Understanding Diabetes Mellitus: A Comprehensive Overview

Third week quizzes Pathology of adrenal gland I patient with Cushing syndrome might present with any of the following EXCEPT Select one: a. Moon facies b. Weight loss c. Glucose intolerance d. A buffalo hump e. Bronze or hyperpigmented skin The correct answer is: Weight loss Which of the following causes of Cushing's syndrome does the phrase "Cushing's disease" specifically refer to? Select one: a. Pituitary adenoma b. Ectopic ACTH production c. Adrenal adenoma d. Iatrogenic The correct answer is: Pituitary adenoma Which of the following is true regarding Addison’s disease? Select one: a. Patients are often hypertensive b. The onset is sudden c. Most cases are due to infection d. It is characterized by an overproduction of catecholamines e. It is also called primary chronic adrenal insufficiency The correct answer is: It is also called primary chronic adrenal insufficiency Which one of the following statements best describes an Addisonian crisis Select one: a. Dangerously high serum cortisol levels b. Severe adrenal insufficiency resulting in dangerously low serum cortisol levels c. Dangerously high levels of testosterone d. Severe adrenal insufficiency resulting in dangerously low serum testosterone levels e. Dangerous high level of Anti diuretic hormone The correct answer is: Severe adrenal insufficiency resulting in dangerously low serum cortisol levels The following cause an ACTH-independent increase in glucocorticoids Except Select one: a. adrenal hyperplasia b. adrenal adenoma c. administered glucocorticoid drugs d. small cell carcinoma of the lung e. adenocarcinoma The correct answer is: small cell carcinoma of the lung The syndrome of increased aldosterone hormone is called: Select one: a. Cushing syndrome b. Sheehan syndrome c. Conn syndrome d. Frolich syndrome The correct answer is: Conn syndrome Which of the following is the most common cause of Addison disease? Select one: a. Adrenal hemorrhage b. Burns c. Autoimmune adrenalitis d. Bilateral adrenalectomy The correct answer is: Autoimmune adrenalitis Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome is defined as Select one: a. Acute thyroid gland insuffiency b. Chronic adrenal cortex insuffiency c. Acute adrenal cortex insuffiency d. Chronic thyroid gland insuffiency The correct answer is: Acute adrenal cortex insuffiency Excess androgens leads to: Select one: a. Cushing's syndrome b. Conn's syndrome c. Addison's disease d. Adrenogenital syndrome The correct answer is: Adrenogenital syndrome Bilateral destruction of the adrenal glands leads to Select one: a. Conn's syndrome b. Cushing's syndrome c. Addison's disease d. Adrenogenital syndrome The correct answer is: Addison's disease Pathology of adrenal gland II The most common benign tumor of the Adrenal gland is a Select one: a. Nonfunctioning adrenocortical adenoma b. Fibroma c. Carcinoid tumor d. ACTH producing adenoma e. Islet cell tumor The correct answer is: Nonfunctioning adrenocortical adenoma A 3 years old child presented with a retropenitoneal mass. Blood examination showed high levels of catecholamines. A Biopsy from this mass showed a malignant tumor which consists of malignant small round cells with rosette formation. The most possible diagnosis is Select one: a. Neuroblastoma. b. Pheochromocytoma c. Lymphoma d. Wilm's tumor. e. Ganglioneuroma The correct answer is: Neuroblastoma. On microscopic examination of adrenal specimen we found occasional focal groups of tumour cells are arranged in a ring around a central area filled with a fibrillary material (rosette). Which of the following is the most likely the diagnosis Select one: a. Craniopharyngioma b. Pheochromocytoma c. Neuroblastoma. d. Adrenal cortical carcinoma e. Ganglioneuroma. The correct answer is: Neuroblastoma. Which of the following is true regarding pheochromocytoma Select one: a. It occurs in the adrenal cortex b. It is usually an aggressive, malignant tumor c. It is derived from neural crest cells d. It can cause hypertension e. Many tumors have a 1p deletion The correct answer is: It can cause hypertension Which of the following represent a common malignant tumor of childhood Select one: a. Cortical carcinoma b. Ganglioneuroma