Cumulative Exam Review

UNIT 1 This type of medical imaging is best when you want to visualize structures that differ in density Radiography  This system contains glandular tissue that releases hormones to regulate homeostasis (controlled conditions) in the body. Endocrine  A(n) _____ membrane has a parietal layer and a visceral layer. Serous membrane  A _____ plane divides the body into left and right. Sagittal  Which of the below choices does not conform to anatomical position? Palms facing backwards This level of organization is the smallest unit of organization that carries out all the life processes Cellular level  The levels of structural organization from least complex to most complex are as follows: Chemical, cellular, tissue, organ, system  The hollow space within a blood vessel or the respiratory tract, for example, that contains blood or air, respectively, is called the _____. Lumen  This is an example of a _____ plane. Frontal  This system uses electrical impulses to communicate with other body systems and maintain homeostasis (controlled conditions). Nervous A _____ membrane is the only non-epithelial membrane and is found between movable joints (articulations) in the body Synovial  The _____ cavity contains the lungs and heart. Thoracic  These structures are part of the plasma membrane and allow substances that cannot freely pass the plasma membrane passage across the membrane when appropriate. They have other functions as well such as enzymes and receptors. Integral proteins If a cell is not dividing, DNA will be in found wrapped around histone proteins in a long thread-like structure called a _____. Chromatin fiber     Cumulative Exam Review 1/31  These structures are only seen in meiosis and involve pairing (synapsis) of the maternal and paternal homologous chromosomes. The crossing-over that generates genetic variability also occurs in this structure. Tetrads    This type of cell division involves two divisions and is the only time when homologous chromosomes are separated. Meiosis Mitosis Cytokinesis  This membranous organelle receives peptides from the ribosomes, then modifies them, and packages them in vesicles for transport in the cell, to the plasma membrane, or outside the cell. Golgi  Cells that have _____ can move substances across their surfaces (e.g., ova in the uterine tubes and mucus in the upper respiratory tract) Cilia  These are anatomically distinct structures, each with their own set of functions, that can be found suspended in the cytosol. Organelles  These structures in the membrane enclosing the nucleus allow recently transcribe messenger RNA to exit the nucleus on their way to a ribosome. Nuclear pores  Chromosomes are only found in the _____. Nucleus  This part of the cell forms a barrier between the intracellular and extracellular fluid Cytoplasm  The most abundant molecules in the plasma membrane are _____. (i.e. the plasma membrane is made up mostly of _____). Phospholipids  The ground substance of blood, a liquid connective tissue, is _____. Plasma  The intervertebral joints and pubic symphysis is composed of _____. Fibrocartilage  This type of cell junction can usually be found joining the lateral surfaces of epithelial cells (and cardiac muscle cells) and interacts with the intermediate filaments of the cytoskeleton. It involves a small cluster of transmembrane proteins that bind to a plaque beneath the plasma membrane. Desmosome  This epithelial arrangement (single layer of flat, scale-like cells) would be termed _____ epithelium. Simple squamous  When a clot breaks away and causes an embolism or heart attack, the clot is blocking the _____ of the affected artery. Lumen Match the muscular tissue with its characteristics. 2/31    Skeletal: multinucleate, long and unbranched, strained, voluntary Cardiac: uninucleate, striated, branching cells; intercalated discs, involuntary Smooth: uninucleate, spindle-shaped cells, non-striated, involuntary; found in walls of many hollow organs  If there is a surface that lines a cavity, the lumen of an organ, or the surface of an organism it will be lined with _____ tissue. Epithelial  This type of epithelium can be found in most of the upper respiratory system where microbes and debris must be trapped an moved up towards the pharynx for spitting out or swallowing. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium     Match the epithelial tissues to their location in the human body. Simple squamous epithelium: gas exchange surfaces in the lungs, mesothelium, endothelium Simple cuboidal epithelium: thyroid follicles, most kidney tubules, smaller exocrine ducts, outer lining of the ovaries. Simple columnar epithelium: digestive tract, gall bladder Transitional epithelium: urinary bladder, ureters, proximal urethra  The _____ of an epithelial cell binds the epithelial layer to the underlying connective tissue. Basal  What type of muscle tissue would you find in the walls of organs such as the digestive tract, respiratory tract, blood vessels, and many ducts of the urinary and reproductive systems? Smooth muscle  The _____ surface of all surface epithelial cells is exposed to the lumen or the exterior. Apical  Mucous membranes would likely contain which type of cell? Goblet cell  The _____ is responsible for the contractions that expel the fetus during parturition (child birth). Myometrium  Blocks of embryonic connective tissue called _____, forms the dermis, vertebral column, and most skeletal muscles. Somite  The developing conceptus derives nutrients from the _____. Decidua basalis  Chloasma is a darkening of some parts of the skin, especially of the cheeks, areolae, and nipples that generally begins _____. In the second trimester  The extraembryonic membrane that surrounds the entire fetus and all the other membranes is the _____, and forms completely from the embryonic trophoblast. Chorion  The endometrium would be found in the _____. Uterus This population cells derived from the embryoblast will form the future embryo. 