Check Your Understanding - Pathophysiology

Check Your Understanding 1. Of the statements below, the accurate Deficient cellular uptake by one cell type statement regarding nutrition and may contribute to excess nutrient delivery to cellular health is other cell types 2. The primary effect of aging on all body Decreased functional reserve systems is Lung cancer has about 15% survival rate 3. A patient with metastatic lung cancer wants to know her chances for survival. Which response is correct? 4. The cellular response indicative of Intracellular accumulations injury because of faulty metabolism is 5. Your patient eats “lots of fat,” leads a Cigarette smoking “stressful” life, and has smoked “about 2 packs a day for the last 40 years”. Her chronic morning cough recently worsened, and she was diagnosed w/ a lung mass. The most likely contributing factor for development of lung cancer in this patient is Occurs at an earlier age 6. Breast cancer in women who have the breast cancer gene 7. Malignant neoplasms of epithelial Carcinomas origin are known as 8. Metaplasia is The replacement of one differentiated cell type with another 9. The most common tumor-suppressor P53 gene defect identified in cancer cells is 10. After surgery to remove a lung Kill rapidly dividing cells tumor, your patient is scheduled for chemotherapy, which will 11. After bronchoscopy & histologic Is malignant examination of a suspected tumor, your patient is diagnosed w/ primary bronchial carcinoma. Thus, the tumor 12. The cellular component that is DNA most susceptible to radiation injury is the 13. Familial retinoblastoma involves Mutant tumor-suppressor gene the transmission of what from parent to offspring 14. Paraneoplastic syndromes in Calcium cancer involve excessive production of substances by multiple means. A common substance found in excessive amounts resulting from cancer paraneoplastic syndromes is Dysplasia 15. The cellular change that is considered preneoplastic is 16. In general, a cancer cell that is False more tissue-specific differentiated is more likely to be aggressive 17. Your patient is scheduled for a It is a procedure for determining the extent staging procedure. She wants to know of tumor spread. what that means. The correct response is which of the following? 18. Proto-oncogenes 19. The hypermetabolic state leading to cachexia in terminal cancer is thought to be because of 20. Carbon monoxide injures cells by 21. An obese but otherwise health teen is given a prescription for a lowcalorie diet & exercise program. This is an example of 22. Somatic death refers to death 23. A patient with high blood pressure who is otherwise healthy is counseled to restrict sodium intake. This is an example of 24. All these cellular responses are potentially reversible except 25. Indicators that an individual is experiencing high stress include all the following except 26. Persistence of the alarm stage will ultimately result in 27. The stage during which the patient functions normally, although the disease processes are well established, is referred to as 28. Reperfusion injury to cells 29. Allostasis is best defined as 30. The effects of excessive cortisol production include 31. When the cause is unknown, a condition is said to be idiopathic 32. Apoptosis is a process that results in cellular 33. A disease that is native to a particular region is called 34. The primary adaptive purpose of the substances produced in the alarm stage is 35. A 17-year-old college-bound student receives a vaccine against an organism that causes meningitis. This is an example of 36. In general, with aging, organ size and function 37. The effect of stress on the immune system 38. Which is not normally secreted in Are normal cellular genes that promote growth. Tumor necrosis factor Reducing oxygen level on hemoglobin Secondary prevention Of the entire organism Secondary prevention Necrosis Pupil constriction Permanent damage and death Subclinical Involves formation of free radicals The overall process of adaptive change necessary to maintain survival and wellbeing Immune suppression True Death Endemic Energy and repair Primary prevention Decrease May involve enhancement or impairment the immune system Insulin response to stress? C.Q. was recently exposed to group A hemolytic Streptococcus & subsequently developed a pharyngeal infection. His clinic examination reveals an oral temperature of 102.3 F, skin rash, dysphagia, and reddened throat mucosa with multiple pustules. He complains of sore throat, malaise and joint stiffness. A throat culture is positive for Streptococcus, and antibiotics have been prescribed. The etiology of C.Q.’s disease is 40. Coagulative necrosis is caused by 41. Cancer grading is based on 42. An increase