Final Exam Enterprise Networking, Security, and Automation Part 1

Final Exam Answers Full – Enterprise Networking, Security, and Automation  Final Exam Answers 1. Which design feature will limit the size of a failure domain in an enterprise network?  the purchase of enterprise equipment that is designed for large traffic volume  the installation of redundant power supplies  the use of a collapsed core design  the use of the building switch block approach 2. Which two things should a network administrator modify on a router to perform password recovery? (Choose two.)  the system image file  the NVRAM file system  the configuration register value  the startup configuration file  system ROM 3. What type of network uses one common infrastructure to carry voice, data, and video signals?  borderless  converged  managed  switched 4. What are three advantages of using private IP addresses and NAT? (Choose three.)  hides private LAN addressing from outside devices that are connected to the Internet  permits LAN expansion without additional public IP addresses  reduces CPU usage on customer routers  creates multiple public IP addresses  improves the performance of the router that is connected to the Internet  conserves registered public IP addresses 5. Which two scenarios are examples of remote access VPNs? (Choose two.)  All users at a large branch office can access company resources through a single VPN connection.  A small branch office with three employees has a Cisco ASA that is used to create a VPN connection to the HQ.  A toy manufacturer has a permanent VPN connection to one of its parts suppliers.  A mobile sales agent is connecting to the company network via the Internet connection at a hotel.  An employee who is working from home uses VPN client software on a laptop in order to connect to the company network. 6. What are three benefits of cloud computing? (Choose three.)  It utilizes end-user clients to do a substantial amount of data preprocessing and storage.  It uses open-source software for distributed processing of large datasets.  It streamlines the IT operations of an organization by subscribing only to needed services.  It enables access to organizational data anywhere and at any time.  It turns raw data into meaningful information by discovering patterns and relationships.  It eliminates or reduces the need for onsite IT equipment, maintenance, and management. 7. What is a characteristic of a single-area OSPF network?  All routers share a common forwarding database.  All routers have the same neighbor table.  All routers are in the backbone area.  All routers have the same routing table. 8. What is a WAN?  a network infrastructure that spans a limited physical area such as a city  a network infrastructure that provides access to other networks over a large geographic area  a network infrastructure that provides access in a small geographic area  a network infrastructure designed to provide data storage, retrieval, and replication 9. A network administrator has been tasked with creating a disaster recovery plan. As part of this plan, the administrator is looking for a backup site for all of the data on the company servers. What service or technology would support this requirement?  data center  virtualization  dedicated servers  software defined networking 10. Which type of OSPF packet is used by a router to discover neighbor routers and establish neighbor adjacency?  link-state update  hello  database description  link-state request 11. Which two statements are characteristics of a virus? (Choose two.)  A virus has an enabling vulnerability, a propagation mechanism, and a payload.  A virus can be dormant and then activate at a specific time or date.  A virus provides the attacker with sensitive data, such as passwords.  A virus replicates itself by independently exploiting vulnerabilities in networks.  A virus typically requires end-user activation. Explanation:;The type of end user interaction required to launch a virus is typically opening an application, opening a web page, or powering on the computer. Once activated, a virus may infect other files located on the computer or other computers on the same network. 12. Which public WAN access technology utilizes copper telephone lines to provide access to subscribers that are multiplexed into a single T3 link connection?  ISDN  DSL  cable  dialup 13. A customer needs a metropolitan area WAN connection that provides high-speed, dedicated bandwidth between two sites. Which type of WAN connection would best fulfill this need?  packet-switched network  Ethernet WAN  circuit-switched network  MPLS 14. A company has contracted with a network security firm to help identify the vulnerabilities of the corporate network. The firm sends a team to perform penetration tests to the company network. Why would the team use debuggers?  to detect installed tools within files and directories that provide threat actors remote access and control over a computer or network  to reverse engineer binary files when writing exploits and when analyzing malware  to obtain specially designed operating systems preloaded with tools optimized for hacking  to detect any evidence of a hack or malware in a computer or network 15. Consider the following output for an ACL that has been applied to a router via the access-class in command. What can a network administrator determine from the output that is shown? R1# Standard IP access list 2 10 permit 192.168.10.0, wildcard bits 0.0.0.255 (2 matches) 20 deny any (1 match)  Two devices connected to the router have IP addresses of 192.168.10. x .  