c. Neuroblastoma d. Cortical adenoma e. Pheochromocytoma The correct answer is: Neuroblastoma Which of the following represent a tumor usually associated with hypertension as it secretes adrenaline and noradrenaline? Select one: a. Cortical carcinoma b. Neuroblastoma c. Thyroid adenoma d. Pheochromocytoma e. Ganglioneuroma The correct answer is: Pheochromocytoma Which of the following neoplasm is Not a tumor of adrenal medulla? Select one: a. Ganglioneuroma b. Adenoma c. Neuroblastoma d. Pheochromocytoma e. Metastatic carcinoma The correct answer is: Adenoma Primary carcinoma of adrenal cortex is more common than the metastatic carcinoma Select one: True False The correct answer is 'False'. Neuroblastoma is one of the small blue tumors of childhood Select one: True False The correct answer is 'True'. Ganglioneuroma is a benign tumor associated with Neurofibromatosis Select one: True False The correct answer is 'True'. Adrenocorticosteroids& Adrenocortical Antagonists I Corticosteroids are Select one: a. Antiobesity drugs b. Antiinflammatory drugs c. Antidiabetic d. Antihypertensive drugs The correct answer is: Antiinflammatory drugs Inhaled corticosteroids can be used in Select one: a. Crohn’s disease b. Arthritis c. Thyroid storm d. Asthma The correct answer is: Asthma The glucocorticoid receptor are Select one: a. Present on the outer surface of the cell membrane b. Present in the inner surface of the cell membrane c. Nuclear receptors d. Present in the cytoplasm The correct answer is: Nuclear receptors The following glucocorticoid has significant mineralocorticoid activity also Select one: a. Hydrocortisone b. Dexamethasone c. Triamcinolone d. Betamethasone The correct answer is: Hydrocortisone The anti-inflammatory effects of glucocorticoids are known to be due to Select one: a. Decreased release of cytokines by monocytes & macrophages b. Increased COX-1 expression c. Increased production of eicosanoids d. Stimulation of phosopholipase A2 The correct answer is: Decreased release of cytokines by monocytes & macrophages One of the following drugs is considered as a long-acting corticosteroid Select one: a. Triamcenolone b. Betamethasone c. Prednisone d. Hydrocortisone The correct answer is: Betamethasone Corticosteroids are used in treatment of all the following diseases EXCEPT Select one: a. Nephrotic syndrome b. Allergic conjunctivitis c. Sepsis d. Hypertension The correct answer is: Hypertension For treatment of bronchial asthma, corticosteroids cause all the following effects, EXCEPT Select one: a. ↓ PGs, LTs and ILs b. ↑ desensitization of β- receptors c. Flunisolide used by inhalation d. May cause oropharyngeal candidiasis The correct answer is: ↑ desensitization of β- receptors A corticosteroid produced naturally by the body is Select one: a. Cortisone b. Meprednisone c. Triamcenolone d. Hydrocortisone The correct answer is: Hydrocortisone One of the following drugs inhibits adrenocortical function Select one: a. Prednisone b. Ketoconazole c. Betamethasone d. Triamcenolone The correct answer is: Ketoconazole Adrenocorticosteroids& Adrenocortical Antagonists II The treatment of choice for bilateral adrenal hyperplasia-dependent aldosteronism is Select one: a. Partial adrenalectomy b. Spironolactone c. Mifepristone d. Angiotensin receptor blocker The correct answer is: Spironolactone Patients who will be taking glucocorticoids long term should be warned about all the following except Select one: a. That patients should wear medical identification stating that they are on chronic steroid therapy b. Cortisone and hydrocortisone may cause hypokalemic alkalosis, hypocalcemia, and hypotension c. That weight gain and insomnia often occur when starting treatment d. That chronic use can lead to osteoporosis and glaucoma for which they must be monitored The correct answer is: Cortisone and hydrocortisone may cause hypokalemic alkalosis, hypocalcemia, and hypotension Which of the following treatment options for Cushing’s syndrome, is a relatively selective inhibitor of steroid 11hydroxylation Select one: a. Triamcenolone b. Metyrapone c. Eplerenone d. Mifepritone The correct answer is: Metyrapone A complication of all treatments for Cushing’s syndrome is Select one: a. Renal