Final Test Questions

Final Test Questions: CH 16 1. Which of the following is the best exercise to train the anatomical core musculature in individuals who want to improve sport performance? a. prone plank b. side plank c. back squat d. leg raise 2. Which of the following is an advantage of machine-based training? a. enhanced ability to target specific muscle groups b. greater activation of stabilizer muscles c. improved muscle activation patterns in athletic movements d. stronger carryover to sport performance 3. Which of the following does NOT occur when a ground-based free weight training exercise is performed on an unstable surface? a. power output decreases b. total force production decreases c. rate of force development decreases d. need to perform other exercises decreases 4. Which of the following factors is held constant during an accommodating resistance training exercise? a. external load b. speed of movement c. range of motion d. mechanical advantage 5. Which of the following factors is held constant during a traditional resistance training exercise? a. external load b. speed of movement c. range of motion d. mechanical advantage 6. Which of the following is an advantage of variable-resistance training? a. minimizes the external load b. improves compensatory deceleration c. maximizes the mechanical disadvantage d. matches the changes in joint leverage 7. Which of the following techniques to flip a heavy-equipment tire commonly uses the narrowest hand position or grip? a. shoulders against the tire b. backlift c. sumo d. back flip 8. Weaker individuals often display _______________ and may benefit from the use of unilateral training methods. a. bilateral facilitation b. unilateral deficits c. bilateral deficits d. unilateral facilitation 9. Which of the following muscles are primarily trained during the single-leg Romanian deadlift exercise? a. gluteus maximus b. rectus femoris c. vastus medialis d. trapezius 10. The single-leg Romanian deadlift can be performed with the weight held in the hand of the same side of the body as the support leg (_______) or in the hand of the opposite side of the body as the support leg (_______). a. ipsilateral; contralateral b. unilateral; bilateral c. contralateral; ipsilateral d. bilateral; unilateral CH 17 1. The acronym SAID stands for which of the following? a. specific arousal to imposed demands b. specific adaptation to intensity demands c. specific athletes imposed demands d. specific adaptation to imposed demands 2. When developing a resistance training program, which of the following program design variables should be addressed first? a. exercise order b. needs analysis c. exercise selection d. training frequency 3. Which of the following best describes core exercises and assistance exercises, respectively? a. recruit one or more large muscle areas and receive priority when selecting exercises; recruit smaller muscle areas and are considered less important to improving sport performance b. can include both multijoint and single-joint exercises and are used primarily for rehabilitation; recruit smaller muscle areas and are considered less important to improving sport performance c. recruit smaller muscle areas and are considered less important to improving sport performance; recruit one or more large muscle areas and are usually multijoint exercises d. can include both structural and power exercises; are considered more important to sport performance 4. Which of the following is an antagonistic muscle group in the bench press exercise? a. anterior deltoid b. serratus anterior c. rhomboids d. triceps brachii 5. Which of the following exercises requires the least amount of recovery time between training sessions? a. lateral raise b. bench press c. leg (knee) extension d. front squat 6. Which of the following is the best example of a pair of exercises that, when performed sequentially with little to no rest between them, constitute a compound set? a. dumbbell biceps curl and triceps pushdown b. lat pulldown and lateral raise c. upright row and shoulder press d. incline bench press and seated row 7. All of the following influence an athlete's volume-load for a resistance training program EXCEPT a. repetition and set scheme b. number of sets completed c. weight lifted for each repetition d. number of repetitions performed per set 8. If an athlete is tested in the bench press and is found to have a 1RM of 220 pounds (100 kg), approximately what weight should this athlete lift if he is performing six repetitions per set? a. 200 pounds (91 kg) b. 195 pounds (88.6 kg) c. 185 pounds (85 kg) d. 175 pounds (79.5 kg) 9. Which of the following percentages of an athlete's 1RM should be assigned for a nonweightlifting