3/31  Epiblast  The _____ is responsible for the contractions that expel the fetus during parturition (child birth). Myometrium  This part of the conceptus (developing human) will not become any part of the fetus later in development. Trophoblast  The cell released from the ovary during ovulation is the _____. Secondary oocyte  The trophoblast splits into two layers early on in development that are important to placental development. The cells of the _____, the outermost layer, fuse to a large multinucleate structure that digests the maternal uterine wall until it reaches the maternal uterine blood vessels. Syncytiotrophoblast   (Choose all that apply) it takes a lot of sperm cells to penetrate through the _____ and _____ surrounding the female gamete Zona pellucida Corona radiata  At the start of the _____, all of the organ systems are formed, but not all are yet functional (e.g., lungs) or fully functional (e.g., kidneys) Fetal period UNIT 2  Of the two types of sweat glands, this type is positioned more superficially and is active during thermoregulation. Eccrine  This layer of the epidermis is superficial to the stratum basale. It is the site of metabolically active cells that accumulate keratin as they move toward the epidermal surface. Stratum spinosum  If a genetic mutation affected the formation of collagen, such as Marfan syndrome, this layer of the integument would be disproportionately affected The dermis  There are three distinct tissue layers that make up the epidermis. The intermediate of those tissues is termed the _____. Adipose tissue  The body of a fetus is covered in _____ hair(s). Lanugo  These glands open to the base of each hair shaft and secrete oils that keep the skin and hairs healthy. Sebaceous  This is some histology you would see in the dermis. Which term below would you associate most closely with the oblique band of tissue containing spindle-shaped cells with prominent and elongate nuclei (smooth muscle) in the left-hand side of this image. Sebaceous 4/31  Which sensory structure would be found in the deepest portions of the dermis and upper subcutaneous layers? Lamellated corpuscles  The highlighted portion of this image contains a structure in the dermis that is, in part, composed of dead keratinocytes Hair  The sweat glands that become active at puberty. Apocrine sweat glands  In this layer of the epidermis, apoptosis (cell death) begins and lamellar granules full of waxes and lipids are apparent histologically. Stratum lucidum  This cell forms the superficial part of a type I cutaneous mechanoreceptor. Keratinocyte  One way to tell the difference between an x-ray of a child and the x-ray of an adult is the child's radiograph would show the presence of _____ near the metaphysis of the long bones. Epiphyseal plates  The secondary ossification center that forms during endochondral ossification of a long bone forms in the _____. Epiphysis  If this tissue found in bones were to stop functioning, we would no longer be able to produce new blood cells. Red bone marrow  Bones with epiphyses, metaphases, and a diaphysis are classified as _____ bones. Long  The humerus and femur share these bone markings that are the sites of muscle tendon attachment Tubercles  These highlighted structures below are long and shaped like columns or beams. They are the basic structural unit of the compact bone. Osteons  The diaphysis would be composed almost exclusively of _____. Compact bone tissue  You would expect to find the tendons of muscles attached to _____. A tubercle or tuberosity  These tiny channels allow osteocytes to connect to neighboring osteocytes in bone tissue to facilitate the transfer of nutrients and waste to cells farther away from the blood supply. Canaliculi  We can refer to the intermediate most portion of a bone, composed predominantly of compact bone tissue, as the _____. Articular cartilage  What is the anatomical structure seen in fracture repair that would be laid down by chondrocytes? Fibrocartilage callus 5/31  The proximal and distal ends of a long bone would be supplied by _____. Epiphyseal arteries  Once, as a kid, I fell backwards and cracked my skull right at the _____ suture that separated the occipital and parietal bones. (not a true story) Lambdoid  This highlighted structure articulates the vertebral column and the coxal (hip) bones. Sacrum  The bone highlighted forms the posterior portion of the hard palate. Which bone forms the anterior portion of the hard palate? Maxillary  If you found skeletal remains and noticed that the skull displayed the following features: pronounced supraorbital ridge, rounded projecting glabella, and a mandibular angle near 90 degrees you would suggest the skull belonged to a Male  This blunt projection off the inferolateral portion of the temporal bone is a site for muscle attachment Styloid process  Name the structure around the highlighted area that provides a space where you would find the anterior and posterior pituitary glands Sella turcica  I am a type of vertebrae that has thick, blunt, squared-off, and posteriorly facing spinous processes. I also boast the largest vertebral body of any other non-fused vertebrae. Lumbar  Which type of vertebrae am I describing: This is the only type of vertebrae that articulates with the ribs; it also have long, slender, downward-pointing spinous processes Thoracic vertebrae  This part of the rib articulates with the demi facets found on some vertebrae Head  This is the superior most portion of the sternum Manubrium  Ribs 8-10 (shortest test question ever!) False ribs  Which of the following bones does not contain one of the paranasal sinuses Nasal bone  This structure, formed by projections from both the temporal and the bone just anterior to it, can be easily palpated between the eyes and the external ears. It provides attachment for one of the muscles that closes the jaw (the masseter). Zygomatic arch  Of the 2 bones found in the leg, the fibula is the medial of the two False 6/31  Instead of having 15 phalangeal bones, we have 14…because the _____ phalange is a slacker and only has 2 phalangeal bones while the rest have three. First  Name the highlighted carpal bone (distal row, third from lateral, articulates with digit 3) Capitate  This feature of the posterior side of the distal end of the ulna can be palpated just superior to the carpal region in the distal, posterolateral, antebrachium Styloid process  On the distal end of the fibula, this easily palpated structure is the major skeletal region damages in a Pott's fracture Lateral malleolus  You know you are looking at the _____ aspect of the femur when you can see that the intertrochanteric crest and lines alba. Posterior  The _____ of the scapula articulates with the head of the humerus Glenoid fossa (cavity)  This bone of the pectoral girdle has a general S-shaped with a medial sternal end that articulates with the sternum. Clavicle  This sesamoid bone is positioned anteriorly with the femur above the tibia below Patella  Of the three pelvic bones, this one is the most posterior an inferior. Ischium  The structure of the distal humerus articulates with the head