Only Microorganism - Study Guide

Lecture test # 2 Study Guide Which of the following spores are produced within a sac? chlamydospores → sporangiospores blastospores arthrospores Chapter 5 (Only microorganism) Filamentous fungi are called pseudohyphae. septa. → zygospores Which of the following spores are sexually produced? chlamydospores sporangiospores molds. blastospores dimorphic. arthrospores Mycelium → When buds remain attached, they form a chain of yeast cells called pseudohyphae. → septa. molds. A mold is observed to have asexual conidia, sexual spores within a sac, and septate hyphae. It is most likely classified in the Zygomycota. dimorphic. mycelium. zygospores → Ascomycota. Basidiomycota. Deuteromycota. Fungal spores are only produced under harmful environmental conditions. are only asexually produced. cannot be seen in a light microscope. Fungi Imperfecti. What do zygospores, ascospores, and basidiospores have in common? They are enclosed in a sac. They are types of conidia. are produced by molds but not by yeasts. → are used to identify fungi. → They are sexual spores. They are found only in molds. All of the choices are correct. cyst. Which is not a characteristic of fungi? cells have cell walls → sporozoite. oocyst. photosynthetic food vacuole. include single-celled and filamentous forms heterotrophic nutrition can use a wide variety of nutrients Blooms of certain dinoflagellates are associated with all of the following except paralytic shellfish poisoning. The group of protozoa that have flagella are the Sarcodina. Ciliophora. → Mastigophora. Apicomplexa. red tides. None of the choices are correct. ciguatera. Pfiesteria piscicida. → euglenids. Which is mismatched? → Which is mismatched? Giardia - transmitted by feces in drinking water Pyrrophyta - euglenids Histoplasma - causes Ohio Valley fever Chrysophyta - diatoms Trichomonas - sexually transmitted Phaeophyta - brown algae The motile, feeding stage of protozoa is called the → Saccharomyces - yeast in making bread and beer Rhodophyta - red seaweed Chlorophyta - green algae Plasmodium - causes Chagas disease All of the following are helminths except pinworms. flukes. All of the following are found in some or all protozoa except motility. ectoplasm and endoplasm. heterotrophic nutrition. formation of a cyst stage. → cell wall. The motile, feeding stage of protozoa is called the → trophozoite. → trypanosomes. roundworms. tapeworms. Which of the following does not pertain to helminths? in kingdom Protista → parasitic worms The smooth endoplasmic reticulum functions in synthesis of ___________. glycogen eggs and sperm for reproduction proteins often alternate hosts in complex life cycles glucose have various organ systems nucleic acids → Larvae and eggs are developmental forms of protozoa. → Which of the following are present in viruses? mitochondria algae. cytoskeleton helminths. pigments fungi. endoplasmic reticulum None of the choices are correct. Both fish and humans develop neurological symptoms and bloody skin lesions due to a sudden "bloom" of this algae. 1-16-2013 Prototheca → Pfiesteria piscida diatoms Phaeophyta → The stacks of thylakoids in a chloroplast are called grana. stroma. none of the above On what basis are fungi classified as Fungi Imperfecti, or Deuteromycota? Based on their ability to cause diseases in animals. Based on whether they have a cap containing gills. Based on if the fungus lacks a sexual → state. Based on if they have a special fungal sac. Based on if they can grow in acidic soil. All of the above. → lipids Which of the following is the cause of malaria? Toxoplasma gondii → Plasmodium mesosomes. Giardia cristae. Leishmania packages. Trypanosoma Sources for human infection with worms are all of the following except infected animals. Chromosomes are not visible in the nucleus unless the cell is undergoing nuclear division. True → False contaminated food. contaminated water. contaminated soil. → contaminated air. Eukaryotic mitochondria have their own 70S ribosomes and circular DNA. True → False All of the following are correct about helminthes except they generally make only a few eggs per → day. they are not all parasites, although some are. as parasites, their reproductive organs are their most developed organs. their eggs and larvae are vulnerable to heat. tapeworms and pinworms are two examples. The organelle involved in intracellular digestion of food particles is the Golgi apparatus. → The eukaryotic cell membrane is a bilayer of sterols. True → False Infections caused by fungi are called mycoses. True → False lysosomes. cisternae. transitional vesicles. smooth endoplasmic reticulum. Which of the following is in the correct order? Cytokinesis, metaphase, anaphase, telophase Metaphase, anaphase, cytokinesis, telophase