a pillow under the thigh.