of the radius to form a pivot joint allowing pronation and supination of the forearm. Capitulum  This is the anterior-most of the three pelvic bones and the only one that has a superior and inferior remus. How cool! Pubis  This fossa of the distal humerus makes room for the proximal-most structure of the ulna when the elbow joint is fully extended, such as in anatomical position. Coronoid fossa UNIT 3  Starting in anatomical position and rising your arms along a frontal plane to your body is an example of Abduction  This is the type of movement seen in all ball-and-socket and pivot joints Rotation  The bones of the cranial skeleton are united by _____. Suture joints 7/31  This structure prevents posterior displacement of the femur at the knee joint. Medial (tibial) collateral ligament  The temporomandibular joint consists of one _____ separating two _____. Articular disc; synovial cavities  The pubic symphysis is composed of _____. Fibrocartilage  This is the type of movement seen in most intertarsal and intercarpal joints Gliding  An articular capsule consisting of two membranous layers, and articular cartilage between the bones, are features of this type of joint. Synovial joints  The elbow and knee joints are examples of _____. Hinge joint   With the antebrachium (forearm) parallel to the ground, palms facing superiorly (up) occurs with supination and palms facing inferiorly (down) occurs with pronation. Answer 1: supination Answer 2: pronation  Tendons are thicker bands of dense regular connective in the fibrous membrane of a synovial joint. False  Inversion and eversion are two movements of the _____. Ankle joint      This ligament binds the head of the radius to the proximal radial notch of the ulna Annular ligament  This type of articulation is held together by a sheath of dense irregular connective tissue. The distal tibiofibular joint is an example. Synostosis  If you witnessed a sarcomere contracting, which is the only zone/band that would remain the same length? I-Band  This type of muscle tissue, pictured here, allows structures such as this blood vessel (highlighted to dilate and constrict to meet the varying demands of our body tissues. Smooth muscle tissue  This large structural protein found in myofibrils travels from z-disc to z-disc and imparts the property of elasticity intrinsic to muscle tissue Titin 8/31     Match the connective tissue with the muscle structure it immediately surrounds Organ (whole muscle): fascia Fascicle: epimysium Muscle fiber: perimysium Muscle compartment: endomysium  Most tendons are rope-like, but _____, like the one that connects the frontal and parietal portions of the occipitofrontalis muscle are flat and sheetlike. Sarcolemma  You would find the regulatory proteins troponin and tropomyosin on _____. Thick filaments  This enzyme is present in the synaptic cleft to and is responsible to degrading the neurotransmitter responsible for initiating muscle action potentials and allowing a muscle to relax Acetylcholinesterase  If your muscle mass increases, but the number of cells does not increase, _____ is responsible for the increased muscle mass. Hypertrophy  This important structural protein is necessary to transmit tension from the shortening sarcomeres to the sarcolemma and surrounding connective tissues. Troponin  The junctions between cardiac muscle fibers contain desmosomes and gap junctions to tightly bind cardiac myocytes together and allow them to share cytoplasm, respectively. They ensure that all cardiac myocytes are stimulated to contract as a single unit. Intercalated discs  These are specialized organelles that store calcium ions and release them upon a muscle action potential Sarcoplasmic reticulum  In postural muscles, such as the gastrocnemius, that are constantly in a state of tension (high muscle tone) you would expect to find a high proportion of _____. Slow oxidative fibers  If neurotransmitter release from a somatic motor neuron was normal, but the muscle exhibited flaccid paralysis and failed to generate a muscle action potential, this structure may be defective. Acetylcholine receptor molecules   Fatigue resident, slow-twitch, muscle consists of red muscle fibers, while more power ful yet fatigue prone muscle consists of white muscle fibers based on the differences in myoglobin, blood, and mitochondria quantities Red muscle fibers White muscle fibers  In this structure essential for muscle contraction, you would find vesicles filled with acetylcholine. Synaptic end bulbs  A muscle with rectus in its name would have its fibers arranged Parallel to the midline (superior/inferior axis) of the body 9/31  Of the two muscles responsible for pronation of the forearm, the _____ is the more proximal of the two. Pronator teres   (choose all that apply) Muscle on the posterior superficial compartment of the forearm would _____ and _____. Abduct the hand at the wrist Adduct the hand at the wrist  Which muscle does not share an origin on the sternum? Rectus abdominus  When extending the leg at the knee, the agonist (prime mover) is the _____ of the lower body. Quadriceps group (anterior compartment)  When flexing the thigh at the hip, this muscle would be considered an agonist (prime mover). Iliacus  The muscle pictured is a part of the anterior (flexor) compartment of the forearm so it's origin is on the _____. Medial epicondyle of the humerus  Which statement is false. The pectorals minor muscle moves the humerus  How many muscles make up the anterior (flexor) compartment of the thigh? Three  What would be the name of a muscle that originated on the pubic crest and pubic symphysis and inserted on the costal cartilage of ribs 5-7 and the xiphoid process of the sternum? Rectus abdominus  Which muscle below is not involved in plantar flexion of the ankle joint? Tibialis anterior   The stationary end of a muscle is referred to as the origin while the end that produces movement is the insertion. Origin Insertion  Which muscle is not a part of the posterior (flexor) compartment of the thigh? Rectus femoris  Which statement is false. The extensor (anterior) compartment of the thigh has its origins on the proximal femur and pubis  The sartorius muscle is a good example of a muscle with whish type of fiber arrangement. Parallel  If your palms were facing medially and you rotated them anatomical position, you just used this picture muscle. Pronator teres  Abduction of the thigh at the hip is accomplished by which muscle? Tensor fasciae latae  Name this muscle that is responsible for medial rotation and abduction of the