Phlebotomy Practice Test Glossary and Answer Key

Phlebotomy Practice Test Questions 1. What does the term phlebotomy actually mean? a.) Removal of a vein b.) Incision of a vein c.) Testing of blood d.) Withdrawal of red blood cells: b.) Incision of a vein 2. What is the first step in routine blood collection? a.) Select and prepare the site of collection b.) Label the sample tubes c.) Choose the appropriate equipment for collecting the sample d.) Correctly and positively identify the patient: d.) Correctly and positively identify the patient 3. Which of the following acronyms is not a certification agency for phlebotomists? a.) ASCP b.) ASPT c.) AMT d.) NAACLS: d.) NAACLS 4. Which of the following terms is evidence that an individual has demonstrated proficiency in a particular area of practice? a.) Accreditation b.) Approval c.) Certification d.) Standardization: c.) Certification 5. A phlebotomist must ensure that the patient understands and agrees that his or her blood is going to be drawn. What is the name of this process? a.) Confidentiality b.) Informed consent c.) Legality d.) Privacy: b.) Informed consent 6. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 regulates which of the following areas? a.) Privacy of health information b.) Health insurance transfers on changing jobs c.) Informing patients of intended procedures d.) Phlebotomy training: a.) Privacy of health information 7. You have entered a patient's room and explained that you need to draw blood, and the patient repeatedly refuses. What should you do? a.) Attempt to draw anyhow because the physician ordered the test b.) Call for another phlebotomist to help you convince the patient 1 / 15 c.) Take the request form back to laboratory after you have finished drawing your other patients d.) Notify the patient's physician according to the institution's written policies: d.) Notify the patient's physician according to the institution's written policies 8. The term informed consent means: a.) A patient must be informed of all intended treatments and risks before the treatment is performed. b.) A patient must inform the physicians concerning what procedures they need. c.) A nurse informed by the phlebotomist can overrule a patient's refusal. d.) As long as the patient is informed, he or she cannot refuse a treatment.: a.) A patient must be informed of all intended treatments and risks before the treatment is performed. 9. Which of the following is true? a.) Phlebotomy is an ancient profession dating back at least 3500 years. b.) Phlebotomy is a new profession arising during World War II. c.) Phlebotomists today draw blood from patients for the same reasons as ancient phlebotomists. d.) Phlebotomy equipment has not changed since the original phlebotomists.: a.) Phlebotomy is an ancient profession dating back at least 3500 years. 10. What state has led the way in state regulation of phlebotomy? a.) California b.) Nevada c.) Oklahoma d.) Texas: a.) California 11. The hospital laboratory falls under which of the following categories of administrative services? a.) Fiscal b.) Nursing c.) Professional d.) Support: c.) Professional 12. Which department of the hospital dispenses drugs? a.) Laboratory b.) Pharmacy c.) Occupational therapy d.) Respiratory therapy: b.) Pharmacy 13. Most phlebotomists are employed by what type of health care organization? a.) Clinic 2 / 15 b.) Hospital c.) Physician's office d.) Nursing home: b.) Hospital 14. Which abbreviation represents a certified laboratory professional? a.) CCU b.) CLIA c.) CLS d.) RN: c.) CLS 15. Which abbreviation stands for a type of blood collection vacuum tube? a.) CCU b.) GTT c.) RBC d.) SST: d.) SST 16. Which of the following is the organization that accredits and inspects clinical laboratories? a.) CAP b.) HMO c.) JC (formerly JCAHO) d.) NAACLS: c.) JC (formerly JCAHO) 17. Which department of the laboratory processes Pap smears? a.) Cytology b.) Hematology c.) Microbiology d.) Serology: a.) Cytology 18. Which anticoagulant is used most often in collection tubes for hematology studies? a.) Citrate b.) EDTA c.) Heparin d.) Fluoride: b.) EDTA 19. Which of the following hematology tests measures the blood's capacity to carry oxygen? a.) Differential b.) Hgb c.) MCV d.) WBC: b.) Hgb 20. Which laboratory department would normally perform a prothrombin time (PT) test? a.) Coagulation 3 / 15 b.) Chemistry c.) Serology d.) Urinalysis: a.) Coagulation 21. Which color tube may be used to obtain serum for a laboratory test? a.) Green b.) Gray c.) Lavender d.) Red: d.) Red 22. What term is used to describe serum that is a darker yellow than normal? a.) Clotted b.) Hemolyzed c.) Icteric d.) Lipemic: c.) Icteric 23. Which term is used to describe serum that is cloudy or milky? a.) Clotted b.) Hemolyzed c.) Icteric d.) Lipemic: d.) Lipemic 