Ch 4. Communations

Chapter 4 Multiple Choice 1. A. Ethnocentrism is defined as: understanding that people from different cultural backgrounds respond to pain and stress differently. B. suspecting that a person has an ulterior motive based on the tone of his or her voice when answering a question. C. subconsciously forcing your cultural values onto a patient because you feel that yours are more acceptable. D. considering your own cultural values as more important when interacting with people of a different culture. 2. A. B. C. D. 3. A. B. C. D. You are dispatched to the residence of an Asian family for a child with a high fever. When you assess the child, you note that he has numerous red marks on his back. The childÕs parents explain that these marks represent coiningÑa traditional Asian healing practice in which hot coins are rubbed on the back. You should: advise the childÕs parents that this is a harmful practice and is considered a form of child abuse in the United States. acknowledge and respect this practice as a cultural belief, but advise the childÕs parents that it has no healing power. document this on your patient care report and advise the emergency department staff of what the childÕs parents told you. advise the emergency department physician that you feel as though the child was intentionally abused by his parents. You are assessing a 75-year-old woman with mild shortness of breath. As you are asking her questions regarding her chief complaint and medical history, you progressively move closer and closer to her. In doing this, it is important to remember that: placing yourself in the patientÕs personal space is relaying to her that you can be trusted. as you physically get closer to the patient, a greater and greater sense of trust must be established. it is necessary to enter an older personÕs intimate space because the elderly are typically hearing impaired. a patientÕs personal space should not be violated, regardless of any barriers that may hamper communication. 4. A. B. C. D. 5. A. B. C. D. 6. A. B. C. D. 7. A. B. C. D. 8. A. B. C. D. A 60-year-old man complains of chest pain. He is conscious and alert and denies shortness of breath. Which of the following questions would be the MOST appropriate to ask him? ÒWere you exerting yourself when the chest pain began?Ó ÒDoes the pain in your chest move to either of your arms?Ó ÒDoes the pain in your chest feel like a stabbing sensation?Ó ÒDo you have any heart problems or take any medications?Ó You are interviewing a 52-year-old man who complains of chest discomfort. The patient is a retired paramedic and is very anxious because he thinks he is having a heart attack. Which of the following statements would be appropriate to say? ÒIt is possible that you are experiencing a heart attack. I am going to give you four baby aspirin to chew and swallow.Ó ÒI notice that you are a retired paramedic, so IÕm sure you will understand all of the things that we will be doing to you.Ó ÒThis is nothing to worry about. Please try to stay calm. The physician at the hospital will probably not find any signs of a heart problem.Ó ÒWe need to take you to the ED stat. We will give you ASA and NTG en route and then reassess your vitals. Do you have any questions?Ó Calming and reassuring an anxious patient can be facilitated by: maintaining eye contact with the patient whenever possible. using medical terminology to ensure the patient understands. positioning yourself at a level that is higher than the patient. withholding unpleasant information until arrival at the hospital. During your assessment of a 20-year-old man with a severe headache and nausea, you ask him when his headache began, but he does not answer your question immediately. You should: repeat your question because he probably did not hear you. allow him time to think about the question and respond to it. ask him if he frequently experiences severe headaches and nausea. tell him that you cannot help him unless he answers your questions. In what manner should you act and speak with a patient? passive authoritative loud and official calm and confident 9. A. B. C. D. When communicating with an older patient, it is important to remember that: your questions should focus exclusively on the patientÕs obvious problem. most older people think clearly and are capable of answering questions. hostility and confusion should be presumed to be due to the patientÕs age. speaking loudly and distinctly will ensure that the patient can hear you. 10. A 4-year-old boy had an apparent seizure. He is conscious and calm and is sitting on his motherÕs lap. His father is sitting in a nearby chair. The childÕs mother suddenly begins crying uncontrollably, which causes the child to start crying. You should: A. consider asking the father to hold the child so you can assess him while your partner tries to calm the mother. B. give the child a favorite toy or blanket to hold onto and perform your assessment to the best of your ability. C. reassure the childÕs mother that seizures in children are very common and that there is nothing to worry about. D. attempt to calm the childÕs mother, but avoid separating her from her child because this will increase her anxiety. 11. A. B. C. D. Which of the following statements regarding communication with a child is MOST correct? Most children are intrigued by strangers wearing uniforms. Give the child minimal information to avoid scaring him or her. Standing over a child often increases his or her level of anxiety. Unlike adults, children cannot see through lies or deceptions. 12. Communicating with hearing-impaired patients can be facilitated by doing all of the following, EXCEPT: A. shining a light on your face when you are in a darkened environment. B. elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation. C. placing yourself in a position to ensure that the patient can see your lips. D. providing pen and paper if the patient prefers to write his or her response. 13. When communicating with a visually impaired patient, you should: A. determine the degree of the patientÕs impairment. B. expect him or her to have difficulty understanding. C. recall that most visually impaired patients are blind. D. possess an in-depth knowledge of sign language. 14. You and your partner are dispatched to a residence for an Òill person.