thigh at the hip. Gluteus medius 10/31  This muscle is the largest of the medial compartment of the thigh. Adductor magnus  If your muscle is generating tension but not changing length (as in holding a yoga pose), you are preforming a(n) _____. Isometric contraction   PRACTICE TEST      (Choose all that apply) The intervertebral joint are example of… Cartilaginous joints Symphysis joints Fibrous joints  If myofibrils were a chain, _____ would be the links Transverse tubules  Unlike most muscles, the one pictured here crosses two joints and is a weak flexor of the knee and thigh which can also assist in lateral (external) rotation of the hip joint and abducting the thigh Sartorius   What would be the name of a muscle that originated on the pubic crest and pubic symphysis and inserted on the costal cartilage of ribs 5-7 and the xiphoid process of the sternum? Rectus abdominus )     Which muscle is not a part of the posterior (flexor) compartment of the thigh Rectus femoris 11/31     This muscle is responsible for depressing the mandible Medial pterygoid UNIT 4  If you were looking at a stained blood smear and saw a cell with a bilobed nucleus with large and conspicuously red/pink granules, you would be looking at a _____. Eosinophil  What is the relationship between hematocrit and anemia? Low hematocrit levels can be indicator of anemia   The cells highlighted in this image have a multi-lobed nucleus, ate the most numerous of the white blood cells, and are generally elevated in bacterial infections Neutrophils  Monocytes an lymphocytes are also referred to as _____. Agranulocytes  The average adult female has _____ of blood. 4-5L  Where do the stem cells responsible for the production of new erythrocytes reside? In red bone marrow   (choose all that apply) A person with A+ blood will have Anti-B antibodies in their blood plasma A antigens on the surface of their red blood cells  This types of white blood cell is the second most numerous, and responds to specific antigens as a part of the adaptive (acquired) immune response. Lymphocyte  The globin portion of a hemoglobin molecule is responsible for reversibly binding oxygen False  The great vessel returns blood to the heart from the upper limbs neck, and head regions of the body. Superior vena cava 12/31  The vast majority of the myocardium is composed of autorhythmic (pacemaker cells) cells. False  The highlighted structure in this image connects the papillary muscles to an atrioventricular valve. Name the structure. Chordae tendinea  The S1 (lubb) heart sound is produced by _____. Closure of the atrioventricular valves  Which part of the cardiac conduction system generally sets the sinus rhythm of the heart? Sinoatrial node  If blood flow to portions of the left ventricle and left atria only were reduced from a blockage, which coronary vessel is most likely to be blocked? Circumflex branch  Which cavity does not contain the heart? Plural cavity  The apex of the heart is the inferior most portion of the heart. True  This part of the cardiac cycle fills the ventricles with the last 25% of the blood Atrial systole  Deoxygenated blood leaving the systemic circuit enters this chamber The right atria  Which artery is directly responsible for supplying blood to the anterior (flexor) compartment of the forearm. Ulnar artery  The vessel highlighted here supplies the muscles that extend and flex the knee and adduct, and the thigh at the hip joint. Femoral artery  These small rings of smooth muscle regulate blood flow through capillary beds. Precapillary sphincters  Which artery (pictured here) passes posterior to the knee joint and gives rise to the anterior and posterior tibial arteries? Popliteal artery  Which type of capillaries do you find serving areas such as the brain, skin, and skeletal muscles. Continuous capillaries  This elastic connective tissue. Which blood vessel would contain the thickest layers of this tissue? Aorta  The artery just visible intros posterior view of the leg supplies the muscles of dorsiflexion and the dorsal surface of the foot. Anterior tibial artery  The artery pictured here supplies the pyloric region of the stomach and the duodenum. What larger artery does it directly branch from? Common hepatic artery 13/31  Unlike their arterial counterpart, the vessels pictured here that drain the upper limbs and head are paired. Brachiocephalic veins  Which blood vessel drains the right thoracic body wall and right thoracic viscera? Azygos vein  The vessel highlighted here is the smallest branch of the celiac artery and forms and anastomosis with its counterpart that branches off the common hepatic artery. Left gastric artery  _____ connect two capillary beds. Portal veins  Of the three layers of a blood vessel, the one pictured here is much thicker in arteries than in veins Tunica media  Like its venous counterpart, the artery highlighted here passes through the transverse foramina of the cervical vertebrae and serves the brain. Vertebral artery  I just love the look of this artery and its many intertwining branches. It supplies all of the small and most of the large intestines and gives rise to smaller branches named the jejunals, ilials, and right/middle colic arteries. What is its name? Superior mesenteric artery  Of the three layers of a blood vessel, the layer highlighted here is the only one that contains epithelial tissue. Tunica intima (interna)  Which circulatory route starts with deoxygenated blood and ends with oxygenated blood Pulmonary circuit  Which great vein enters the superior portion of the right atria of the heart? Superior vena cava  The aorta splits around the fourth lumbar vertebrae to form the paired vessels highlighted in this image. Common iliac arteries  Not sure why they highlight red, but the three veins here are venous anastomoses of the vein that drains the superficial medial portion of the lower limb. Great (long) saphenous vein  The _____ that drains lymph from the entire left side and the lower right side of the body begins at the cisterna where the intestinal trunk and lumbar trunks converge. Left lymphatic duct    The volume of plasma filtered out of the arterial end of a capillary that does not return to the venous end of a capillary enters the lymphatic capillaries and becomes _____. Lymph Lymphatic fluid Chyle 14/31   The _____ is where developing T cells differentiate into pre-cytotoxic and pre-helper T cells which are then subjected to positive and negative selection by epithelial cells and dendritic cells, respectively. Thymic cortex  This is the cell in the lymphatic