24. Which term is used to describe serum that is pink-tinged? a.) Clotted b.) Hemolyzed c.) Icteric d.) Lipemic: b.) Hemolyzed 25. Sodium, potassium, and chloride are all part of which panel of tests? a.) Electrolytes b.) Immune function c.) Lipid d.) Liver function: a.) Electrolytes 26. Culture and sensitivity tests are performed by which laboratory department? a.) Chemistry b.) Hematology c.) Immunohematology d.) Microbiology: d.) Microbiology 27. Which of the following is the term for blood donated by a patient for his or her own use during a planned future surgical operation? a.) Autologous donation b.) Blood typing 4 / 15 c.) Compatibility testing d.) Directed donation: a.) Autologous donation 28. Which laboratory department uses genetic and biochemical techniques to analyze DNA in specimens? a.) Chemistry b.) Hematology c.) Histology d.) Molecular diagnostics: d.) Molecular diagnostics 29. The director of a hospital clinical laboratory is usually which of the following? a.) Medical technologist b.) Pathologist c.) Phlebotomist d.) Register nurse: b.) Pathologist 30. Which laboratory department performs blood typing? a.) Chemistry b.) Hematology c.) Immunohematology d.) Urinalysis: c.) Immunohematology 31. Which department of the clinical laboratory typically dips paper strips embedded with chemicals into its specimens? a.) Chemistry b.) Hematology c.) Immunohematology d.) Urinalysis: d.) Urinalysis 32. Which kind of laboratory is independent and analyzes samples from other health care facilities? a.) HMO lab b.) POL lab c.) PPO lab d.) Reference lab: d.) Reference lab 33. In addition to the clinical laboratory, which professional service in a hospital may perform arterial blood gases? a.) Occupational therapy b.) Nuclear medicine c.) Radiology d.) Respiratory therapy: d.) Respiratory therapy 34. Which department within the laboratory performs complete blood counts (CBCs)? 5 / 15 a.) Chemistry b.) Hematology c.) Immunohematology d.) Microbiology: b.) Hematology 35. Which section within the chemistry laboratory identifies unknown drugs within specimens? a.) Electrolytes b.) Endocrinology c.) Immunohematology d.) Toxicology: d.) Toxicology 36. Which government agency is responsible for laboratory workplace safety? a.) CLIA b.) FDA c.) MSDS d.) OSHA: d.) OSHA 37. Infectious agents such as bacteria and viruses represent which type of safety hazard? a.) Biological b.) Chemical c.) Flammable d.) Physical: a.) Biological 38. Needles and lancets are which type of safety hazard? a.) Biological b.) Electrical c.) Physical d.) Sharps: d.) Sharps 39. Which of the following is the first action you should take if you have been stuck with a used needle that has been in contact with blood? a.) Flood the exposed area with water and clean the wound with soap and water or disinfectant b.) Call 911 c.) Report the injury to your supervisor d.) Seek medical attention: a.) Flood the exposed area with water and clean the wound with soap and water or disinfectant 40. Written information about a chemical, its hazards, and procedures for clean up and first aid are available in which of the following documents? a.) Chemical label b.) Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) 6 / 15 c.) OSHA regulations d.) NFPA diamond-shaped label: b.) Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) 41. Which of the following is the first action you should take if you splash a chemical in your eye? a.) Report the incident to your supervisor b.) Flush the eyes for 15 minutes at an eyewash station c.) Go to the emergency department d.) Clean up the spill on the lab counter or floor: b.) Flush the eyes for 15 minutes at an eyewash station 42. What does the red area on the following label represent? a.) Flammability b.) Reactivity c.) Health hazards d.) Radioactivity: a.) Flammability 43. Which type of hazard is indicated by the following label? a.) Flammable b.) Biological c.) Reactivity d.) Radioactivity: d.) Radioactivity 44. Which of the following is the first step you should take if you see smoke or flames in the laboratory? a.) Find the extinguisher and try to put the fire out b.) Pull the fire alarm c.) Evacuate the building d.) Close all the doors and windows: b.) Pull the fire alarm 45. Which term refers to a rapid, severe, life-threatening immune reaction? a.) Anaphylaxis b.) Allergic contact dermatitis c.) Irritant contact dermatitis d.) Sensitivity: a.) Anaphylaxis 46. A wet floor is which type of safety hazard? a.) Biological b.) Chemical c.) Physical d.) Sharps: c.) Physical 47. According to safety protocols, which of the following actions may be performed while working in the laboratory? a.) Chewing gum b.) Applying lip balm 7 / 15 c.) Wearing a watch d.) Wearing sandals: c.) Wearing a watch 48. Which type of hazard label displays the type of hazard, the