Hippology Practice Test Part 3

Eastern National Hippology Contest Written Test Exam I Carefully read each of the following questions, and enter the correct answer on your scantron sheet. Do not mark on this test. Make sure you are using the space for Exam I for this set of questions. Please completely fill in the space of your preferred answer. The management committee will not hand score questions that the scantron cannot read. Good luck on the exam. 1. What part of the hoof absorbs shock? a. Periople b. Hoof wall c. Frog HIH 505-2 d. Sole 2. What breed of horses are used in harness racing? a. Standardbred HIH 171B-1 b. Saddlebred c. Thoroughbred d. Hackney 3. The gestation period of a mare is approximately how many months? a. 9 months b. 10 months c. 11 months HIH 940-2 d. 12 months 4. How much water does a mature horse drink in one day? a. 6-8 gallons b. 8-10 gallons c. 10-12 gallons HIH 710-7 d. 12-14 gallons 5. What color horse has a yellowish or gold body, black main and tail, black lower legs, and no dorsal stripe? a. Buckskin HIH 140-1 b. Dun c. Palomino d. Grullo 6. Which breed of horses can trace its heritage back to a horse named Hambletonian 10? a. Thoroughbred b. Standardbred c. Arabian d. Saddlebred HIH 171B-1 7. Which group would be creep fed? a. Weanlings b. Foals (Evans, 264) c. Yearlings d. Broodmares 8. What vitamin is vital for proper growth and development of the hoof? a. b. c. d. Vitamin A HIH 505-2 Vitamin C Vitamin D Vitamin E 9. What is the best and safest wire to use for horse fencing? a. Five diamond, V-mesh HIH 350-3 b. Rectangular woven wire c. High-tensile wire d. Polyvinyl chloride 10. What is the term for filing sharp points on a horse’s teeth? a. Smoothing b. Sanding c. Floating HIH 405-2 d. Culling 11. Which of the following is NOT a fat-soluble vitamin? a. Vitamin K b. Vitamin E c. Vitamin D d. Vitamin C HIH 760-10 12. What type of hay, when improperly harvested, can cause Vitamin K deficiency? a. Timothy b. Alfalfa c. Orchard grass d. Clover (Evans, 256) 13. Which is a trace nutrient? a. Protein b. Calcium c. Iodine (Evans, 231) d. Magnesium 14. Which bone in the leg rotates in a horse suffering from founder? a. b. c. d. Navicular bone Short Pastern bone Coffin bone HIH 640-1 Cannon bone 15. Which gait has the fewest beats? a. Walk b. Canter (Evans, 176) c. Gallop d. Running Walk 16. What is the most important thing to consider in horse selection? a. Breed b. Color c. Conformation d. Use/purpose (Evans, 132) 17. What bones form the withers? a. Thoracic vertebrae and scapula (Evans, 151) b. Cervical vertebrae and scapula c. Sacral vertebrae and scapula d. Lumbar vertebrae and scapula 18. Which involves inflammation of the growth plate? a. Carpitis b. Arthritis c. Epiphysitis (Evans,163) d. Metritis 19. What is the primary sign of iron deficiency? a. Colic b. Weight loss c. Anemia (Evans, 233) d. Depressed immune system 20. Which term is associated with colic? a. Volvulus (Dict. 285) b. Vitreous c. Viscous d. Vitiglio 21. What organization determines the needed nutrients for horses? a. U.S. Department of Agriculture b. American Horse Council c. National Institute for Science d. National Research Council (Evans, 209) 22. Where is the cecum located? a. Junction of small intestine and colon (Evans, 192) b. Junction of stomach and small intestine c. Junction of esophagus and stomach d. Junction of colon and rectum 23. What hormone induces parturition? a. Progesterone b. Estrogen c. Parturition hormone d. Oxytocin 24. What structure produces Pregnant Mare’s Serum