tissue that secretes antibodies once it is activated and differentiates from a naïve (mature but not yet activated) B cell. Plasma cell  The thymus, spleen, and red bone marrow are the primary lymphatic organs False  The secondary response to a pathogen in individuals with resistance to a pathogen is much more paid due to the presence of _____. Memory B and T cells  If we did not have these lymphatic nodules, bacteria from the large intestine would be able to freely pass into the small insetting and cause disease. Peyer's patches   _____ are connective tissue encapsulated organs that consists of reticular connective tissue, various immune cells (macrophages and lymphocytes), and dendritic cells Lymph nodes PRACTICE TEST   _____ is another name for a red blood cell. Erythrocyte   Two terms below have to do with contraction of the ventricular cardiac myocytes. One refers to the pressure associated with a contracting ventricle, the other refers to the electrical event that causes the cardiac myocytes to contract Systole  Like its venous counterpart, the artery highlighted here passes through the transverse foramina of the cervical vertebrae and serves the brain Vertebral artery  Tissue perfusion and exchange with the tissues are main functions of this type of vessel Capillary 15/31    Which vein drains the largest lymphatic organ in the body before joining the superior mesenteric vein to form the hepatic portal vein? Splenic vein   The thymus, spleen, and red bone marrow are the primary lymphatic organs False   The valve pictured here prevent oxygenated blood from flowing back into the heart after it has been ejected Aortic valve  The smallest of the arteries, these vessels have the highest proportion of smooth muscle relative to vessel diameter and are important in the local regulation of blood flow Arterioles         Which artery is directly responsible for supplying blood to the anterior (flexor) compartment of the forearm Ulnar artery  UNIT 5 16/31   These types of circuits are seen where multiple neurons from different regions of the brain all send input to a single effector, such as when the cerebellum, basal nuclei, motor cortex, and other brain regions coordinate muscle contraction in a specific motor unit. Convergent circuits  Most specifically, the _____ of an axon is free of Nissl bodies. It is also where the chemically- and mechanically-gated channels of the dendrites and cell body give way to the voltage gated ion channels of the axon. Axon hillock  The cell body of the cell pictured here may have many nerve fibers, but they will only ever have one of this type of nerve fiber. Axon   The term afferent/sensory applies to impulses between the central nervous system and effectors, whereas, the name efferent/motor applies to impulses from between receptors and the central nervous system Afferent/sensory Efferent/motor  Which neuron arrangement would describe a motor unit where each upper motor neuron generally synapses with multiple lower motor neurons and stimulates an even larger amount of effectors? Diverging circuit  Which nervous tissue cells assist in forming the blood brain barrier by connecting capillaries with neurons? Astrocytes  Which portion of a neuron synapses with sensory receptor cells or the synaptic end bulbs of pre-synaptic neurons? The cell body  Which structural class of neurons make up most neurons of the central nervous system and all motor neurons Multipolar neurons  The synapse between a somatic motor neuron and its effector is more specifically called a _____. Neuromuscular junction  Which anatomical division of the nervous system generally carries out the integrative functions of the nervous system? Central nervous system   (choose all that apply) Which nervous structures below would be found in the brain and spinal cord? Nuclei Ganglia  Ignoring the highlighted nerve, what is the name of the plexus pictured here that arises from the anterior roots of spinal nerves C5-T1. Brachial plexus  Spinal nerves T2-T12 form the _____. Intercoastal nerves   Match the horn of the spinal cord with the correct function Posterior horn: Sensory input Lateral horn: autonomic motor output 17/31  Anterior horn: Somatic motor output  What structure separated the anterior columns of the spinal cord? Anterior median fissure  The large nerve pictured here serves the posterior muscles of the arm, the extensor compartment of the forearm and the skin over the posterior aspect of the arm and forearm. What is its name? Radial nerve  The nerve highlighted here serves the genitals and perianal region. Which plexus does it arise from? Pudendal nerve  The _____ colum of the spinal cord is the only one that does not contain motor tracts Posterior  Imagine you are looking at 4 spinal cord sections from each major region of the spinal cord. Which section will contain the largest amount of grey matter relative to the amount of white matter. Cervical  What is found between the pia and arachnoid maters Cerebrospinal fluid  Difficulty with carrying out voluntary motor commands would suggest damage to the _____. Lateral and anterior corticospinal tracts  Sensory or motor problems involving the upper or lower limbs could involve damage to a branch of the _____ of the respective spinal nerve. Anterior ramus  This nerve is the largest in the body an innervates the posterior (flexor) compartment of the thigh (hamstrings) and the adductor magnus before dividing into the tibial and common fibular branches. Sciatic nerve  Neuronal cell bodies, dendrites, and unmyelinated axons of the spinal cord will be found in the _____. Grey commissure  The _____ segment of the spinal cord forms nerves that serve the upper limbs. Cervical  The nerve highlighted here innervates the skin over the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh as well as the muscles of the hip flexion and knee extension. Femoral nerve  The nerve highlighted here serves the major flexors of the forearm at the elbow. What is its name? Musculocutaneous nerve  Which statement about the cerebellum is false? The cerebellar peduncles connect the cerebellum with the diencephalon  Broca's speech area would be considered a _____. Motor area 18/31  The major function of the _____ (major brain region pictured here) is to coordinate involuntary skeletal muscle contractions and fins tune voluntary motor commands from the cortex. Cerebellum   The hypothalamus, highlighted here, is a part of the diencephalon and is responsible for the regulation of thirst, hunger, body temperature, and circadian rhythms. Hypothalamus Diencephalon  