impairment b. Hepatic impairment c. Hyperlipedemia d. Risk of hypocorticolism and adrenal insufficiency The correct answer is: Risk of hypocorticolism and adrenal insufficiency To minimize steroidal toxicity, the following are advantageous, Except Select one: a. Local application e.g ointments b. Alternate-day therapy c. Dose tapering d. Low-protein and low-potassium diets. The correct answer is: Low-protein and low-potassium diets. Corticosteroid therapy can lead to all the following effects EXCEPT Select one: a. bacterial and mycotic infections b. Peptic ulcers and gastrointestinal bleedin c. Deposition of visceral fat deposition d. ↓ Gastrointestinal acid and pepsin release The correct answer is: ↓ Gastrointestinal acid and pepsin release One of the following drugs acts as a glucocorticoid receptor antagonist Select one: a. Mifepristone b. Mitotane c. Spironolactone d. Aminoglutethimide The correct answers are: Spironolactone, Mifepristone Metyrapone is a Select one: a. an antifungal b. selective inhibitor of steroid 11-hydroxylation c. glucocorticoid receptor antagonist The correct answer is: selective inhibitor of steroid 11-hydroxylation Concerning Eplerenone, all the following statements are true EXCEPT Select one: a. an aldosterone antagonist b. is approved for the treatment of hypertension c. It has significant anti-androgenic effects d. it reduces remodeling The correct answer is: It has significant anti-androgenic effects Concerning spironolactone, all the following statements are true EXCEPT Select one: a. an androgen antagonist b. used in the treatment of hirsutism and acne in women c. Its adverse effects include hypokalemia, alkalosis d. Spironolactone is a diuretic and used in heart failur The correct answer is: Its adverse effects include hypokalemia, alkalosis Normal function of endocrine pancreas I A 8-year old male has an autoimmune disorder targets the beta cells of pancreas, production of which hormone would be directly affected? Select one: a. Both a and b b. Glucagon c. Somatostatin d. Pancreatic polypeptide e. Insulin The correct answer is: Insulin Which of the following factors decrease the insulin secretion? a. Gastrointestinal hormones (Incretins) Select one: a. Both b and d b. Amino acids as arginine and lysine. c. Somatostatin hormone. d. Rise in blood glucose level. The correct answer is: Somatostatin hormone. Which of the following hormones is important in regulation of glucose level? Select one: a. Both a and d b. Parathormone c. 1,25-dihydrocycholecalciferol. d. Insulin e. Aldosterone The correct answers are: Insulin, Both a and d Insulin increases ----------which present mainly in skeletal muscle and adipose tissues for glucose uptake Select one: a. GLUT 4 b. GLUT 3 c. GLUT 1 d. GLUT 2 The correct answer is: GLUT 4 A 12-year old male eat a food very rich in glucose, which hormone you would expect to be secreted Select one: a. Epinephrine b. Glucagon c. Insulin d. Cortisol e. Thyroid hormone The correct answer is: Insulin An autoimmune disorder targets the alpha cells of pancreas, production of which hormone would be directly affected? Select one: a. Glucagon b. Somatostatin c. Both a and b d. Pancreatic polypeptide e. Insulin The correct answer is: Glucagon Which of the following tissues are insulin independent for glucose uptake Select one: a. Adipose tissue. b. Liver. c. Exercising skeletal muscles d. Resting skeletal muscle. e. Both b and d. The correct answer is: Exercising skeletal muscles Hypoglycemia does NOT stimulate the secretion of: Select one: a. Glucagon b. Epinephrine c. Growth hormone d. Cortisol e. Insulin The correct answer is: Insulin The normal fasting blood glucose is ----------------. Select one: a. 160 mg% b. 170 mg%. c. 180 mg%. d. 70-110 mg%. e. 150 mg%. The correct answer is: 70-110 mg%. Glucagon-like peptide I (GLP-I) stimulates which of the following hormones Select one: a. Insulin b. Epinephrine c. Glucagon d. Thyroid hormone e. Cortisol The correct answer is: Insulin Normal function of endocrine pancreas II Polyphagia, polydipsia, polyuria and hyperglycemia are characteristic for: Select one: a. Hypothyroidism. b. Hypopitutrism c. Both b and c d. Diabetes insipidus e. Diabetes mellitus. The correct answer is: Diabetes