multi-joint exercise to maximize power output? a. 0-30% b. 40-60% c. 75-85% d. 90-100 10. Which of the following volumes has the greatest potential to increase muscular endurance? a. 5 sets of 5 repetitions b. 1 set of 5 repetitions c. 5 sets of 15 repetitions d. 1 set of 15 repetitions CH 19 1. Agility is similar to speed, except that agility also includes which of the following components that is not part of speed? a. acceleration b. maximal velocity c. capacity to produce force d. perceptual-cognitive ability 2. Which of the following describes the rate and amplitude of impulses being sent from the nervous system to the target muscles? a. elastic energy b. neural drive c. eccentric-concentric coupling d. stretch-shortening cycle 3. Which of the following is the cause of an athlete's prematurely having an upright posture when starting a sprint? a. deficient force production b. inadequate push-off force c. insufficient mobility d. misunderstanding of force application 4. Which of the following is the cause of an athlete's overstriding when sprinting at maximum velocity? a. deficient force production b. inadequate push-off force c. insufficient mobility d. misunderstanding of force application 5. For a sprint athlete, which of the following exercises is best used to help develop the stretchshortening cycle? a. squat b. overhead press c. snatch d. walking lunge 6. Which of the following agility tests requires the longest time to complete? a. 505 test b. pro agility test c. T-test d. L-run 7. Which of the following is a field and court drill for a novice athlete who needs to work on eccentric strength? a. unilateral lifts b. deceleration drills c. leaning drills d. Olympic lifts 8. When examining factors that provide insight into an athlete's change-of-direction and agility performance capabilities, all of the following are typically considered EXCEPT a. duration of the test b. perceptual-cognitive ability c. ground contact times during the plant phase d. ground reaction forces during the plant phase 9. Which of the following has been shown to improve change-of-direction ability? a. decreased hip extension velocity b. lower center of mass height 10. After a needs analysis is performed, which of the following steps comes next when developing a program for agility development? a. Plan the development of a primary area of need and a secondary area of need. b. Determine strengths and weaknesses by comparing results to performance standards. c. Distribute the time available for agility development based on need identification. d. Provide a preliminary plan for transition of percent distribution through the training blocks. CH 20 1. Which of the following describes an athlete's maximum lactate steady state? a. Maximal lactate production is equal to maximal lactate clearance. b. Blood lactate concentration is greater than resting lactate levels. c. Maximal lactate production is greater than maximal lactate clearance. d. Blood lactate concentration is lower than resting lactate levels. 2. Which of the following describes a technique guideline for an optimal running gait? a. The foot should land in front of the hips to avoid "braking." b. The arms should swing in a reciprocating motion with the lower body. c. The weight should transfer from the inside of the heel and continue to shift. d. The shoulders should be rounded. 3. Which of the following describes the minimum suggested hypoxic dose for an athlete to see an ergogenic effect from altitude training? a. 12 hours/day at low altitudes for at least 12 weeks b. 12 hours/day at moderate altitudes for at least 3 weeks c. 2 hours/day at moderate altitudes for at least 3 weeks d. 2 hours/day at low altitudes for at least 12 weeks 4. All of the following are benefits from resistance training for a highly trained aerobic endurance athlete EXCEPT a. enhancement in short-term exercise performance b. prevention of overuse injuries c. improvement in d. reduction of muscle imbalances 5. An athlete who typically runs for 70 minutes at 65% to 75% of her is looking to maintain a minimal level of conditioning. Which of the following workouts would provide the best stimulus for cross-training? a. rowing at 55% of for 30 minutes b. swimming at 60% of for 50 minutes c. running at 50% of for 90 minutes d. cycling at 75% of for 70 minutes 6. Which of the following is a type of aerobic endurance training that involves easy running (70% combined with short, fast bursts of running (85-90% for short time periods? a. Fartlek b. high-intensity interval c. aerobic-anaerobic interval d. pace/tempo 7. Which of the following is the maximum recommended weekly increase in training duration for an off-season athlete? a. 5% b. 10% c. 15% d. 20% 