Which cranial nerve below is entirely sensory? Vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII)  Cerebrospinal fluid passes through the _____ before entering the fourth ventricle. Aqueduct of the midbrain  Which extension of the dura mater listed in the choices below does not have a midsagittal orientation? It would separate the cerebellum and inferior occipital lobe Tentorium cerebelli  Which tract below contains motor fibers? Olfactory nerve/tract  The small nerve pictured here is 100% motor and moves one intrinsic muscle of the eye. Trochlear nerve (IV)  Imagine you were a parasite and your favorite thing is cerebrospinal fluid. Because fresh cerebrospinal fluid is the best, you should try to find your way to the _____ of the human brain. Fourth ventricle  A patient with an inability to laterally rotate (abduct) one or both eyeballs may have a problem with their _____. Abducens nerve  This large paired structure flanking the third ventricle is a major relay station for sensory input traveling to the cerebral cortex. The thalamus  The cranial nerve highlighted here is the only one that serves regions outside the head and neck region by providing sensory input, and parasympathetic motor output, toe the thoracic and most abdominopelvic viscera. Which one is it? Vagus nerve (X)  Of the three cranial meninges, the menix pictured here would be just deep to the skull. Dural mater   (choose all that apply) Which brain structures below would contain cerebrospinal fluid? Subarachnoid space The ventricles  The structures highlighted here have projections into the dural venous sinuses and return cerebrospinal fluid to the bloodstream. What are they? Arachnoid villi  A tumor, lesion, or other damage to this major brain region could result in damage to the nuclei of cranial nerves III-XII. Brain stem 19/31  The _____ lobe of the cerebellum contributes to equilibrium and balance. Flocculonodular lobe  The postcentral gyrus is where you will find the primary somatosensory area. True  If someone told you, "after the accident, I can't feel the skin over my face and have problems with chewing my food (mastication)!" You would respond, "seek medical help immediately. I could be wrong, but it sounds like you may have damaged your _____ in the accident." Trigeminal nerve (V)  Which functional area of the brain would be most likely to be damaged if you fell backwards and fractured the occipital lobe of the brain? Primary visual area  The structure highlighted here is the largest _____ in the brain, sits at the base of the longitudinal fissure, and connects many areas in the right and left hemispheres. Commissural tract PRACTICE TEST a. Multipolar neurons      a. Diverging circuit Afferent/sensory Efferent/motor Subarachnoid space Central canal Dura mater a. Musculocutaneous nerve a. Trochlear nerve (IV) a. Broca's speech area a. Choroid plexuses 20/31 a. Pineal gland a. Ependymal cells a. Somatic nervous system   a. The synaptic end bulb Spinal cord Spinal artery   a. Anterior median fissure Epimysium Fascicle a. Arachnoid villi a. Third ventricle a. Vagus nerve (X) a. Motor area UNIT 6    Under increased sympathetic tone, the liver would _____. Release glucose into the blood via glycogenolysis The release of which neurotransmitter would increase your heart rate and cardiac output? 21/31  Norepinephrine  Autonomic sensory neurons are predominantly _____. Interceptors  Like all neurons with their cell bodies in ganglia, the postganglionic motor neurons of the autonomic nervous system and derived from _____. the neural tube  Which organ below would not be served by axons extending from the celiac plexus and celiac ganglia? Most of the small intestines  One reason parasympathetic responses are short-lived is that Parasympathetic postganglionic neurons release very little acetylcholine  Most thoracic, abdominopelvic, and retroperitoneal organs have _____ and, therefore, can be excited by one autonomic division and inhibited by the other division resulting in negative feedback. The kidneys and suprarenal glands are exceptions to this generalization. retroperitoneal structure   Thoracolumbar outflow reaches the sympathetic trunk ganglia via the _____. Prevertebral ganglia  Which statement below does not describe a splanchnic nerve of the autonomic nervous system? Splanchnic nerves serve the adrenal medulla and organs of the thoracic cavity and head   (Choose all that apply) which ganglia are associated with the sympathetic nervous system? Prevertebral ganglia Sympathetic trunk ganglia  Which population of embryonic cells directly gives rise to the preganglionic motor neurons of the autonomic nervous system? Mesoderm  Converting stimulus energy into action potentials is known as _____. Transduction  Pain, temperature, itch, and tickle sensations are predominantly detected by _____. Free nerve endings  Lower motor neurons of the corticobulbar tract would be located in the _____. Nuclei of the some cranial nerves  Flexion of, for example, the pectoralis major would occur when efferent impulses are carried to those muscles along the _____. Anterior corticospinal tract  Lamellated corpuscles, corpuscles of touch, and type II cutaneous mechanoreceptors can be classified as _____. Encapsulated nerve endings 22/31   (Choose all that apply) Which terms below are associated with muscle spindles? Intrafusal fibers Extrafusal fibers  If a sensory receptor is a neuron, or if a neuron is associated with a separate sensory cell, the neuron will be considered a _____ sensory neuron First-order  What is the name of the cutaneous receptor, pictured here, that would be found deep in the dermis and in the superficial hypodermis and transduce vibration stimuli? Corpuscles of touch  Where would you find the cell bodies of the lower motor neurons of the corticospinal tracts? In the anterior grey horns of the spinal cord  Rapid initial action potentials followed quickly by reduced or discontinued action potentials causes a decrease in sensation during a prolonged stimulus known as _____. Adaption  The gracile fasciculus and cuneate fasciculus are associated with the _____. Posterior column-medial lemniscus pathway  All direct motor pathways decussate, but in different places. Where do axons of the lateral corticospinal tracts decussate as they descend? In the pyramids of the medulla  Among the various brain structures containing upper motor neurons, which structure is capable of comparing intended movements to actual movements and sending corrective feedback to other motor areas? The cerebellum  Conscious