Gonadotropin (PMSG)? a. Endometrial cups (Evans, 345) b. Corpus luteum c. Corpus hemorrhagicum d. Myometrial tissue 25. What horse disease is caused by the bacteria Streptococcus equi? a. b. c. d. Strangles HIH 615-1 Equine viral arteritis Influenza Encephalomyelitis 26. Which of the following affect the gestation length of mares? a. Sex of the foal b. Month of conception c. Individual mare d. All of the above (Evans, 343) 27. What is used to measure the concentration of antibody in the horse’s system? a. Vaccine b. Titer (Dict. 269) c. Hematocrit d. Antigen 28. Which term describes a gait that is short, quick, high and choppy? a. Rolling b. Snappy c. Rack d. Trappy (Evans, 181) 29. When does foal heat occur? a. Less than 2 weeks after foaling (Evans, 349) b. 2-3 weeks after foaling c. 3-4 weeks after foaling d. 5 or more weeks after foaling 30. The horse’s stomach makes up what percent of its digestive tract? a. b. c. d. 8% HIH 710-2 15% 22% 29% 31. Which part of the English bridle, which includes the noseband, helps to keep the bridle in place and the horse’s mouth closed? a. Throatlatch b. Cavesson HIH 1100-6 c. Headstall d. Crown Piece 32. Which breed is most likely to wear a tail set? a. Thoroughbred b. Morgan c. Saddlebred (Dict. 262) d. Appaloosa 33. Who ensures that a race meeting is conducted according to the rules? a. Judge b. Jockeys c. Track owner d. Steward (Dict. 255) 34. Which is a skin condition? a. Seborrhea (Dict. 240) b. Seedy toe c. Scalping d. Polypuria 35. Which nutrient is necessary for health, but can be toxic if overfed? a. Vitamin B b. Vitamin C c. Calcium d. Selenium (Dict. 24) 36. Which is also known as recurrent uveitis? a. Moon blindness (Dict. 230) b. Sun blindness c. Ictheria d. Uveoloma 37. Which one of the following DOES NOT contribute to a horse’s nutritional requirements? a. Age b. Type of Use or Activity c. The color of the animal. (HIH 120-3) d. The environment the animal lives in. 38. In the respiratory system, the alveoli are… e. The functional units of the lung where gas exchange usually occurs. (HIH 810-1) f. Blood vessels g. The functional unit of the trachea. h. Transitional cells that hold a reserve amount of oxygen so the lungs never run out. 39. Which part of the horse’s body is most commonly used to determine age in a horse? i. Skin/coat j. Back legs k. Teeth (HIH 240-1) l. Length of tail and mane 40. Which breed of horse originated in colonial Virginia and Carolina’s in the early 1600s? m. Arabian Horse n. Quarter Horse (HIH 1688-1) o. Saddlebred p. Standardbred 41. What condition may be caused by bruising the top of the head? a. Fistula b. Splint c. Pituitary tumor d. Poll evil (Dict. 217) 42. What do you call someone who trims and applies shoes to a horse’s hooves? a. Equestrian b. Farrier (HIH 110-5) c. Bridle d. Withers 43. What is the major cause of infertility in a mare? a. Age b. Improper Nutriton c. Uterine Infection (HIH 940-1) d. Poor breeding conformation 44. What is the most commonly used bit material? a. Copper b. Rubber c. Stainless Steel (HIH 1100-10) d. German Silver 45. Which discipline is a judged event designed to show the athletic ability of a ranch type horse in the confines of a show arena? a. Reining (HIH 183D-1) b. Dressage c. Eventing d. Vault 46. A horse’s respiration rate during rest will range from…? a. 40-30 breaths per minute b. 33-27 breaths per minute c. 21-25 breaths per minute d. 8-16 breaths per minute (HIH 851-3) 47. How often should hooves be trimmed or shod? a. Every week b. Once a year c. Every 12-14 weeks