mellitus. A 8-year-old child is diagnosed with type I diabetes. Insulin deficiency results in which of the following? Select one: a. lipogenesis b. Glycogen synthesis c. Ketogenesis d. Increased protein synthesis e. Both a and b The correct answer is: Ketogenesis Which of the following increase both insulin and glucagon secretion? Select one: a. Increased blood glucose level. b. Somatostatin c. Both b and c d. Amino acids as arginine. e. Decreased blood glucose level The correct answer is: Amino acids as arginine. What does glucagon do? Select one: a. Helps water secretion and absorption from the intestines b. It enhances protein synthesis and storage. c. It stimulates storage of fat in adipose tissues. d. It increases blood glucose level. e. Both a and d The correct answer is: It increases blood glucose level. Which of the following condition the concentration of Ketone bodies increase in blood Select one: a. Tetany. b. Diabetes insipidus c. Both a and c d. Diabetes mellitus e. Hyperparathyroidism The correct answer is: Diabetes mellitus Which one of the following is CORRECT regarding the control of glucose level? Select one: a. Both insulin and glucagon are necessary to maintain high blood glucose levels b. Insulin is responsible for increases the rate of glucose output from the liver c. Glucagon is responsible for maintain high blood glucose level. d. Insulin decreases storage of fat in adipose tissues. e. Both a and c The correct answer is: Glucagon is responsible for maintain high blood glucose level. The -------- is the principle site of action for glucagon Select one: a. Both a and c b. Lungs. c. spleen. d. Liver e. Kidneys The correct answer is: Liver Glucagon inhibits which of the following? Select one: a. Lipolysis b. Both b and d c. Gluconeogenesis d. Protein synthesis e. blood glucose level The correct answer is: Protein synthesis Deficiency of which hormones of the following cause hyperglycaemia? Select one: a. Insulin. b. Glucagon c. Oxytocin d. The growth hormone e. Thyroxine The correct answer is: Insulin. Retinal detachment which is the main cause of blindness in-----------. Select one: a. Both a and c b. Diabetes insipidus c. Hyperparathyroidism d. Diabetes mellitus. e. Tetany The correct answer is: Diabetes mellitus. Biochemistry of endocrine pancreas δ-Cells of islet of langerhans of pancreas produce Select one: a. Somatostatin b. Pancreatic polypeptide c. Pancreatic lipase. d. Steapsin The correct answer is: Somatostatin β-cells of islet of langerhans of the pancreas secrete Select one: a. Pancreatic polypeptide b. Insulin. c. Somatostatin d. Glucagon. The correct answer is: Insulin. Insulin receptor is a Select one: a. Dimer b. Trimer. c. Tetramer. d. Monomer The correct answer is: Tetramer. All of the following is true about Glucagon except Select one: a. Secreted from α-cells of pancreas b. Mediate its action through cAMp. c. Has intracellular receptor d. Hypoglycemia promote its secretion The correct answer is: Has intracellular receptor Insulin secretion is promoted by the following stimuli except Select one: a. Glucose. b. Somatostatin c. Sulfonylurea drugs d. Amino acids. The correct answer is: Somatostatin Glucagon use which of following 2nd messenger to mediate metabolic actions in cell Select one: a. Calcium b. CAMP. c. Nitric oxide d. PI3 and DAG The correct answer is: CAMP. Glucose enter β-cells of pancreas through: Select one: a. GLUT2. b. GLUT3 c. GLUT1 d. GLUT4 The correct answer is: GLUT2. To differentiate between endogenous and exogenous insulin, we measure the concentration of….. Select one: a. Glucagon b. Glucose. c. C-peptide d. Insulin. The correct answer is: C-peptide Pathology of endocrine pancreas Which of the following are the three most COMMON symptoms of diabetes? Select one: a. intolerable thirst, vomiting, heart burn b. tingling of the feet, slow healing wounds, weight loss c. double vision, infections, constant urination d. headaches, vomiting, constant illness e. intolerable thirst, constant urination, weight loss The correct answer is: intolerable thirst, constant urination, weight loss Which of the following is a feature of Type I diabetes? Select one: a. Circulating insulin is virtually absent b. Anabolic metabolic disorder