in organ size & function caused by increased workload is termed 43. Retroviruses are associated with human cancers, including 44. All the following stress-induced hormones increase blood glucose except 45. Somatic death refers to death 46. Necrotic death of brain tissue usually produces ___ necrosis 47. Many of the responses to stress are attributed to activation of the sympathetic nervous system and are mediated by 48. After suffering a heart attack, a middle-aged man is counseled to take a cholesterol-lowering medication. This is an example of 49. A patient has been exposed to meningococcal meningitis but is not yet demonstrating signs of this disease. This stage of illness is called the ___ stage 50. Extreme cold injures cells by all the following except 39. Streptococcal infection Interrupted blood supply Cell differentiation Hypertrophy Burkitt Lymphoma Aldosterone Of the entire organism Liquefactive Norepinephrine Tertiary prevention Latent Decreased blood viscosity Check Your Understanding (Chapter 10,11,13,14,15) 1. Burkitt lymphoma is most closely Epstein-Barr virus associated with 2. Clinical manifestations of chronic Intermittent claudication arterial obstruction include 3. Venous obstruction leads to edema Increases capillary hydrostatic because it __ pressure 4. Which group of clinical findings Pain in long bones, infection, fever, bruising describes the typical presentation of ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)? 5. Renal insufficiency is a common complication of which disease? 6. A 5-year-old patient’s parents report loss of appetite & fatigue in their child. The parents also state that the child refuses to walk as a result of pain. The child’s most likely diagnosis is 7. Which clinical finding is indicative of compartment syndrome? 8. Which type of leukemia primarily affects children? 9. A diagnostic laboratory finding in myeloma is 10. A primary effector cell of the type I hypersensitivity response is 11. What is the correct definition of complete remission (CR) of leukemia? 12. Autologous stem cell transplantation is a procedure in which 13. Which disorder is associated with a type III hypersensitivity mechanism of injury? 14. The Philadelphia chromosome is a balanced chromosome translocation that forms a new gene called 15. Tissues are able to autoregulate their rate of blood flow by controlling 16. Which form of leukemia demonstrates the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome? 17. When a patient is struck in the eye by a baseball, the result is redness & swelling. This increase in blood flow to a localized area is called 18. The most common primary immune deficiency that affects only B cells is 19. Which is not considered to be a risk factor for thrombus formation? 20. The relationship of blood flow (Q), resistance (R), and pressure (P) in a vessel can be expressed by which equation? 21. Treatment for hemophilia A includes 22. Widespread activation of the clotting cascade secondary to massive trauma is called 23. Vaccination for pneumococcal pneumonia should be performed before 1 year of age in patients with Myeloma ALL (Acute Lymphoid Leukemia) Absent peripheral pulses ALL (Acute Lymphoid Leukemia) Bence Jones proteins in the urine Mast cells CR is less than 5% blasts in marrow and normal CBC values Stem cells are harvested from the patient and then returned to the same patient Systemic Lupus Erythematosus Bcr-abl Vascular resistance CML (Chronic myeloid leukemia) Hyperemia Selective IgA Thrombocytopenia Q=P/R Factor VIII Replacement Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) False sickle cell anemia 24. The strength of the bond between oxygen and hemoglobin is known as the 25. An increase in hemoglobin affinity for oxygen occurs with 26. Patients who experience anemic episodes when exposed to certain drugs most likely have 27. The most appropriate treatment for secondary polycythemia is 28. The arterial oxygen content (CaO2) for a patient with PaO2 100 mm Hg, SaO2 95%, and hemoglobin 15 g/dL is __ ml oxygen/dL 29. Red blood cells differ from other cell types in the body because they 30. Hemophilia B is also known as Christmas Disease 31. Which characteristic is indicative of hemolytic anemia? 32. Two of the most serious oncology emergencies associated with nonHodgkin lymphoma are obstruction of the superior vena cava & compression of the spinal cord. 33. The only known curative treatment for CML is allogeneic bone marrow transplantation from a suitable donor. 34. What laboratory finding is usually found in aplastic anemia? 35. Which condition is associated with an elevated reticulocyte count? 36. A deficiency of von Williebrand factor impairs 37. A cause of thrombocytopenia includes 38. The megakaryocyte is a precursor to 39. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is a measure of the integrity of 40. Which causes vasoconstriction? Oxygen-hemoglobin affinity Shift to the left Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency Measured to improve oxygenation 19.4 Have no cytoplasmic organelles True Jaundice True True Pancytopenia Hemolytic anemia Platelet adhesion to injured tissue Chemotherapy Platelets The intrinsic pathway Norepinephrine Check Your Understanding (Chapter 16,18,19,20) 1. New-organ damage is a function of False both the stage of hypertension & its duration 2. Atherosclerotic plaques with large lipid Rupture cores are prone to 3. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) Conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II inhibitors block the 4. Mitral stenosis is associated with 5. The most commonly recognized outcome of hypertension is pulmonary disease 6. Patients presenting w/ symptoms of unstable angina & no ST segment elevation are treated w/ 7. A patient has a history of falls, syncope, dizziness, and blurred vision. The patient’s symptomology is most likely related to 8. Which blood pressure reading is considered to be indicative of prehypertension according to the JNC7 criteria? 9. Which finding is indicative of orthostatic hypotension in a person with a supine blood pressure (BP) of 110/70 and a heart rate (HR) of 100? 10. Critically ill patients may have parenterally administered vasoactive drugs that are adjusted according to their ____ pressure 11. Hypertension w/ a specific, identifiable cause is known as ___ hypertension 12. Primary treatment for myocardial infarction (MI) is directed at 13. A patient w/ a history of myocardial infarction continues to complain of intermittent chest pain brought on by exertion and relieved by rest. The likely cause of this pain is. 14. Constrictive pericarditis is associated with 15. A patient with significant aortic stenosis is likely to experience 16. A middle-aged patient has a follow up visit for a recorded blood pressure of 162/96 mm Hg taken 3 weeks ago. The patient has no significant past medical history & takes no medications, but smokes 1 ½ packs of cigarettes per day, drinks alcohol regularly, & exercises infrequently. The patient is about 40 lbs. overweight & admits to a high-fat, high-calorie diet. At the office visit today, the patient’s blood pressure is 150/92 mm Hg. What is the least appropriate intervention for this patient at this time? A pressure gradient across the mitral valve False (cardiovascular disease) Antiplatelet drugs Hypotension 128/82 Sitting BP 88/60, HR 118 Mean arterial Secondary Decreasing myocardial oxygen demands Stable angina Impaired cardiac filling Syncope Begin antihypertensive drug therapy 17. Pulse pressure is defined as 18. Angina caused by coronary artery spasm is called ________ angina 19. Which serum biomarker(s) are indicative of irreversible damage to myocardial cells? 20. After being diagnosed w/hypertension, a patient returns to the clinic 6 weeks later. The patient reports “moderate” adherence to the recommended lifestyle changes & has experienced a decreased from 165/96 to 148/90 mm Hg in blood pressure. What is the most appropriate intervention for this patient at this time? 21. Disseminated intravascular coagulation is a serious complication of septic shock characterized by abnormal clot formation in the microvasculature throughout the body 22. Beta-blocker are advocated in the management of heart failure because they 23. Improvement in a patient w/ septic shock is indicated by an increase in 24. Sepsis has been recently redefined as 25. A laboratory test that should be routinely monitored in patients receiving digitalis therapy is 26. Cardiogenic shock is characterized by 27. Administration of which therapy is most appropriate for hypovolemic shock? 28. Which dysrhythmia is thought to be associated with reentrant mechanisms? 29. A patient w/ cold & edematous extremities, low cardiac output, and profound hypotension is likely to be experiencing a progressive stage of ______ shock. 30. A type of shock that includes brain trauma that results in depression of the vasomotor center is cardiogenic. 31. In contrast to all other types of shock, the hyperdynamic phase of septic shock is associated with 32. Left-sided heart failure is Systolic pressure – diastolic pressure Prinzmetal variant Elevated CK-MB, troponin I and troponin T Continue lifestyle modification only True Reduce cardiac output Systemic vascular resistance A systemic inflammatory response to INFECTION Serum POTASSIUM Reduced cardiac output Crystalloids Preexcitation syndrome tachycardia (WolfParkinson-White syndrome) Septic False (neurogenic) High cardiac output Pulmonary congestion characterized by The therapy that most directly improves cardiac contractility in a patient with systolic heart failure is 34. A patient who reports dizziness & who has absent P waves, wide QRS complexes, and a heart rate of 38 beats/minute on an ECG is most likely in which rhythm? 