d. Every 6-8 weeks (HIH 110-4) 48. How much do horses contribute annually to the economy? a. 15 Billion (HIH 120-1) b. 15 Million c. 10 Million d. 1 Billion 49. Which bit can act as either a curb or a snaffle? a. Tom Thumb b. Pelham (Dict. 207) c. Egg Butt d. Spade 50. Which is part of the skull? a. Cervix b. Maxilla (Dict. 176) c. Humerus d. Tarsus 51. Which is a measure of the total blood volume that is occupied by red blood cells? a. Hemoglobin b. Hematocrit (Dict. 137) c. Hematome d. Hematocyte 52. How many pairs of chromosomes does the horse have? a. 32 (HIH 1020-1) b. 26 c. 24 d. 12 53. Which is a suppling exercise? a. Haunches in (Dict. 130) b. Rollback c. Sliding stop d. Piaffe 54. Which parasite is a actually a free living fly as an adult and can be seen on the hairs of the legs as eggs? a. Small Strongyles b. Gastrophilus (bots) (HIH 950-9) c. Tapeworm d. Parascari equorum 55. What is teasing? a. A method of halter breaking b. A method of determining if a mare is in estrus (Evans, 390) c. A method of training a horse to load d. A method of collecting stallions 56. Which is an example of a ginglymus joint? a. Atlanto-axial b. Jaw c. Shoulder d. Hock (Dict. 120) 57. What genotype is lethal? a. WW (Evans, 483) b. Ww c. ww d. Sl 58. What genetic disease is found in primarily in Arabian horses? a. HYPP b. SCID c. EIA d. OLWS 59. What temperature should collected semen be maintained at for immediate use? a. 90 degrees b. 95 degrees c. 100 degrees d. 105 degrees 60. What term refers to a disease that is constantly present in a geographic area? a. Contagious b. Infectious c. Endemic (Dict. 91) d. Empyema 61. What stimulates a mare to begin her estrous cycles? a. Lengthening daylight (Evans, 393) b. Warmer temperatures c. Exposure to a stallion d. Grazing fresh grass 62. How many horns does the equine uterus have? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 63. Septicemia is what type of infection? a. Joints b. Spinal cord c. Brain d. Blood (Evans 429) 64. What term describes identical paired genes? a. Heterozygotic b. Zygotic c. Homozygotic (Evans, 451) d. Synzygotic 65. What geneotype changes a bay to a buckskin? a. DD b. Dd c. CC d. Cccr (Evans, 481) 66. A fecalith is_____? a. A hardened piece of fecal material b. A decomposing fetus c. A stonelike mass that forms around a foreign object in the intestines d. A ball of ingesta that can cause an impaction (Dict. 105) 67. What term can be used to describe an overhanging top lip? a. Monkey mouth b. Parrot mouth c. Elk lip (Dict. 90) d. Hare lip 68. What is semen morphology? a. Activity level of sperm cells b. Concentration of sperm cells c. Shape of sperm cells d. Volume of semen 69. Which color dominance statement is correct? a. Bay dominates black (Evans, 479) b. Chestnut dominates bay c. Black dominates gray d. Brown dominates bay 70. Which formula is used to calculate genetic progress per year? a. Generation Interval x Intensity Factor x Genetic standard deviation / Accuracy b. Accuracy x Generation Interval x Genetic standard deviation / Intensity Factor c. Accuracy x Intensity Factor x Generation Interval / Genetic standard deviation d. Accuracy x Intensity Factor x Genetic standard deviation / Generation Interval (Evans, 557) 71. Which is an inflammatory disease of the lungs? a. Strangles b. Influenza c. Pneumonia (Evans, 597) d. Encephalomyelitis 72. Where would a keratoma be found? a. Eye b. Nose c. Hoof (Dict. 161) d. Inside hind leg 73. Which can be treated with an anti-toxin? a. Influenza b. Equine Viral Arteritis