United Nations hazard class, and a specific identifying number? a.) DOT b.) FDA c.) NFPA d.) OSHA: a.) DOT 49. Which of the following is an acceptable action according to safety standards? a.) Add acid to water b.) Follow the chemical hygiene plan only when there is a spill c.) Use only extension cords that have a ground built into the plug d.) Ignore radioactive hazard symbols on hospital doors since all doses used on patients are very weak: a.) Add acid to water 50. What is the term for invasion and growth of a disease-causing microorganism in the human body? a.) Fomite b.) Infection c.) Pathogen d.) Reservoir: b.) Infection 51. What is the term for an object that is contaminated by bacteria? a.) Fomite b.) Host c.) Portal of entry d.) Reservoir: a.) Fomite 52. What does the term reservoir mean? a.) A contaminated piece of equipment b.) An airborne droplet c.) A person who carries a disease agent but is not sick d.) A vector: c.) A person who carries a disease agent but is not sick 53. What is the term for infections contracted by patients during hospitalization? a.) Nosocomial infections b.) Chains of infections c.) Non-transmitted infections d.) Colonization: a.) Nosocomial infections 54. HEPA (high-efficiency particulate air) filters can help prevent which type of disease transmission? 8 / 15 a.) Airborne b.) Common vehicle c.) Contact d.) Vector: a.) Airborne 55. The pathogen West Nile virus is carried by mosquitoes. What type of transmission is this? a.) Airborne b.) Common vehicle c.) Contact d.) Vector: d.) Vector 56. What is the most frequent and important transmission route for infections contracted by hospitalized patients? a.) Airborne b.) Common vehicle c.) Contact d.) Vector: c.) Contact 57. What is the transmission route of an infection acquired by ingestion of contaminated food? a.) Airborne b.) Common vehicle c.) Contact d.) Vector: b.) Common vehicle 58. What is the single most important means of preventing the spread of infection? a.) Wearing gloves b.) Wearing a mask c.) Hand washing d.) Isolation of infectious patients: c.) Hand washing 59. Which of the following acronyms refers to barriers used to protect skin, mucous membranes, and clothing from infectious agents? a.) CDC b.) MRSA c.) PPE d.) VRE: c.) PPE 60. Proper hand-washing technique includes scrubbing hands together vigorously for at least how long? a.) 5 seconds b.) 15 seconds 9 / 15 c.) 5 minutes d.) Scrubbing hands is not necessary: b.) 15 seconds 61. Respirators must be certified by which of the following agencies? a.) CDC b.) CLIA c.) NIOSH d.) OSHA: c.) NIOSH 62. When donning a gown, mask, respirator, face shield, and gloves, which item should be put on last? a.) Gloves b.) Gown c.) Mask d.) Respirator: a.) Gloves 63. What is the term for infection control measures that use barrier protection and work practice control to prevent contact with infectious body fluids from all patients? a.) Hospital precautions b.) Isolation precautions c.) Patient precautions d.) Standard precautions: d.) Standard precautions 64. When removing PPE, which item should be removed first? a.) Gloves b.) Goggle c.) Gown d.) Mask: a.) Gloves 65. When removing PPE, what is the last thing one should do? a.) Remove gloves b.) Remove mask c.) Remove gown d.) Wash hands: d.) Wash hands 66. The Bloodborne Pathogens Standards require an employer to provide which of the following immunizations? a.) Hepatitis A b.) Hepatitis B c.) HIV d.) Tetanus: b.) Hepatitis B 67. According to the Bloodborne Pathogens Standards, who is responsible for providing PPE to an employee? a.) The employee 10 / 15 b.) The employer provides PPE but may deduct the cost from the employee's paycheck c.) The employer must provide and pay for PPE d.) The patient: c.) The employer must provide and pay for PPE 68. According to the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard rules, which specimens are considered to be potentially infectious? a.) Only specimens from patients with HIV or hepatitis B b.) Specimens from patients with any known infection c.) Specimens that a physician has indicated are infectious d.) All blood and body fluid specimens: d.) All blood and body fluid specimens 69. A diluted solution of which of the following can be used as a disinfectants against blood borne pathogens on countertops and work spaces? a.) Acetic acid b.) Bleach c.) Iodine d.) Lysol: b.) Bleach 70. Which of the following is the term for separation of an infectious source from its susceptible hosts? a.) Contact precautions b.) Infection c.) Isolation d.) Protective equipment: c.) Isolation 71. In addition to standard precautions, what type of precautions should also be used for patients with such diseases as tuberculosis and measles? a.) Airborne b.) Bloodborne c.) Contact d.) Droplet: a.) Airborne 72. In addition to standard