c. Ketoacidosis is rarely seen d. Most often presents in adults e. Glucagon levels are low The correct answer is: Circulating insulin is virtually absent Which of the following is the most important pathology in diabetic retinopathy is: Select one: a. Spasm of the retinal vessels b. Ulceration of cornea c. Atherosclerosis of the retinal vessels d. Microaneurysms of the retinal capillaries e. Infarction The correct answer is: Microaneurysms of the retinal capillaries Which of the following is involved in the pathogenesis of type 1 diabetes mellitus Select one: a. parasitic infection b. Viral infection c. fungal infection d. Granuloma formation e. Bacterial infection The correct answer is: Viral infection Kimmelstiel - Wilson nodules can be seen in which of the following conditions? Select one: a. Diabetic encephalopathy b. Diabetic ketoacidosis c. Diabetic nephropathy d. Diabetic retinopathy e. Diabetic neuropathy The correct answer is: Diabetic nephropathy Hypoglycaemia dangerous than hyperglycaemia Select one: True False The correct answer is 'True'. Neuropathy occurs only in type 2 diabetics? Select one: True False The correct answer is 'False'. Obesity is the main cause of type 1 diabetes? Select one: True False The correct answer is 'False'. Cardiovascular diseases are the major complication of uncontrolled DM? Select one: True False The correct answer is 'True'. Cataract is a macro vascular complications of uncontrolled diabetes Select one: True False The correct answer is 'False'. Pharmacotherapy of Diabetes Mellitus I- II Oral glucose lowering agents that primarily inhibit the breakdown of glucagon-like peptide 1 are classified as: Select one: a. Sulfonylureas b. DPP-4 inhibitors Diabetes Mellitus 3 c. SGLT2 inhibitors d. Meglitinides e. Thiazolidinediones The correct answer is: DPP-4 inhibitors Diabetes Mellitus 3 All of the following are true regarding noninsulin injectable therapy for treatment of diabetes, excep Select one: a. Exenatide lowers glucose levels by several mechanisms including regulating gastric emptying b. Albiglutide is administered once weekly c. Pramlintide is as effective as insulin at lowering A1C levels in patients with type 1 diabetes d. Liraglutide and albiglutide are administered without regard to meals e. Pramlintide is approved for use in patients with type 1 and 2 diabetes currently using insulin The correct answer is: Pramlintide is as effective as insulin at lowering A1C levels in patients with type 1 diabetes A 57-year-old man has had type 2 diabetes for approximately 15 years. His physician is initiating insulin therapy today due to his elevated A1c despite oral therapy. Which of the following is the most appropriate option? Select one: a. Initiate insulin glulisine 10 units twice daily b. Initiate insulin glargine 10 units every night at bedtime c. Initiate insulin aspart 10 units every morning d. Initiate insulin lispro 10 units every night at bedtime e. Initiate 70% insulin aspart protamine/30% insulin aspart 10 units every night at bedtime The correct answer is: Initiate insulin glargine 10 units every night at bedtime Select the oral medication from the list below that is the most effective resulting in weight loss for patients with diabetes Select one: a. Glyburide b. Sitagliptin c. Pioglitazone d. Liraglutide e. Dapagliflozin The correct answer is: Dapagliflozin A 17-year-old female patient with type 1 diabetes currently uses a total of 40 units of insulin aspart daily in her pump. What is the expected reduction in glucose per unit of insulin for her? Select one: a. 50 mg/dL (2.8 mmol/L) b. 30 mg/dL (1.7 mmol/L) c. 37.5 mg/dL (2.1 mmol/L) d. 12.5 mg/dL (0.7 mmol/L) e. 45 mg/dL (2.5 mmol/L) The correct answer is: 45 mg/dL (2.5 mmol/L) The release of insulin from pancreatic beta cells would most likely be stimulated by which of the following? Select one: a. Norepinephrine b. Glipizide c. Diazoxide d. Clonidine e. Hypoglycemia The correct answer is: Glipizide In a patient with type 2 diabetes, which drug mimics the action of incretins to augment glucose-dependent insulin secretion? Select one: a. Metformin b. Acarbose c. Exenatide d. Glucagon e. Rosiglitazone The correct answer is: Exenatide To supplement other oral type 2 diabetes