Prophase, cytokinesis, telophase, anaphase Interphase, prophase, metaphase, → anaphase, telophase All of the choices are correct The only Division of Fungi that contains human pathogens is the Deuteromycota. True → False Chapter 3 A pure culture contains only one species of microorganism. → The Six I's of studying microorganisms include all of the following except inoculation. bacteria. a variety of microbes from one source. All of the choices are correct. incubation. → None of the choices are correct. infection. isolation. identification. All of the following are examples of different types of microbiological media except broth. Which of the following will result when 1% to 5% agar is added to nutrient broth, boiled and cooled? a pure culture a mixed culture → a liquid medium enriched. a contaminated medium agar. → petri dish. gelatin. The term that refers to the purposeful addition of microorganisms into a laboratory nutrient medium is isolation. → inoculation. immunization. infection. contamination. Which of the following is essential for development of discrete, isolated colonies? broth medium differential medium selective medium → a solid medium solid medium assay medium A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus aureus into a culture medium. Following incubation, both Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis are determined to be growing in this culture. What is the most likely explanation? The microbiologist used too much inoculum. → The culture is contaminated. The incubation temperature was incorrect. The culture medium must be selective. The culture medium must be differential. A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus epidermidis and Escherichia coli into a culture medium. Following incubation, only the E. coli grows in the culture. What is the most likely explanation? The microbiologist used too much inoculum. The culture is contaminated. The incubation temperature was incorrect. → → substances that remove oxygen. inhibiting agents. The culture medium must be selective. The culture medium must be differential. Which method often results in colonies developing down throughout the agar and some colonies on the surface? streak plate spread plate → → differential pour plate selective All of the choices are correct enumeration None of the choices are correct enriched A common medium used for growing fastidious bacteria is → Which type of medium is able to distinguish different species or types of microorganisms based on an observable change in the colonies or in the medium? Blood agar. reducing A microbiologist decides to use a nutrient medium that contains thioglycolic acid. What type of microbe is she attempting to culture? fastidious gram positive Trypticase Soy agar. Mannitol Salt agar. → gram negative MacConkey medium. a reducing medium. A nutrient medium that has all of its chemical components identified and their precise concentrations known and reproducible would be termed complex. reducing. anaerobe virus For which bacterial genus is Mannitol Salt agar selective? Salmonella Streptococcus Neisseria → Staphylococcus Escherichia enriched. enumeration. synthetic. → A reducing medium contains sugars that can be fermented. extra oxygen. hemoglobin, vitamins, or other growth factors. A microbiologist must culture a patient's feces for intestinal pathogens. Which of the following would likely be present in selective media for analyzing this fecal specimen? NaCl sheep red blood cells → All of the following are diameters of cells that would be resolved in a microscope with a limit of resolution of 0.2 µm except 0.2 µm. 0.2 mm. bile salts thioglycolic acid → 0.1 µm. 0.3 µm. peptone 2.0 µm. Which of the following characteristics refers to the microscope's ability to show two separate entities as separate and distinct? resolving power → magnification → resolution. refraction magnification. All of the choices are correct size of the field. None of the choices are correct Which of the following magnifies the specimen to produce the real image of the specimen? condenser → The wavelength of light used plus the numerical aperture governs illumination. All of the choices are correct. The type of microscope in which you would see brightly illuminated specimens against a black background is bright-field. → objective lens dark-field. phase-contrast. ocular lens fluorescence. body electron. nosepiece If a microbiologist is studying a specimen at a total magnification of 950X, what is the magnifying power of the objective lens if the ocular lens is 10X? 100X This microscope does not use light in forming the specimen image: bright-field dark-field phase-contrast fluorescence 950X 85X → electron 850X → 95X This microscope achieves the greatest