Ó When you arrive, you find that the patient, a 44-year-old man, does not speak English. There are no relatives or bystanders present who can act as an interpreter. You should: A. give the patient oxygen, assess his vital signs, and transport him to the hospital in a position of comfort. B. speak to the patient with a moderately louder voice to facilitate his ability to understand what you are saying. C. use short, simple questions and point to specific parts of your body to try to determine the source of the patientÕs complaint. D. refrain from performing any assessment or treatment until you can contact someone who can function as an interpreter. 15. As you are wheeling your patient through the emergency department doors, you receive another call for a major motor vehicle crash. You should: A. place the patient in a high-visibility area and then respond to the call. B. inform the admissions clerk of the situation and then respond at once. C. leave a copy of the run form with a nurse and then respond to the call. D. respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse or physician. 16. The official transfer of patient care does not occur until the EMT: A. gives a radio report to the receiving medical facility. B. notifies the admitting clerk of their arrival at the hospital. C. informs dispatch of their arrival at the emergency department. D. gives an oral report to the emergency room physician or nurse. 17. When you begin an oral report, you should state the patientÕs age, sex, and: A. chief complaint. B. any known allergies. C. past medical history. D. the emergency care given. 18. Typical components of an oral patient report include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. the chief complaint or mechanism of injury. B. important medical history not previously given. C. the set of baseline vital signs taken at the scene. D. the patientÕs response to treatment you provided. 19. The patient care report (PCR) ensures: A. research data. B. legal protection. C. quality assurance. D. continuity of care. 20. Your EMS system uses a computerized PCR in which you fill in the information electronically and then send it to the emergency department via a secure Internet server. The PCR has a comprehensive series of drop-down boxes, which are used to identify your assessment findings and specify the treatment that you provided; it also has a section for your narrative. When completing your PCR after a call, you should: A. defer the narrative only if the information in the drop-down boxes accurately reflects the assessment and treatment that you performed. B. complete a thorough and accurate narrative because drop-down boxes cannot provide all of the information that needs to be documented. C. enter all of the pertinent information of the electronic PCR, but then print it out and provide a copy to the emergency department staff. D. avoid documenting personally identifiable information, such as the patientÕs name, because the PCR could be intercepted during transmission. 21. Which of the following statements is NOT appropriate to document in the narrative section of a PCR? A. ÒGeneral impression revealed that the patient was intoxicated.Ó B. ÒSignificant damage was noted to the front end of the vehicle.Ó C. ÒThe patient admits to smoking marijuana earlier in the day.Ó D. ÒAfter oxygen was administered, the patientÕs breathing improved.Ó 22. All information recorded on the PCR must be: A. typewritten or printed. B. considered confidential. C. a matter of public record. D. reflective of your opinion. 23. After delivering your patient to the hospital, you sit down to complete the PCR. When documenting the patientÕs last blood pressure reading, you inadvertently write 120/60 instead of 130/70. To correct this mistake, you should: A. draw a single horizontal line through the error, initial it, and write the correct data next to it. B. attempt to erase the error, initial it, and then write the correct data on a separate addendum. C. cover the error with correction fluid and simply write the patientÕs actual blood pressure over it. D. leave the error on your PCR but inform the staff of the patientÕs actual blood pressure. 24. A patientÕs refusal for EMS treatment and/or transport must be: A. an informed refusal. B. authorized by a judge. C. reported to the police. D. witnessed by a notary. 25. Which of the following statements regarding a patient refusal is MOST correct? A. A patient who consumed a few beers will likely be able to refuse EMS treatment. B. Advice given to a patient who refuses EMS treatment should not be documented. C. A mentally competent adult has the legal right to refuse EMS care and transport. D. Documentation of proposed care is unnecessary if the patient refuses treatment. 26. Despite numerous, sincere efforts to convince a 40-year-old man to consent to EMS treatment and transport, he refuses. After explaining the potential consequences of his refusal and determining that he has decision-making capacity, you ask him to sign an EMS refusal form, but he refuses to do that as well. You should: A. sign the refusal form, include the date and time, and have your partner witness it with his or her signature. B. document the patientÕs refusal, but leave the refusal form blank because only the patient can legally sign it. C. advise the patient that unless he signs the refusal form, he cannot legally refuse EMS treatment or transport. D. ask a family member, law enforcement officer, or bystander to sign the form verifying that the patient refused to sign. 27. Which of the following incidents does NOT require a report to be filed with local authorities? A. spousal abuse B. animal bites C. cardiac arrest D. gunshot wounds 28. Any radio hardware containing a transmitter and receiver that is located in a fixed location is called a: A. repeater. B. multiplex. C. mobile radio. D. base station. 29. Which of the following statements regarding a Òdedicated lineÓ is MOST correct? A. It is an exclusive frequency that is used by EMTs to communicate with each other in the field. B. It is a constantly open line of communication that cannot be accessed by outside users. C. It is a designated frequency on a portable radio that provides direct access to medical control. D. It is a constantly open line of communication that is under exclusive control of a single user. 30. While at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you determine that there are two critically injured patients and that another ambulance is needed. You attempt to contact the dispatcher with your portable radio but are unsuccessful. You should: A. reattempt to contact dispatch from an area of higher terrain. B. place both patients in the ambulance and transport at once. C. ask a police officer to call dispatch with his portable radio. D. use the mobile radio in the ambulance to contact dispatch. 