Two devices were able to use SSH or Telnet to gain access to the router.  Traffic from one device was not allowed to come into one router port and be routed outbound a different router port.  Traffic from two devices was allowed to enter one router port and be routed outbound to a different router port. Explanation: The access-class command is used only on VTY ports. VTY ports support Telnet and/or SSH traffic. The match permit ACE is how many attempts were allowed using the VTY ports. The match deny ACE shows that a device from a network other than 192.168.10.0 was not allowed to access the router through the VTY ports. 16. What command would be used as part of configuring NAT or PAT to clear dynamic entries before the timeout has expired?  clear ip dhcp  clear ip nat translation  clear access-list counters  clear ip pat statistics 17. What are two characteristics of video trafÏc? (Choose two.)  Video traffic consumes less network resources than voice traffic consumes.  Video trafÏc latency should not exceed 400 ms.  Video traffic is more resilient to loss than voice traffic is.  Video traffic requires a minimum of 30 kbs of bandwidth.  Video trafÏc is unpredictable and inconsistent. 18. Refer to the exhibit. A technician is configuring R2 for static NAT to allow the client to access the web server. What is a possible reason that the client PC cannot access the web server?  The IP NAT statement is incorrect.  Interface Fa0/1 should be identified as the outside NAT interface.  Interface S0/0/0 should be identified as the outside NAT interface.  The configuration is missing a valid access control list. Explanation: Interface S0/0/0 should be identified as the outside NAT interface. The command to do this would be R2(config-if)# ip nat outside. 19. In setting up a small ofÏce network, the network administrator decides to assign private IP addresses dynamically to workstations and mobile devices. Which feature must be enabled on the company router in order for ofÏce devices to access the internet?  UPnP  MAC filtering  NAT  QoS Explanation: Network Address Translation (NAT) is the process used to convert private addresses to internetroutable addresses that allow office devices to access the internet. 20. A data center has recently updated a physical server to host multiple operating systems on a single CPU. The data center can now provide each customer with a separate web server without having to allocate an actual discrete server for each customer. What is the networking trend that is being implemented by the data center in this situation?  online collaboration  BYOD  virtualization  maintaining communication integrity 21. Refer to the exhibit. Which address or addresses represent the inside global address?  192.168.0.100  10.1.1.2  any address in the 10.1.1.0 network  209.165.20.25 22. Which two IPsec protocols are used to provide data integrity?  MD5  DH  AES  SHA  RSA Explanation: The IPsec framework uses various protocols and algorithms to provide data confidentiality, data integrity, authentication, and secure key exchange. Two popular algorithms used to ensure that data is not intercepted and modified (data integrity) are MD5 and SHA. AES is an encryption protocol and provides data confidentiality. DH (Diffie-Hellman) is an algorithm used for key exchange. RSA is an algorithm used for authentication. 23. If an outside host does not have the Cisco AnyConnect client preinstalled, how would the host gain access to the client image?  The Cisco AnyConnect client is installed by default on most major operating systems.  The host initiates a clientless VPN connection using a compliant web browser to download the client.  The host initiates a clientless connection to a TFTP server to download the client.  The host initiates a clientless connection to an FTP server to download the client. Explanation: If an outside host does not have the Cisco AnyConnect client preinstalled, the remote user must initiate a clientless SSL VPN connection via a compliant web browser, and then download and install the AnyConnect client on the remote host. 24. A company is considering updating the campus WAN connection. Which two WAN options are examples of the private WAN architecture? (Choose two.)  leased line  cable  digital subscriber line  Ethernet WAN  municipal Wi-Fi 25. Which type of QoS marking is applied to Ethernet frames?  IP precedence  DSCP  ToS  CoS 26. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are connected via a serial link. One router is configured as the NTP master, and the other is an NTP client. Which two pieces of information can be obtained from the partial output of the show ntp associations detail command on R2? (Choose two.)  Both routers are configured to use NTPv2.  Router R1 is the master, and R2 is the client  The IP address of R2 is 192 168.1.2.  Router R2 is the master, and R1 is the client  The IP address of R1 is 192.168.1.2 Explanation: With the show NTP associations command, the IP address of the NTP master is given. 27. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator that has the IP address of 10.0.70.23/25 needs to have access to the corporate FTP server (10.0.54.5/28). The FTP server is also a web server that is accessible to all internal employees on networks within the 10.x.x.x address. No other trafÏc should be allowed to this server. Which extended ACL would be used to filter this trafÏc, and how would this ACL be applied? (Choose two.) R1(config)# interface s0/0/0 R1(config-if)# ip access-group 105 out R2(config)# interface gi0/0 R2(config-if)# ip access-group 105 in access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 eq 20 access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 eq 21 access-list 105 permit tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 host 10.0.54.5 eq www access-list 105 deny ip any host 10.0.54.5 access-list 105 permit ip any any access-list 105 permit ip host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 access-list 105 permit tcp any host 10.0.54.5 eq www access-list 105 permit ip any any R1(config)# interface gi0/0 R1(config-if)# ip access-group 105 out access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.54.5 any eq www access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 eq 20 access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 eq 21 Explanation: The first two lines of the ACL allow host 10.0.70.23 FTP access to the server that has the IP address of 10.0.54.5. The next line of the ACL allows HTTP access to the server from any host that has an IP address that starts with the number 10. The fourth line of the ACL denies any other type of traffic to the server from any source IP address. The last line of the ACL permits anything else in case there are other servers or devices added to the 10.0.54.0/28 network. Because traffic is being filtered from all other locations and for the 10.0.70.23 host device, the best place to put this ACL is closest to the server. 28. Refer to the exhibit. If the network administrator created a standard ACL that allows only devices that connect to the R2 G0/0 network access to the devices on the R1 G0/1 interface, how should the ACL be applied?  inbound on the R2 G0/0 interface  outbound on the R1 G0/1 interface  inbound on the R1 G0/1 interface  outbound on the R2 S0/0/1 interface Explanation: Because standard access lists only filter on the source IP address, they are commonly placed closest to the destination network. In this example, the source packets will be coming from the R2 G0/0 network. The destination is the R1 G0/1 network. The proper ACL placement is outbound on the R1 G0/1 interface. 29. Which is a characteristic of a Type 2 hypervisor?  does not require management console software  has direct access to server hardware resources  best suited for enterprise environments  installs directly on hardware 30. What are the two types of VPN connections? (Choose two.)  PPPoE  Frame Relay  site-to-site  remote access  leased line 31. Refer to the exhibit. What three conclusions can be drawn from the displayed output? (Choose three.)  The DR can be reached through the GigabitEthernet 0/0 interface.  There have been 9 seconds since the last hello packet sent.  This interface is using the default priority.  The router ID values were not the criteria used to select the DR and the BDR.  The router ID on the DR router is 3.3.3.3  The BDR has three neighbors. 32. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring an ACL to limit the connection to R1 vty lines to only the IT group workstations in the network 192.168.22.0/28. The administrator verifies the successful Telnet connections from a workstation with IP 192.168.22.5 to R1 before the ACL is applied. However, after the ACL is applied to the interface Fa0/0, Telnet connections are denied. What is the cause of the connection failure?  The enable secret password is not configured on R1.  The IT group network is included in the deny statement.  The permit ACE specifies a wrong port number.  The permit ACE should specify protocol ip instead of tcp.  The login command has not been entered for vty lines. Explanation: The source IP range in the deny ACE is 192.168.20.0 0.0.3.255, which covers IP addresses from 192.168.20.0 to 192.168.23.255. The IT group network 192.168.22.0/28 is included in the 192.168.20/22 network. Therefore, the connection is denied. To fix it, the order of the deny and permit ACE should be switched. 33. What functionality does mGRE provide to the DMVPN technology?  It allows the creation of dynamically allocated tunnels through a permanent tunnel source at the hub and dynamically allocated tunnel destinations at the spokes.  It provides secure transport of private information over public networks, such as the Internet.  It is a Cisco software solution for building multiple VPNs in an easy, dynamic, and scalable manner.  It creates a distributed mapping database of public IP addresses for all VPN tunnel spokes. Explanation: DMVPN is built on three protocols, NHRP, IPsec, and mGRE. NHRP is the distributed address mapping protocol for VPN tunnels. IPsec encrypts communications on VPN tunnels. The mGRE protocol allows the dynamic creation of multiple spoke tunnels from one permanent VPN hub. 34. What is used to pre-populate the adjacency table on Cisco devices that use CEF to process packets?  the FIB  the routing table  the ARP table  the DSP 35. What command would be used as part of configuring NAT or PAT to display information about NAT configuration parameters and the number of addresses in the pool?  show running-config  show ip nat statistics  show ip cache  show version 36. What is a purpose of establishing a network baseline?  It provides a statistical average for network performance.  It creates a point of reference for future network evaluations.  It manages the performance of network devices.  It checks the security configuration of network devices. Explanation: A baseline is used to establish normal network or system performance. It can be used to compare with future network or system performances in order to detect abnormal situations.