resolution and highest magnification: bright-field It can be used to cultivate Neisseria. dark-field It usually uses sheep blood that has been heated. phase-contrast fluorescence → → It is an enriched medium. electron It is used to grow fastidious bacteria. This microscope shows cells against a bright background and also shows intracellular structures of unstained cells based on their varying densities: bright-field Which microscope bombards a whole, metal-coated specimen with electrons moving back and forth over it? fluorescence dark-field → It has chocolate extract in it. differential interference contrast phase-contrast fluorescence → scanning electron transmission electron electron phase-contrast This microscope is the most widely used and shows cells against a bright background: → bright-field dark-field phase-contrast fluorescence electron The specimen preparation that is best for viewing cell motility is → hanging drop. fixed stained smear. Gram stain. All of the following pertain to the fluorescence microscope except it uses electron's to produce a specimen → image. is a type of compound microscope. requires the use of dyes like acridine and fluorescein. is commonly used to diagnose certain infections. requires an ultraviolet radiation source. Which is incorrect about Chocolate agar? negative stain. flagellar stain. Chapter 6 Which of the following represents a virus family name? Herpes simplex virus → Picornavirus Viruses have all the following except definite shape. → Herpesviridae Enterovirus Hepatitis B virus metabolism. genes. ability to infect host cells. ultramicroscopic size. Virus capsids are made from subunits called envelopes. spikes. Host cells of viruses include human and other animals. → capsomeres. prophages. plants and fungi. peplomers. bacteria. protozoa and algae. → All of the choices are correct. Helical and icosahedral are terms used to describe the shapes of a virus spike. capsomere. The core of every virus particle always contains DNA. capsomers. envelope. → enzymes. capsid. core. DNA and RNA. → either DNA or RNA. Which of the following is correct about viruses? → Classification of viruses into families involves determining all the following characteristics except type of nucleic acid. type of capsid. presence of an envelope. → biochemical reactions. nucleic acid strand number. cannot be seen with a light microscope are prokaryotic contain 70S ribosomes undergo binary fission can be grown on nutrient agar All of the following pertain to virus envelopes except they are gained as a virus leaves the host cell membrane. are gained as a virus leaves the nuclear membrane. → contain special virus proteins. → help the virus particle attach to host cells. are located between the capsid and nucleic acid. Which of the following is not associated with every virus? → envelope The event that occurs in bacteriophage multiplication that does not occur in animal virus replication is adsorption to the host cells. capsomers capsid → nucleic acid genome These structures are used by bacteriophages to attach to host cell receptors. sheath → tail fibers nucleic acid injection of the viral nucleic acid into the host cell. host cell synthesis of viral enzymes and capsid proteins. assembly of nucleocapsids. replication of viral nucleic acid. Viruses acquire envelopes around their nucleocapsids during replication. capsid head assembly. None of the choices are correct. adsorption. → Which is incorrect about prophages? present when the virus is in lysogeny formed when viral DNA enters the bacterial chromosome replicated with host DNA and passed on to progeny → penetration, replication, maturation, adsorption, assembly, release. replication, penetration, maturation, assembly, absorption, release. adsorption, penetration, replication, maturation, assembly, release. assembly, maturation, replication, release, penetration, adsorption. adsorption, release, maturation, replication, assembly, penetration. release. penetration. Which of the following will not support viral cultivation? live lab animals embryonated bird eggs cause lysis of host cells primary cell cultures occur when temperate phages enter host cells continuous cell cultures The correct sequence of events in viral multiplication is → blood agar In general, most DNA viruses multiply in the host cell's _____, while most RNA viruses multiply in the host cell's _____. nucleus, cytoplasm → cytoplasm, cell membrane oncogenic. cell membrane, cytoplasm prions. cytoplasm, nucleus viroids. nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum delta agents. Host range is limited by type of nucleic acid in the virus. age of the host cell. → Viruses that cause infection resulting in alternating periods of activity with symptoms and inactivity without