interpretation of a stimulus is known as perception True     Place the gustatory pathway in order by matching the portion of the pathway with the corresponding ordinal number (for example, if you think the XXX is the first pare of the pathway, choose 1) Cranial nerves VII, IX, X: 3 Gustatory nucleus of the medulla: 1 Limbic system, hypothalamus, thalamus: 2 Primary gustatory area: 4  This structure sits between the outer and middle ear. The tympanic membrane  Where would you find olfactory receptors? On olfactory cilia of olfactory receptor cells  This accessory structure of the eyeball is composed of stratified squamous epithelium and lines the inner surface of the eyelids (palpebral portion) and the anterior portion of the sclera up to the cornea (bulbar portion). (Hint: infection of this structure is the cause of pink eye) The conjunctive  Which structure is the insertion for the levator palpebrae superioris? The upper eyelid 23/31  Hair cells in these structures send input resulting in dynamic equilibrium. Ampullae of the semicircular canals  Aqueous humor leaves the eyeball and returns to circulation by way of the _____. Conjunctiva  Before reaching the thalamus some axons of the visual pathway branch off and synapse in the _____ where they help to control movements of the extrinsic eye movements Superior colliculus Axons of first-order neurons of the gustatory system that serve taste buds of the epiglottis and pharynx will form a portion of the sensory input from cranial nerve _____. *X  Which auditory ossicle could you see attached to the tympanic membrane if looking through an otoscope? The malleus  Gustatory receptor cells are the first-order neurons of the gustatory pathway. False Gustatory receptor cells, unlike olfactory receptor cells, are not neurons. Rather, they are separate sensory cells develop from epithelial tissue, not nervous tissue  What type of fluid would you find between the bony labyrinth and the membranous labyrinth in structures such as the scala vestibuli and scala tympani? Perilymph    (Choose all that apply) Which of the extrinsic muscles below are not controlled by CN III? Superior oblique Medial rectus Inferior oblique  If these structures became clogged with viscous mucus, as in some cold-like illnesses, lacrimal fluid could not enter the lacrimal canaliculi. Lacrimal glands  These cells of the retina form the fibers of the optic nerve and the beginning of the visual pathway Retinal ganglion cells  First-and second-order neurons of the olfactory pathway synapse in structures called _____. Glomeruli  First order neurons of the olfactory pathway are also referred to as _____. Olfactory receptor cells   (choose all that apply) Which of the special senses use chemoreceptors to transduce chemical stimuli? Olfactory Gustatory  When odorants are transduced to action potentials, those impulses travel along _____. CN I This is the only auditory ossicle that articulates with two other auditory ossicles. 24/31  The bony labyrinth  The olfactory pathway is an odd one in that axons reach the primary olfactory area without first synapsing in the _____, the relay station between most senses and the cerebral cortex Thalamus  Stimulation of the hair cells in these structures results in static equilibrium. The vestibular nuclei PRACTICE TEST    (Choose all that apply) Which effectors are controls/influenced by the autonomic nervous system? Cardiac muscle Glands Smooth muscle 25/31     Cell bodies of second-order neurons of the lateral and anterior spinothalamic tracts are found in the _____. a. Posterior gray horn of the spinal cord In which structure below will you find most of your cones and no bipolar and ganglion layers of the retina? a. Fovea centralis The longest microvilli of hair bundles of the cochlea are firmly embedded in the _____ found inside the cochlear duct. a. Tectorial membrane Most papillae have taste buds that transduce tastant stimuli along cranial nerves VII, IX, and X. However, _____ have tactile receptors that transduce tactile stimuli along afferent branches of cranial nerve V. a. Foliate papillae UNIT 7  Which statement below does not describe a hormone? Released onto the body surface or into a duct  Which structure contains axons that deliver neurohormones from the hypothalamus to the posterior pituitary? Hypothalamohypophyseal tract  One of the principal actions of parathyroid hormone is to promote the formation of _____, the active form of vitamin D that increases the dietary absorption of calcium Calcitriol     Match the endocrine structure with the organ it is associated with Pars nervosa and infundibulum: posterior pituitary Pars tuberalis and distalis: anterior pituitary Parafollicular cells and isthmus: thyroid Chief cells and oxyphil cells  Which statement best describes the hypophyseal portal system? It delivers chemicals secreted by the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary  The organ pictured her exerts its control through releasing and inhibiting hormones, it also produces the neurohormones secreted by the posterior pituitary. What is it? Hypothalamus  Which hormone would stimulate the release of cortisol? Adrenocorticotropic hormone Receptors on secretory cells of the anterior pituitary bind hormones released by the _____. 26/31  Hypothalamus  Which endocrine gland secretes a hormone that regulates the body's biological clock (circadian rhythms) and influences the ascending portion of the reticular activating system? Pineal  When adipose tissue is performing lipogenesis, it secretes _____, which promotes satiety (a feeling of fullness, not hungry) Leptin     (Choose all that apply) Which of the below terms or descriptions refer to the endocrine system, but not the nervous system. Actions/effects generally of long duration (seconds to days) Effectors are distant somatic cells Actions/effects occur within milliseconds Actions/effects occurs within seconds to days  If a person has a slightly lower level of a hormone than average, somatic cells can compensate by downregulating receptors on target cells. False Low hormone levels require upregulation of receptors on target cells  This part of the anterior pituitary wraps around the infundibulum. Pars tuberalis  Which organ has populations of endocrine cells that regulate blood glucose levels? The histology of those cells is pictured here. The pancreas  This is where the pulmonary blood vessels and main bronchi enter and exit the lungs. Hilum  What is the name of the serous membrane surrounding the lungs whose negative pressure helps adhere the walls of the