medication, a patient is prescribed a drug to inhibit the intestinal absorption of carbohydrates. What would be an appropriate drug Select one: a. Repaglinide b. Acarbose c. Metformin d. Pioglitazone e. Insulin lispro The correct answer is: Acarbose DW is a patient with type 2 diabetes who has a blood glucose of 400 mg/dL today at his office visit. The physician would like to give some insulin to bring the glucose down before he leaves the office. Which of the following would lower the glucose in the quickest manner in DW? Select one: a. Insulin aspart b. Insulin glargine c. NPH insulin d. Regular insulin The correct answer is: Insulin aspart Which of the following statements is characteristic of metformin Select one: a. Weight gain is a common adverse effect b. Metformin undergoes significant metabolism via the cytochrome P450 system c. Metformin should not be combined with sulfonylureas or insulin d. Metformin is inappropriate for initial management of type 2 diabetes e. Metformin decreases hepatic glucose production The correct answer is: Metformin decreases hepatic glucose production Which of the following statements regarding nonpharmacologic therapy for treatment of diabetes is true? Select one: a. Current clinical evidence supports the use of dietary supplements such as chromium in the management of diabetes b. Long-term goals for physical activity should include at least 30 minutes of aerobic exercise once a week for all patients with diabetes c. Individualized meal plans should be developed for people with diabetes based on cultural preferences, comorbidities, and daily schedule as much as possible d. Influenza vaccinations are recommended for all patients with diabetes every 5 years e. Weight loss works best for patients with type 1 diabetes since most are overweight The correct answer is: Individualized meal plans should be developed for people with diabetes based on cultural preferences, comorbidities, and daily schedule as much as possible A 12-year-old boy is newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes. His current height is 60 in (152 cm) and he weighs 40 kg (88 lb). What dose of basal insulin should be initiated for him? Select one: a. 2 units insulin glulisine b. 4 units insulin detemir c. 6 units insulin lispro d. 3 units insulin aspart e. 12 units insulin glargine The correct answer is: 12 units insulin glargine Which of the following classes of oral diabetes drugs is paired most appropriately with its primary mechanism of action? Select one: a. Thiazolidinedione—decreases hepatic gluconeogenesis b. Glinide—increases insulin sensitivity c. Sulfonylurea—increases insulin secretion d. DPP-4 inhibitor—inhibits breakdown of complex carbohydrates The correct answer is: Sulfonylurea—increases insulin secretion KD is a 69-year-old male with type 2 diabetes and advanced chronic kidney disease. Which of the following diabetes medications is contraindicated in this patient? Select one: a. Insulin lispro b. Metformin c. Glipizide d. Saxagliptin The correct answer is: Metformin Which of the following diabetes medications is most appropriately paired with an adverse effect associated with its use? Select one: a. Metformin—urinary tract infections b. Canagliflozin—lactic acidosis c. Liraglutide—pancreatitis d. Nateglinide—heart failure The correct answer is: Liraglutide—pancreatitis A 64-year-old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes is diagnosed with heart failure. Which of the following medications would be a poor choice for controlling her diabetes? Select one: a. Sitagliptin b. Nateglinide c. Rosiglitazone d. Glyburide e. Exenatide The correct answer is: Rosiglitazone Which of the following statements is correct regarding insulin glargine? Select one: a. It is primarily used to control postprandial hyperglycemia b. It may be administered intravenously in emergency c. The prolonged duration of activity is due to slow dissociation from albumin d. It should not be used in a regimen with insulin lispro or glulisine e. It is a “peakless” insulin The correct answer is: It is a “peakless” insulin A 32-year-old woman is diagnosed with gestational diabetes after being administered an oral glucose tolerance test during her 28th-week of gestation. She has