8. Approximately how many METs is equal to a of 70 ml·kg-1·min-1? a. 2 b. 20 c. 35 d. 245 9. A 30-year-old athlete with a resting heart rate of 50 beats/min is training at 60% of her maximal heart rate. Using the Karvonen method, what is her exercise heart rate? - 134 beats/min 10. A 50-year-old athlete with a resting heart rate of 60 beats/min is training at 70% of his maximal heart rate. Using the maximal heart rate method, what is his exercise heart rate? - 119 beats/min CH 21 1. Which of the following is the period between the preparatory and competitive periods? a. strength/power b. first transition c. basic strength d. second transition 2. An athlete has just finished the preparatory period of his training and is now focusing on his strength and power capabilities. This portion of training is generally referred to as what? a. competitive phase b. basic strength phase c. off-season d. first transition period 3. Which of the following makes the specific preparatory phase distinct from the general preparatory phase? a. higher training volumes b. emphasis on general motor abilities and skills c. lower training intensities d. inclusion of sport-specific training activities 4. In what method of periodization might an athlete perform four sets with a 6RM load on the first day of the week, three sets with a 10RM on the next training day, and five sets with a 3RM load on the last training day of the week? a. linear periodization b. traditional periodization c. undulating periodization d. fluctuating periodization 5. An athlete is performing back squats at 95% of her 1RM for six sets of two repetitions. This is most consistent with which phase of training? a. muscular endurance b. specific preparatory c. hypertrophy/strength endurance d. basic strength 6. According to the ____________, as an athlete recovers from and adapts to a training stimuli, fatigue will dissipate and preparedness and performance increase. a. General Adaptation Syndrome b. stimulus-fatigue-recovery-adaptation theory c. fitness-fatigue paradigm d. undulating periodization 7. An athlete has dramatically increased time spent practicing sport-specific skills and tactics and decreased overall training volume. This best describes an athlete who has entered which of the following periods of training? a. off-season b. preseason c. competitive d. strength/power phase 8. All of the following are benefits of a three-week second transition period EXCEPT a. preparing for the upcoming competitive period b. rehabilitating injuries that may have occurred c. refreshing mentally and physically before a new training block d. helping to reduce the risk of overtraining 9. In what method of periodization might an athlete perform five sets of four repetitions at 85% of 1RM on the first day of the week, five sets of four repetitions at 80% of 1RM on the next training day, and five sets of four repetitions at 70% of 1RM on the last training day of the week? a. undulating periodization b. nonlinear periodization c. daily undulating periodization d. traditional periodization 10. During which of the following phases should athletes ideally be tested to determine initial training loads for the exercises in the first mesocycle? a. first week of the postseason b. last week of the preseason c. first week of the off-season d. last week of the in-season CH 22 1. The responsibility for the day-to-day physical health of an athlete falls to which of the following members of the sports medicine team? a. strength and conditioning professional b. athletic trainer c. exercise physiologist d. physiotherapist 2. Which of the following types of injury is characterized by an excess accumulation of blood and fluid in the tissues surrounding an injured muscle? a. tendinitis b. sprain c. contusion d. subluxation 3. After suffering a broken wrist, what is the sequence of phases of healing that an athlete must go through before returning to play? a. inflammatory response, fibroblastic repair, maturation-remodeling b. maturation-remodeling, inflammatory response, fibroblastic repair c. fibroblastic repair, inflammatory response, maturation-remodeling d. inflammatory response, maturation-remodeling, fibroblastic repair 4. Which of the following phases of healing is characterized by random deposits of Type III collagen fibers along the injured structure? a. fibroblastic repair b. inflammatory response c. maturation-remodeling d. phagocytosis-macrophage 5. Which of the following is a treatment goal for rehabilitation during the inflammatory response phase of an injury? a. avoidance of excessive muscle atrophy b. prevention of new tissue disruption c. optimization of tissue function d. maintenance of function of the cardiorespiratory system