c. Equine Encephalomyelitis d. Tetanus (Evans, 601) 74. Which disease is diagnosed with the Coggin’s test. a. Coggin’s disease b. Cushing’s disease c. Equine Infectious Anemia (Evans, 601) d. Rabies 75. A farrier tool used to cut off excess hoof growth is a? a. Rasp b. Clincher c. Nippers (Dict. 190) d. Clippers 76. What type of organism causes Potomac Horse Fever? a. Virus b. Bacteria c. Prion d. Rickettsia (HIH, 650-1) 77. What is defined as “any deviation in structure that interferes with the horses intended use or performance”? e. Conformation f. Blemishes g. Under-evaluation h. Unsoundness (HIH 230-1) 78. How many pommels are on a side saddle? a. 1 b. 2 (HIH 184 D-1) c. 3 d. 0 79. What country is the origin of the Exmoor pony? a. Germany b. Ireland c. Wales d. England (HIH 157B-1) 80. What is the preferred shape of the hindquarters; when viewed from the side? a. Square (HIH 220-7) b. Rectangular c. Triangle d. Circle 81. What deviation in travel is associated with horses that toe-in? a. Winging b. Paddling (HIH 230-5) c. Ropewalking d. Wobbling 82. Which term best describes a horse with excessive angulation in the hocks? a. Sickle hocked (HIH 230-7) b. Cow hocked c. Post legged d. Bow legged 83. At what age does a horse get canine teeth? a. 1 year b. 2 years c. 4-5 years (HIH 240-1) d. 8-9 years 84. How many composting bins are recommended for 5 horses? a. 1 b. 2 (HIH 365-3) c. 3 d. 4 85. What parasite causes itching around the rectum? a. Strongyles b. Ascarids c. Strongyloides d. Pinworms (HIH 430-2) 86. Which parasite affects the liver? a. Strongyles (HIH 430-6) b. Bots c. Strongyloides d. Pinworms 87. Which provides immediate protection from the disease? a. Toxoid b. Anti toxin (HIH 445-2) c. Vaccination d. Antibiotic 88. Cushing’s disease is a tumor of what? a. Adrenal gland b. Thyroid gland c. Salivary gland d. Pituitary gland (HIH 450-5) 89. Which can cause laminitis? a. Metabolic disease b. Overwork c. Excessive feed d. All of the above (HIH 455-1) 90. Which is an ossification of the lateral cartilage? a. b. c. d. Ringbone Sidebone (HIH 455-5) Elbow boil Shoe boil 91. Which shoe would most likely be used on a horse with navicular disease? a. Heart bar b. Egg bar (HIH 515-4) c. Patten d. Hospital plate 92. What type of bacteria causes thrush? a. Aerobic b. Anaerobic (HIH 540-1) c. Streptococcus d. Staphylococcus 93. What causes white line disease? a. Aerobic bacteria b. Anaerobic bacteria c. Fungus (HIH 540-1) d. Parasite 94. Equine influenza affects what body system? a. Circulatory b. Cardiac c. Reproductive d. Respiratory (HIH 605-1) 95. Which disease is most likely to cause abortions? a. Rhinopneumonitis (HIH 610-1) b. Equine influenza c. Potomac horse fever d. West Nile virus 96. Transmission of what disease is associated with “carrier stallions”? a. Equine Infectious Anemia b. Equine Viral Arteritis (HIH 620-2) c. Equine Rhinopneumonitis d. Encephalomyelitis 97. Which disease is not transmitted by mosquitos? a. Eastern Equine Encephalomyelitis b. Western Equine Encephalomyelitis c. West Nile Virus d. Salmonellosis (HIH) 98. Horses that are ‘asymptomatic’ … a. Show no symptoms of the disease (HIH 625-1) b. Have uncommon disease symptoms c. Are severely affected by disease symptoms d. Have normal expression of disease symptoms 99. Which disease causes uncontrolled muscle contractions? a. Tetanus (HIH 645-1) b. Rabies c. Influenza d. Rhinopneumonitis 100. The rickettsial organism infects what type of cell? a. Red blood cell b. White blood cell (HIH 650-1) c. Lymph cells d. Nerve cells