not been able to reduce or control her glucose readings with lifestyle interventions alone and her physician wants to start pharmacotherapy. Which agent below is the preferred medication, considering her glucose readings are significantly elevated? Select one: a. Metformin b. Liraglutide c. Glyburide d. Insulin glargine e. NPH insulin The correct answer is: Insulin glargine A 59-year-old Asian American woman has a 3-year history of T2DM. She presents with no new complaints today. Her labs and vitals are: A1c 8.1% (0.081; 65 mmol/mol Hgb), FBG 320 mg/dL (17.8 mmol/L), LDL 118 mg/dL (3.05 mmol/L), HDL 32 mg/dL (0.83 mmol/L), TG 325 mg/dL (3.67 mmol/L), SCr 1.9 mg/dL (168 μmol/L), mol/L), BP 128/78 mm Hg, HR 68 beats/min, Wt 135 lb (61.4 kg), Ht 5’2” (157 cm). Her current medications are Glimepiride 2 mg once daily • Metformin 1000 mg twice daily • Exenatide 10 mcg twice daily • Sitagliptin 50 mg daily ♦Alendronate 70 mg/week • Simvastatin 20 mg once daily • Paroxetine 20 mg once daily ♦ Aspirin 81 mg once daily Which of her medications should be discontinued and for what reason? A. Glimepiride—may increase risk of heart failure Select one: a. Glimepiride—may increase risk of heart failure b. Sitagliptin—may increase nausea and vomiting c. Exenatide—may cause weight gain d. Metformin—due to renal dysfunction e. None of her medications should be discontinued The correct answer is: Metformin—due to renal dysfunction Formative assessment week 1 Diencephalon gives Select one: a. Adenohypophysis b. Pars intermedia c. Neurohypophsis d. Pars tuberalis e. Pars distalis The correct answer is: Neurohypophsis Renin hormone is secreted by Select one: a. G cells b. Juxtaglomerular cells c. small granule cells d. Fat cells e. Cardiac muscle cells The correct answer is: Juxtaglomerular cells Which of the following is not a general feature of group II hormone Select one: a. Mediate their action through a second messenger b. Their action is fast c. They do not need a transport protein d. They are proteins and polypeptides e. They bind to a intracellular receptor The correct answer is: They bind to a intracellular receptor Endocrine glands differ from exocrine glands in that Select one: a. Thyroid gland is example for exocrine glands b. Endocrine glands release enzyme wheras exocrine glands release hormones c. The salivary gland is example for endocrine glands d. Endocrine glands are ductless and exocrine glands release the bodys surface or into ducts The correct answer is: Endocrine glands are ductless and exocrine glands release the bodys surface or into ducts Which of these factors stimulate the secretion of growth hormone Select one: a. Insulin like growth factor I b. Cortisol c. Gherlin d. Food intake e. Somatostatin The correct answer is: Gherlin Oxytocin hormone is formed in Select one: a. Supraoptic nuclei in the hypothalamus b. Thyroid gland c. Post pituitary gland d. Ant pituitary gland e. Paraventricular nuclei in the hypothalamus The correct answer is: Paraventricular nuclei in the hypothalamus Patient of hypopituitarism we found the following Except Select one: a. Empty sella on MRI b. Hypotension c. Asthenia and weakness d. Increase ski pigmentation e. Pallor The correct answer is: Increase ski pigmentation Which of the following is correct regarding craniopharyngioma Select one: a. It is a tumor of child and in adult age groups b. It is a solid tumor c. Secrete catecholamine d. It is a malignant tumor e. It is a tumor of posterior pituitary gland The correct answer is: It is a tumor of child and in adult age groups Which drug has utility in inhibiting the severe secretory diarrhea of hormone secreting tumors of the pancreas and GI tract as well as in the treatment of acromegaly Select one: a. Leuprolide b. Cosyntropin c. Octrotide d. Sertaline e. Bromocriptine The correct answer is: Octrotide Directly behind isthmus of thyroid gland Select one: a. Trachea b. Oesophagus c. Inferior thyroid artery d. Thyrohyoid muscle e. Sternohyoid muscle The correct answer is: Trachea The lumen of thyroid follicle contains Select one: a. Basophilic colloid b. Calcified acidophilic secretion c. Thyroglobulin d. Large amounts of thyroid hormones e. Calcitonin hormone The correct answer is: Thyroglobulin