precautions, what type of precautions should also be used for patients with such ideas as herpes or wound infections? a.) Airborne b.) Bloodborne c.) Contact d.) Droplet: c.) Contact 73. In addition to standard precautions, what type of precautions should be used for patients with such diseases as HIV or hepatitis B? a.) Airborne b.) Bloodborne 11 / 15 c.) Contact d.) Droplet: b.) Bloodborne 74. For a phlebotomist, what is the principal occupational risk for infection? a.) Infection from airborne diseases in patient rooms b.) Infection from droplets in the emergency department c.) Infection from an accidental needle stick d.) Infection from a splash from a dropped specimen tube: c.) Infection from an accidental needle stick 75. A small blood spill from a specimen you are handling occurs on a laboratory countertop. What is the usual procedure you should use to handle the spill? a.) Use a handful of paper towels and wipe up the spill, being careful not to get any on your skin b.) Ask your supervisor to find someone to clean up the spill c.) Wearing gloves and using 10% bleach as a disinfectant, clean up visible blood first, then disinfect the entire area of potential contamination d.) Leave the spill alone so it can dry, which will make it easier to clean up when you get time: c.) Wearing gloves and using 10% bleach as a disinfectant, clean up visible blood first, then disinfect the entire area of potential contamination 76. In which of he following situations is it acceptable to skip washing your hands? a.) Before putting on gloves b.) Before going to break c.) After eating lunch d.) Before leaving for the day: c.) After eating lunch 77. Phlebotomy skills would not include: a.) organization b.) handling patient correspondence c.) interpersonal skills d.) being able to handle stress: b.) handling patient correspondence 78. The monitoring system for institutions that train phlebotomists is known as a.) certification b.) accreditation c.) licensure d.) CEUs: b.) accreditation 79. Once phlebotomists are certified, continuing education programs allow them to earn a.) CEUs 12 / 15 b.) licensing points c.) accreditation d.) a degree: a.) CEUs 80. Which is not a required personal characteristic of a professional phlebotomist? a.) dependability b.) honesty c.) compassion d.) sense of humor: d.) sense of humor 81. Fiscal services is responsible for a.) cleaning and maintenance b.) performing tests c.) diagnosis and treatment of the patient d.) admitting, medical records, and billing: d.) admitting, medical records, and billing 82. The following department uses radioisotopes to perform tests: a.) respiratory therapy b.) cytogenetics c.) nuclear medicine d.) hematology: c.) nuclear medicine 83. Occult blood testing is performed on a.) plasma b.) feces c.) serum d.) cerebrospinal fluid: b.) feces 84. OSHA stands for a.) Occupational Standards in Health Associations b.) Outline of Safety Hazards and Accidents c.) Occupational Safety and Health Administration d.) Occupational Standards and Health Administration: c.) Occupational Safety and Health Administration 85. The first action to take in the event of fire is to a.) call the fire department b.) close windows and doors c.) remove patients from danger d.) pull the fire alarm: c.) remove patients from danger 86. In the event of electric shock, the first thing you should do is a.) call 911 b.) attempt to turn off the electrical equipment 13 / 15 c.) break contact between the source and the victim d.) start CPR: b.) attempt to turn off the electrical equipment 87. Which of the following does the NFPA symbol not warn about? a.) protective equipment b.) fire c.) chemical stability d.) health: a.) protective equipment 88. Which of the following would not be considered a pathogen? a.) bacteria b.) viruses c.) fungi d.) vectors: d.) vectors 89. Vectors include: a.) doorknobs b.) medical instruments c.) needles d.) insects: d.) insects 90. In the circulatory system, gas exchange occurs in the a.) capillaries b.) veins c.) arteries d.) venules: a.) capillaries 91. Which blood vessels are a single cell in thickness? a.) capillaries b.) veins c.) arteries d.) arterioles: a.) capillaries 92. Veins and arteries are composed of how many layers? a.) 1 b.) 2 c.) 3 d.) 4: c.) 3 93. A characteristic of arteries is a.) they are composed of a single layer of endothelial cells b.) they have a thick muscle layer lining the lumen c.) they have valves along the lumen d.) they carry blood toward the heart: b.) they have a thick muscle layer lining the lumen 14 / 15 94. Which lab test does not assist in diagnosing HIV infection? a.) Western blot b.) T-cell count c.) APTT d.) anti-HIV antibody: c.) APTT 95. Which of the following is not an anticoagulant? a.) polymer gel b.) sodium heparin c.) sodium citrate d.) EDTA: a.) polymer gel 15 / 15