35. In which dysrhythmias should treatment be instituted immediately? 36. A patient is exhibiting severe dyspnea & anxiety. The patient also has bubbly crackles in all lung fields w/ pink, frothy sputum. This patient is most likely experiencing 37. The majority of tachydysrhythmias are believed to occur because of 38. Cor pulmonale refers to 33. 39. A patient who was involved in a fall from a tree becomes short of breath. The lung sounds are absent on one side. This patient is experiencing _____ shock. 40. In which stage of shock is a patient who has lost 1200 mL of blood, who has normal blood pressure when supine, but who experiences orthostatic hypotension upon standing Digitalis Ventricular escape rhythm Atrial fibrillation w/ a ventricular rate of 220 beats/minute Acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema Reentry mechanisms Right ventricular hypertrophy secondary to pulmonary hypertension Obstructive Class II, Compensated Stage Check Your Understanding (Chapters 22, 23, 24, 25) 1. Obstructive sleep apnea would most Pickwickian syndrome likely be found in a patient diagnosed with 2. A common characteristic of viral Dry cough pneumonia is 3. The most definitive diagnostic method Sputum culture for active tuberculosis is acquired via 4. What is likely to lead to hyponatremia? Frequent nasogastric tube irrigation with water 5. Emphysema results from destruction Release of proteolytic enzymes from immune of alveolar walls & capillaries, which is cells. because of 6. Bacterial pneumonia leads to Accumulation of alveolar exudates hypoxemia caused by 7. The primary cause of infant respiratory Lack of surfactant distress is 8. Copious amounts of foul-smelling Bronchiectasis sputum are generally associated with 9. When a parent of a toddler recently “It sounds like your child has a case of diagnosed w/ pneumococcal pneumonia asks why their child is so much sicker than a classmate was when they were diagnosed w/ pneumonia, the nurse replies 10. The increased anterior-posterior chest diameter associated with obstructive lung disease is caused by 11. If an individual has a fully compensated metabolic acidosis, the blood pH is 12. All obstructive pulmonary disorders are characterized by 13. Metabolic alkalosis is often accompanied by 14. Which disorder is caused by inhalation of organic substances? 15. A patient w/ a productive cough and parenchymal infiltrates on x-ray is demonstrating symptomology of 16. Chronic bronchitis often leads to cor pulmonale because of 17. An increase in the resting membrane potential (hyperpolarized) is associated with 18. Osmoreceptors located in the hypothalamus control the release of 19. Airway obstruction in chronic bronchitis is because of 20. Which is indicative of a left tension pneumothorax? 21. Two primary acid-base disorders that are present independently are referred to as 22. The _____ system compensates for metabolic acidosis and alkalosis 23. What form of oral rehydration, bottled water or salty broth, is suited for a patient who is demonstrating signs of clinical dehydration? 24. The imbalance that occurs w/ oliguric renal failure is 25. A person who has hyperparathyroidism is likely to develop 26. A person who experiences a panic attack & develops hyperventilation symptoms may experience 27. A person w/ acute hypoxemia may hyperventilate and develop 28. Excessive antidiuretic hormone bacterial pneumonia, while the classmate had viral pneumonia.” Increased residual lung volumes In the normal range Resistance to airflow Hypokalemia Hypersensitivity pneumonitis Bacterial pneumonia Increased pulmonary vascular resistance Hypokalemia Vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone, ADH) Thick mucus, fibrosis, and smooth muscle hypertrophy Absent breath sounds on the left Mixed acid-base imbalance Respiratory Salty soup, because it will provide some sodium to help hold the fluid in his blood vessels and interstitial fluid Hyperkalemia Hypercalcemia Numbness & tingling in the extremities Respiratory alkalosis Decreased serum sodium (ADH) secretion can cause ________ concentration 29. A patient diagnosed w/ chronic compensated heart failure reports that, “My feet swell if I eat salt, but I don’t understand why” The nurse’s best response is 30. Renal compensation for respiratory acidosis is evidenced by 31. Manifestations from sodium imbalances occur primarily as a result of 32. Causes of hypomagnesemia include 33. A patient has a positive Chvostek sign. The nurse interprets this as a sign of 34. Diarrhea and other lower intestinal fluid losses will contribute to metabolic acidosis. 