31. Which of the following has the weakest transmission signal and, as a result, is LEAST likely to be heard by the party being called? A. multiplex base station B. land-base repeater station C. mobile repeater station D. hand-held portable radio 32. A ___________ receives messages and signals on one frequency and then automatically retransmits them on a second frequency. A. duplex B. scanner C. repeater D. decoder 33. What type of communications equipment functions as a radio receiver and searches across several frequencies? A. scanner B. duplex station C. simplex station D. mobile repeater 34. Two-way communication that requires the EMT to Òpush to talkÓ and Òrelease to listenÓ describes what mode of communication? A. duplex B. simplex C. multiplex D. mediplex 35. Which of the following is NOT a function of the Federal Communications Commission (FCC)? A. monitoring all radio traffic and conducting field spot checks B. maintaining communications equipment on the ambulance C. licensing base stations and assigning appropriate radio call signs D. allocating specific radio frequencies for use by EMS providers 36. During the alert and dispatch phase of EMS communications, the dispatcherÕs responsibilities include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. discouraging the caller from providing care until the EMS unit arrives. B. selecting and notifying the correct EMS response units and personnel. C. screening and assigning a priority to each call based on local protocols. D. coordinating responding EMS units with other public safety personnel. 37. After being dispatched on an emergency call, you should expect the dispatcher to provide you with all of the following information, EXCEPT: A. the time at which your unit was dispatched. B. the number of patients involved in the incident. C. other agencies that are responding to the scene. D. the general geographic location of the incident. 38. Immediately after being dispatched to a residence for an elderly patient with diabetic complications, you should: A. confirm with dispatch that you received the call information. B. ask the dispatcher to obtain a medical history from the caller. C. ask the dispatcher if the patient is conscious or unconscious. D. request that law enforcement secure the scene before you arrive. 39. When relaying patient information via radio, communications should be: A. brief and easily understood. B. coded and scripted. C. spoken in a loud voice. D. lengthy and complete. 40. You are transporting a 54-year-old male in cardiac arrest. An EMR is driving the ambulance as you and your partner attempt to resuscitate the patient. What is the MOST logical way of notifying the hospital? A. Call the receiving hospital with your cellular phone as you attempt resuscitation. B. Have the driver contact dispatch and relay the patient information to the hospital. C. Request that a police officer respond to the hospital to apprise them of your arrival. D. Wait until you arrive at the hospital and then quickly apprise them of the situation. 41. General guidelines for effective radio communications include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. speaking in a clear, calm, monotone voice. B. acknowledging a transmission as soon as possible. C. using 10 codes to ensure radio traffic confidentiality. D. holding the microphone about 2" to 3" from your mouth. 42. When communicating information over the radio, you should: A. respond professionally by saying ÒpleaseÓ and Òthank you.Ó B. use the words ÒaffirmativeÓ and ÒnegativeÓ instead of ÒyesÓ or Òno.Ó C. limit any single transmission to 60 seconds or less and use 10 codes. D. use the patientÕs name only when communicating with the hospital. 43. When providing a patient report via radio, you should protect the patientÕs privacy by: A. using coded medical language. B. not disclosing his or her name. C. withholding medical history data. D. refraining from objective statements. 44. Information included in a radio report to the receiving hospital should include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. your perception of the severity of the problem. B. a preliminary diagnosis of the patientÕs problem. C. a brief history of the patientÕs current problem. D. a brief summary of the care you provided. 45. You could be sued for ___________ if your radio report to the hospital describes the patient in a manner that injures his or her reputation. A. libel B. assault C. slander D. negligence 46. When obtaining patient care orders from a physician via a two-way radio, it is MOST important to remember that: A. his or her instructions are based on the information you provide. B. the use of 10 codes is an effective method of communication. C. all orders should be carried out immediately and without question. D. the physician may or may not be located within your service area. 47. After receiving online orders from medical control to perform a patient care intervention, you should: A. perform the intervention as ordered. B. confirm the order in your own words. C. ask the physician to repeat the order. D. repeat the order to medical control word for word. 48. Medical control gives you an order that seems inappropriate for the patientÕs condition. After confirming that you heard the physician correctly, you should: A. carry out the order and then carefully document it on the run form. B. advise the physician that the order is unclear and ask for clarification. C. state that you will not carry out the order because it is inappropriate. D. obtain consent from the patient and then carry out the order as usual. 49. Which of the following statements regarding standing orders is MOST correct? A. Standing orders have less legal authority than orders given via radio. B. Standing orders require you to contact medical control first. C. Standing orders only highlight the care that you may provide. D. Standing orders should be followed when physician contact is not possible. 50. You and your partner are attempting to resuscitate a middle-aged female in cardiac arrest. Because of the remote location you are in, you are unable to contact medical control. What should you do? A. Perform CPR only and initiate immediate transport. B. Make continuous attempts to contact medical control. C. Ask the husband if he wants to continue resuscitation. D. Follow locally established protocols or standing orders.