symptoms are called latent → Oncogenic viruses include all the following except Hepatitis B virus. → type of host cell receptors on cell membrane. Papillomavirus. HTLVI and HTLVII viruses. size of the host cell. All of the choices are correct. Epstein-Barr virus. Which of the following is a type of cytopathic effect? inclusions in the nucleus The virus-induced, specific damage to the host cell that can be seen in a light microscope is called lysogeny. multinucleated giant cells inclusions in the cytoplasm cells round up budding. plaques. → → All of the choices are correct. cytopathic effects. pocks. Visible, clear, well-defined patches in a monolayer of virus-infected cells in a culture are called lysogeny. budding. → Measles virus. Uncoating of viral nucleic acid does not occur in bacteriophage multiplication. involves enzymatic destruction of the capsid. occurs during penetration in the multiplication cycle. occurs before replication. plaques. cytopathic effects. pocks. → All of the choices are correct. Infectious protein particles are called viroids. effects. interferons show potential for treating and preventing viral infections. phages. → All of the choices are correct. prions. oncogenic viruses. spikes. The capsomers are made of DNA. RNA. Infectious naked strands of RNA are called → lipids. viroids. phages. → protein. carbohydrate. prions. oncogenic viruses. spikes. Viruses that consist of only a nucleocapsid are considered simple viruses. complex viruses. Creutzfeld-Jacob disease is caused by a chronic latent virus. → viroids. initiated by an oncogenic virus. incomplete viruses. caused by a viroid. → a spongiform encephalopathy of humans. also called "mad cow disease". Satellite viruses are also called viroids. → naked viruses. dependent on other viruses for replication. the cause of spongiform encephalopathies. significant pathogens of plants. All of the choices are correct. All of the following is correct about treating viral diseases except viruses are killed by the same antibiotics → that kill bacteria. many antiviral drugs block viral replication. many antiviral drugs cause severe side Viruses that consist of only a nucleocapsid are considered simple viruses. complex viruses. → naked viruses. viroids. The nucleocapsid consists of the capsomers assembled into the capsid. the nucleic acid of the virus only. → the nucleic acid along with the capsid. the envelope and capsid. the envelope, nucleic acid, and capsid. Which of the following parts of a virus is not always present? envelope → How do enveloped animal viruses exit their host? Budding or exocytosis → Bursting the host cell nucleic acid Rupturing the virus capsid Endocytosis capsomers None of the choices are optional parts of a virus. Viruses belong to which of the following Kingdoms? Protists None of these are correct Fungi Archaea Bacteria → None of the choices are correct. Which body system is mainly affected by Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease? digestive Chapter 9 Among the microorganisms, various genomes can include Chromosomes Plasmids Mitochondrial DNA genitourinary → nervous Chloroplast DNA → All of the choices are correct circulatory respiratory When a virus enters a lysogenic phase, it means the virus is integrated into the DNA of → the host cell and is latent. the virus is bursting through the host cell membrane. the virus is starting biosynthesis of its nucleic acid. the virus will remain in circulation and not continue infecting its host. the number of viruses in the host is decreasing as the immune system becomes effective. Eukaryotic chromosomes differ from prokaryotic chromosomes because only eukaryotes have Histone proteins Chromosomes in a nucleus Several to many chromosomes Elongated, not circular, chromosomes → All of the choices are correct A nucleosome is a linear chromosome wound around the Nuclear membrane Each base bonding at the 1' position of the sugar A purine always bonding to a pyrimidine rRNA mRNA → → Histone Nucleolus Each _____ is a specific segment of the DNA with the code for production of one functional product. Intron One helix strand that runs from the 5' to 3' direction and the other strand runs from the 3' to 5' direction An original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule None of the choices are correct Exon → Gene Operator Triplet The expression of genetic traits is the Genome Genotype Proteome → Phenotype Proteotype The DNA of microorganisms is made up of subunits called Histones Amino acids → Nucleotides mRNA Polymerases Which is incorrect about purines? → Only found in DNA, not in RNA All of the following pertain to nitrogenous bases except Form pairs by hydrogen bonding → Guanine pairs with uracil Adenine pairs with thymine Cytosine and thymine