35. What is the most likely explanation for a diagnosis of hypernatremia in an elderly patient receiving tube feeding? 36. How is a patient hospitalized w/ a malignant tumor that secretes parathyroid hormone-related peptide monitored for the resulting electrolyte imbalance? 37. The nurse provides teaching regarding dietary intake of potassium to avoid an electrolyte imbalance when a patient 38. Respiratory acidosis may be caused by 39. Respiratory alkalosis is caused by 40. Signs and symptoms of clinical dehydration include “Salt holds water in your blood & makes more pressure against your blood vessels, so fluid leaks out into your tissues and makes them swell.” Elevated bicarbonate ion concentration Cellular fluid shifts Chronic alcoholism Increased neuromuscular excitability Metabolic acidosis Inadequate water intake Serum calcium, bowel function, level of consciousness Has chronic heart failure that is treated with diuretics. Hypoventilation Hyperventilation Decreased urine output Check Your Understanding (Chapters 27, 28, 29, 31, 33) 1. A ureterocele is A cystic dilation of a ureter 2. A patient diagnosed with a micropenis Endocrine disorders must be evaluated for 3. Detrusor muscle overactivity can be Botulinum toxin improved by administration of 4. A patient injured severely in a motor “Your husband’s kidney injury did not start in vehicle accident is hospitalized w/ the kidney itself, but rather in the blood flow acute kidney injury as well as multiple to the kidney” broken bones & lacerations. When family members ask what is meant by the term ‘prerenal’, the nurse responds 5. The most common types of uterine tumors are known as 6. Cryptorchidism is 7. The prognosis of penile carcinoma depends upon the stage of the disease 8. Activation of parasympathetic nerves to the bladder will cause 9. The microorganism that causes the vast majority of urinary tract infections is 10. Infection by _____ accounts for nearly half of all reported cases of vulvovaginitis 11. Cervical cancer can be detected in the early, curable stage by the ______ test 12. A person is unaware that his bladder is full of urine but complains that he is leaking urine almost constantly. The most accurate term for this type of incontinence is 13. Phimosis is a disorder of the penis characterized by 14. A change occurring in a pregnant woman that is indicative of a potential disorder is 15. Absence of menstruation is called 16. A patient has ureteral colic. The manifestation that requires immediate notification of the physician is 17. Sexual impotence is rarely because of 18. Hypotension is both a cause of chronic kidney disease and a result of chronic kidney disease. 19. Excessive vomiting in pregnant women is known as 20. The expected treatment of a pregnant woman with hyperemesis gravidarum is 21. The type of glomerulonephritis which is most likely to result in a swift decline in renal function that then progresses to acute kidney injury 22. Which condition is caused by a genetic defect? 23. The main clinical manifestation of a kidney stone obstructing the ureter is 24. Signs consistent w/ a diagnosis Leiomyomas Associated with an increased incidence of testicular cancer. True Bladder contraction Escherichia coli Candida albicans Papanicolaou Overflow Inability to retract the foreskin Increased urinary protein Amenorrhea Chills and fever Primary causes False (Hypertension) Hyperemesis gravidarum Intravenous therapy Crescentic glomerulonephritis Polycystic kidney disease Renal colic Proteinuria of glomerulonephritis include One of the most common causes of acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is 26. A patient w/ gouty arthritis develops renal calculi. The composition of these calculi is most likely to be 27. Gastrointestinal drainage, perioperative and postoperative hypotension, and hemorrhage may all contribute to renal failure by causing 28. The individual at highest risk of pyelonephritis who requires monitoring for signs of its occurrence is the 29. Renal insufficiency occurs when ____ of the nephrons are not functional 30. Which intervention has been found to retard the advancement of chronic kidney disease? 31. The most common cause of intrinsic kidney injury is ______injury 32. The effect on the renal tubules during the post oliguric phase of acute tubular necrosis involves 33. In patients with polycystic kidney disease, renal failure is expected to progress over time as the cystic process destroys more nephrons. At what point will a patient reach endstage renal disease? 