lungs to the rib cage? Pleural cavity  Any inhaled particulates or microbes that make it to the alveoli are degraded by Alveolar macrophages  Which tissue layer of the respiratory system contains secretory and ciliated epithelial cells? Mucosa  As bronchi get smaller and transition to bronchioles, the relative proportion of cartilage decreases and the relative proportion of smooth muscle increases True  Which structure does not belong to the respiratory zone (based on a functional classification of the respiratory system)? Terminal bronchioles  All of the choices below are functions for the respiratory system except one. Which is not a function of the respiratory system. Excretion of nitrogenous wastes 27/31  The function of _____, which are prevalent in the conducting zone, are to secrete mucous to moisten the respiratory tract and trap inhaled particles. Goblet cells  If _____ chemoreceptors in the carotid bodies and aortic detected elevated H+ and CO2, the rate and breadth of breathing would increase. Superior  Which nuclei directly stimulate the muscles of inhalation and exhalation? Dorsal respiratory group      Match the epithelial arrangement with the organ of the respiratory system where it is found. Nasopharynx, trachea, bronchioles: olfactory epithelium Alveoli: simple squamous epithelium Oropharynx and laryngopharynx: pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium Covering surface of external nose: non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium Superior portion of nasal cavity: keratinized squamous epithelium   These cells of the _____ form the alveolar side of the respiratory membrane. Capillary endothelial cells  Directly superior and posterior to the external nares, you will find _____. (i.e. after passing through the external nares, inhaled air enters the _____.) The nasal vestibule  Name the structure, highlighted here, that is intermediate between the larynx and the main bronchi Trachea  The laryngeal cartilages highlighted here are composed mostly of hyaline cartilage and is the largest of the cartilages that support the vocal folds and manipulate vocal cord position and tension. Arytenoid cartilages  This section of the small intestine is proximal to the large intestine and contains extensive aggregations of mucosa associated lymphatic tissue (specifically Peyer's patches) that prevent the natural gut flora of the large intestine from entering the small intestine. The ileum  This is the superior-most portion of the stomach, located just lateral (left) to the junction between the esophagus and the stomach. It is dome-shaped and contains very few rugae and stores ingested food after a large meal. Fundus  The parietal peritoneum surrounds all the organs of the abdominopelvic cavity that are not retroperitoneal. False It's the visceral peritoneum  The reduced longitudinal layer of the large intestine muscularis externa contract to form pouch-like structures called _____ where bacterial fermentation occurs. Haustra 28/31  These small, finger-like, projections consist of mucosa and lamina propria and increase surface area for absorption. They consist of a number of absorptive and goblet cells and contain a central capillary loop and a lacteal. Villi  This is the shortest section of the small intestine, it is more important for chemical digestion and enzyme production than any other segment of the small intestines. Duodenum   Chewing and muscular contractions of the GI tract (especially the stomach) are examples of _____ digestion. Mechanical  Which basic function of the digestive system is accomplished by the muscularis externa? Ingestion  Parasympathetic motor output from the facial nerve (CN VII) would stimulate the submandibular and sublingual salivary glands to increase the production of saliva. True  In the presence of secretin and cholecystokinin, the _____ increases secretion of digestive enzymes. Pancreas  Which salivary gland is intermediate between the skin and the masseter muscles and is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerves? Parotid  These structures, visible in gross anatomy, are permanent folds of the mucosa and submucosa that increase surface area for absorption. They are most prevalent in the jejunum and the ileum Circular folds      Which statement most accurately describes the relationship between the liver and gallbladder? The liver synthesizes bile salts and transports bile salts to the gallbladder for storage and concentration   The ascending colon flexes medially and becomes the transverse colon. This flexure is just inferior to the _____. Liver  Which branch of the enteric nervous system is responsible for propulsion/motility in the gastrointestinal tract? Parasympathetic 29/31  Which organ would have an outer covering of adventitia (not serosa)? Esophagus PRACTICE TEST   Which terms below are related to the production and secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine? Chromaffin cells Adrenal medulla  The right lung contains an oblique fissure that the left lung does not have False  Which structure does not belong the upper respiratory zone (based on structural classification of the respiratory system) a. Nose The structure highlighted here is composed of elastic cartilage and closes off the opening of the trachea during deglutition (swallowing) a. Epiglottis Which tissue/cells of the pancreas have an exocrine function? a. Hepatopancreatic ampulla    (Choose all that apply) where in the digestive tract would you find simple columnar epithelium? Stomach Small intestine Large intestine These teeth are closest to the midsagittal line a. Incisors In males, luteinizing hormone (LH) would promote the secretion of _____. a. Testosterone 30/31 Which hormone would trigger ovulation? a. Luteinizing hormone Any inhaled particulates or microbes that make it to the alveoli are degraded by a. Alveolar macrophages Which bone is not a part of the bony framework of the external nose? a. Lacrimal If an autonomic motor neuron synapsing with a salivary gland released norepinephrine, what would the effect be? a. Excitation and increased salivation Antacids decrease the production of hydrochloric acid in the stomach, so they most likely affect _____ cells. a. Parietal In the small intestine, each absorptive cell contains numerous microscopic projections called _____. They increase surface area for absorption and numerous enzymes. Collectively, they form the brush border a. Microvilli The gut flora of the large intestine is important to health because… a. They produce some B vitamins and vitamin K 31/31