are pyrimidines Allows variation from one nucleotide to another which creates the encoded information Each nucleotide is composed of One phosphate, one nitrogenous base, → one sugar One phosphate, one nitrogenous base, two sugars Two phosphates, one nitrogenous base, one sugar Two phosphates, one nitrogenous base, two sugars One phosphate, two nitrogenous bases, one sugar Are nitrogenous bases Always paired with a specific pyrimidine Include adenine and guanine Found within nucleotides The antiparallel arrangement within DNA molecules refers to Base pairs in DNA are held together by _____ bonds. Peptide direction Cannot add nucleotides to the lagging strand Non polar covalent Polar covalent → Hydrogen Synthesizes an RNA primer Sulfhydryl All of the choices are correct The duplication of a cell's DNA is called Mitosis → Replication Okazaki fragments are attached to the growing end of the lagging strand by → DNA ligase Transcription DNA polymerase Translation DNA helicase Mutation DNA gyrase Primase During replication, each parent DNA strand serves as a _____ for synthesis of new DNA strands. Copy point → Template The enzyme that helps pack DNA into the cell by coiling the DNA into a tight bundle is: DNA ligase DNA polymerase Comparison molecule Scaffold → DNA helicase DNA gyrase Reservoir Primase Semiconservative replication refers to Each base bonding at the 1' position of the sugar A purine always bonding to a pyrimidine → One helix strand that runs from the 5' to 3' direction and the other strand runs from the 3' to 5' direction An original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule None of the choices are correct DNA polymerase III Is needed for adding nucleotides during mRNA synthesis → Synthesizes new DNA only in the 5' to 3' The enzyme that can proofreads replicating DNA, detects incorrect bases, excises them, and correctly replaces them is DNA ligase → DNA polymerase DNA helicase DNA gyrase Primase The site where the old DNA strands separate and new DNA strands will be synthesized is called the Primer Okazaki fragment Template Rolling circle → Replication fork DNA gyrase Unwinds DNA → Replication of DNA begins at a(n) Guanine-cytosine rich area Uracil-adenine rich area → Adenine-thymine rich area Supercoils DNA Adenine-cytosine rich area Cleaves DNA Guanine-adenine rich area Joins free DNA ends None of the choices are correct A primer of ____ is needed at the origin of nucleotide addition. Polymerase III Helicase → Polymerase I Unwinds DNA Helicase Supercoils DNA Unwinds RNA → RNA DNA Winds RNA None of the choices are correct DNA Polymerase I Removes primers → Adds bases to new DNA chain Seals DNA gaps Proofreads DNA chain All of the choices are correct A permanent, inheritable change in the genetic information is called a(n) Translation Transcription → Mutation Groups of three consecutive bases along the DNA of a gene have the code for one Protein Nucleotide → Amino acid Purine None of the choices are correct The three-base sequence on DNA that codes for an amino acid is called a(n) Codon → Exon Anticodon Intron Triplet Alteration Regeneration The RNA molecules that carry amino acids to the ribosomes during protein synthesis are called → Ribosomal RNA Requires RNA polymerase Messenger RNA Requires a template DNA strand Transfer RNA Is a process of protein synthesis Primer RNA Ribozymes This molecule is synthesized as a copy of a gene on the DNA template strand Ribosomal RNA → The nontranscribed region of DNA to which RNA polymerase binds to nitiate transcription is called the → Promoter Operator Messenger RNA Operon Transfer RNA Exon Primer RNA Intron Ribozymes RNA molecules differ from DNA molecules because only RNA Has ribose RNA polymerase binds to the Start codon Termination sequence Regulation sequence Has uracil Is typically one strand of nucleotides → None of the choices are correct Does not have thymine → Promoter sequence All of the choices are correct If a codon for alanine is GCA, then the anticodon is GCA Which of the following is not a type of microRNA? → CGT tRNA ACG miRNA Antisense → CGU UGC Riboswitch siRNA All of the following pertain to transcription except → Occurs on a ribosome in the cytoplasm Occurs before translation Which of the following is incorrect about termination codons? Are also called nonsense codons Where the bond between the final tRNA and the polymerase is broken → Include AUG Include UAA, UAG, UGA Do not have corresponding tRNA Which of the following is not associated with a prokaryotic ribosome? Is a 70s Has a peptide (P) site → Has an exit site Small unit provides the enzymes for making peptide bonds Has an amino acid (A) site A sequence of bases on a gene that does not code for protein is called a/an Promoter Operator Operon Exon → Intron