34. The infection frequently associated with development of postinfectious acute glomerulonephritis is 35. The oliguric phase of acute tubular necrosis is characterized by 36. The organism most commonly associated w/ acute pyelonephritis is 37. What problem is a patient likely to experience in end-stage renal disease? 38. A patient who reported a very painful sore throat 3 weeks ago is now diagnosed w/ acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. When asked, “Why is my urine the color of coffee”, the nurse responds 39. The major cause of glomerulonephritis is 40. One cause of an extrinsic renal system obstruction is 25. Ischemic conditions Uric acid cystals Acute tubular necrosis Man, who has chronic urinary tract infections 75% to 90% ACE Inhibitors Tubular Regeneration of the renal tubular epithelium Greater than 90% nephron loss Throat infection Fluid excess & electrolyte imbalance Escherichia coli Uremia “Your immune system was activated by your sore throat & has caused some damage in your kidneys that allows red blood cells to leak into the fluid that becomes urine and make it coffee-colored” Immune system damage to the glomeruli Pelvic tumor Check Your Understanding (Chapters 36, 37, 38, 40, 41) 1. A biliary cause of acute pancreatitis is suggested by an elevation in which serum laboratory results? 2. Constipation in an elderly patient can be best treated by 3. More than half of the initial cases of pancreatitis are associated with 4. Untreated acute cholecystitis may lead to ____ of the gallbladder wall 5. Brain injury secondary to high serum bilirubin is called 6. It is true that gallstones are 7. Dumping syndrome is commonly seen after ___ procedures 8. Chronic pancreatitis may lead to 9. Rupture of esophageal varices is a complication of cirrhosis with portal hypertension and carries a high ______ rate 10. Pathophysiologically, esophageal varices can be attributed to 11. Esophageal varices represent a complication of ___ hypertension 12. A patient with chronic gastritis would likely be tested for 13. A silent abdomen 3 hours after bowel surgery most likely indicates 14. It is true that biliary cancer 15. Jaundice is a common manifestation of 16. What finding would rule out a diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome in a patient with chronic diarrhea? 17. The most common cause of mechanical bowel obstruction is 18. Elevated serum lipase and amylase levels are indicative of 19. Patients w/ acute pancreatitis are generally made NPO and may require continuous gastric suctioning in order to 20. An urgent surgical consult is indicated for the patient with acute abdominal pain and 21. A type of insulin that would be most appropriate for acute management of hyperglycemia is 22. Proton pump inhibitors may be used in the management of peptic ulcer disease to 23. Epigastric pain that is relieved Alkaline phosphatase Increasing fiber in the diet Alcoholism Gangrene Kernicterus More common in women Gastric bypass Diabetes mellitus Mortality Portal hypertension Portal Helicobacter pylori Functional bowel obstruction Tend to be asymptomatic and progress insidiously Liver disease Bloody stools Adhesions Pancreatitis Remove the usual stimuli for pancreatic secretion Absent bowel sounds Regular Decrease hydrochloric acid (HCl) secretion Gastric ulcer by food is suggestive of The formation of active vitamin D 25. Aldosterone secretion is regulated by the presence of _______ in the circulation 26. ________Is the most powerful predictor of developing type 2 diabetes mellitus 27. Diabetic neuropathy is thought to result from 28. A tumor which results in excessive production and release of catecholamines is 29. Diabetes insipidus is a condition that 30. What clinical finding would suggest an esophageal cause of a client’s report of dysphagia? 31. Which symptom suggests the presence of hiatal hernia? 32. It is true that the synthesis of thyroid hormones 33. A patient reporting vision changes, photophobia, and lid lag may exhibit signs of 34. A laboratory finding that would help confirm the diagnosis of hyperaldosteronism is 35. Which response to an injection of ACTH indicates a primary adrenal insufficiency? 36. Steatohepatitis is caused by an accumulation of ______ in the liver cells 37. A patient presenting w/ muscle cramps, fatigue, anxiety, depression, and prolonged Q-T intervals on EKG may be showing symptoms of 38. In the United States, nearly ______ people have diabetes mellitus. 39. The American Diabetes Association recommends a postprandial blood glucose level of ____ mg/dL for adults with diabetes 40. A clinical finding that is consistent with a diagnosis of adrenocortical insufficiency is 24. Is impaired in renal failure Angiotensin II Obesity Decreased myoinositol transport Pheochromocytoma Results from inadequate ADH secretion Chest pain during meals Heartburn Is inhibited by iodine deficiency Grave’s disease Hypokalemia No change in serum glucocorticoid level Fat Hypoparathyroidism 29.1 million Less than 180 Hypoglycemia Check Your Understanding (Chapters 44, 45, 47, 51, 52) 1. One of the most common causes of Headache acute pain is 2. A compound, transverse fracture is Broken and protruding through the skin best described as a bone that is 3. “Tell me again the name of that chemical that makes crystals when my gout flares up,” asks the client. The nurse’s best response is 4. Ankylosing spondylitis causes 5. “Please explain the pathophysiology of osteoarthritis to me,” says another nurse. “Is it just wear and tear so that the cartilage wears out?” Your best response is 6. The most common source of osteomyelitis is 7. A unique characteristic feature of fibromyalgia is the presence of 8. The pathophysiology of rheumatoid arthritis involves 9. The most common symptom of multiple myeloma is 10. Enteropathic arthritis is associated with 11. The pain of nonarticular rheumatism “growing pain” is worse 12. Inflammation of the sacs that overlie bony prominences is called 13. Rheumatoid arthritis is commonly associated with the presence of rheumatoid factor autoantibodies in the bloodstream. This indicates that rheumatoid arthritis is likely to be 14. In contrast to osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis may be associated with 15. A fracture in which bone breaks into two or more fragments is referred to as 16. Gouty arthritis is a complication of 17. Pain that waxes and wanes and is exacerbated by physical exertion is likely related to 18. Rheumatoid arthritis involves joint inflammation caused by 19. A laboratory test result that helps confirm the diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is 20. The disorders characterized by softening and then enlargement of bones is referred to as 21. The stroke etiology with the highest morbidity and mortality is Uric acid Intervertebral joint fusion “No; cells in bone, cartilage, and the synovial membrane all get activated and secrete inflammatory mediators that destroy cartilage and damage bone.” An infection that migrates via the bloodstream Tender point pain Immune cells accumulating in pannus and destroying articular cartilage Bone pain Inflammatory bowel disease During the night Bursitis An autoimmune process Systemic aching in the Musculo skeletal system. Comminuted Inadequate renal excretion of uric acid Fibromyalgia syndrome Autoimmune injury Positive antinuclear antibodies Paget disease Intracranial hemorrhage 22. Slow pain sensation is transmitted primarily by 23. Secondary injury after head trauma refers to 24. Upper extremity weakness in association with degeneration of CNS neurons is characteristic of 25. It is recommended that women of childbearing age take folic acid daily for prevention of 26. ______ occurs when a brainstem impaired patient exhibits a persistent rhythmic or jerky movement in one or both eyes 27. Rupture of a cerebral aneurysm should be suspected if the patient reports 28. The primary reason that prolonged seizure activity predisposes to ischemic brain damage is that 29. Subarachnoid hemorrhage is usually managed with volume expansion and blood pressure support to enhance cerebral perfusion. This is necessary because subarachnoid hemorrhage predisposes to 30. What type of seizure usually occurs in children and is characterized by brief staring spells? 31. Which neurologic disorder is commonly referred to as Lou Gehrig disease? 32. Complete healing of a bone fracture occurs when 33. In older women, osteoporosis is thought to be primarily because of 34. An example of inappropriate treatment for head trauma would be 35. Seizures that involve both hemispheres at the outset are termed 36. Leakage of CSF from the nose or ears is commonly associated with 37. Intracranial pressure normally ranges from ____mm Hg 38. Pain is thought of as 39. The gate control theory of pain transmission predicts that activity in touch receptors will 40. The initial treatment of an individual experiencing a seizure is concentrated on Unmyelinated C fibers Brain injury resulting from the body’s response to tissue damage Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis Neural tube defects Nystagmus Sudden, severe headache The lack of airway maintenance can lead to hypoxia Cerebral vasospasm Absence Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis The callus has been completely replaced w/ mature bone Estrogen deficiency Hypoventilation Generalized Basilar skull fracture 0 to 15 A subjective experience that is difficult to measure objectively Decrease pain signal transmission in the spinal cord Maintaining an airway