VTNE Practice Questions Guide

VTNE Practice Questions 1. What electrolyte change can occur if you leave a blood sample sitting too long with red blood cells (RBCs) in contact with the serum? A - Phosphorus increases B - Bicarbonate decreases C - Potassium decreases D - Sodium increases A. Phosphorus increases 2. A client brings in her dog who ate a box of rat poison in the last 2 days. What symptoms would be expected? A - Bleeding, weakness B - Seizures, vomiting C - Unconscious, rapid heartrate D - Severe pain, depression A. Bleeding, weakness 3. Which color is a gram-positive bacteria on the microscopic slide? A - Red B - Blue C - Orange D - Green B. Blue 4. What lab result would you expect to find in a cat with Diabetes mellitus? A - Increased urine glucose; Decreased blood glucose B - Low urine glucose; Normal blood glucose C - Increased urine glucose, Increased blood glucose D - Urinary infection; Low blood glucose C. Increased urine glucose, increased blood glucose 5. Which forceps secure drapes to the patient by penetrating the skin? A - Backhaus B - Roeder C - Brown-Adson D - Crile A. Backhaus 6. A rare Albanian hairy iguana has been prescribed "Iggy-cote" medicated shampoo q.o.d. for dandruff. How often does the iguana get treated? C. Every other day A - Once a day B - Four times a day C - Every other day D - As needed 7. Which two white blood cells are phagocytic (eat foreign cells and material by engulfing them). A - B-Lymphocyte, Eosinophil B - Monocyte, Neutrophil C - Basophil, Lymphocyte D - Neutrophil, Thrombocyte B. Monocyte, neutrophil What is a band neutrophil? A - An old neutrophil B - Immature neutrophil C - A depleted neutrophil D - A toxic neutrophil E - A neutrophil that plays the drums B. Immature neutrophil 9. How do you prevent laryngospasm in cats before inducing anesthesia? B - 1-2% Lidocaine spray A - Pre-medicate with acepromazine 1/9 B - 1-2% Lidocaine spray C - Pre-medicate with atropine or glycopyrrolate D - Avoid halothane 10. Which term describes inflammation of the testicle? A - Orchitis B - Phimosis C - Phlebitis D - Cryptorchid A - Orchitis 11. Which choice is often used in combination with ketamine or thiopental to induce anesthesia in horses? A - Halothane B - Phenobarbital C - Naloxone D - Guaifenesin D. Guaifenesin 12. What does it mean if a cat is azotemic? A - Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is increased B - Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is decreased C - Creatinine is high D - Sodium-Potassium ratio is too low A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is increased 14. Which drug can reverse the effects of xylazine (alpha2-adrenergic agonist with analgesic and sedative effects)? A - Yohimbine B - Pralidoxime C - Atropine D - Diazepam (Valium) A. Yohimbine 15. Which one of the following dog breeds is classified as brachycephalic? A - Golden retriever B - Greyhound C - English bull dog D - Great Dane C. English Bull dog 16. Which kind of tissue causes the most x-ray scatter? A - Thick body parts B - Thin body parts C - Joints 8 cm thick or less D - Delicate bone, like nasal area A. Thick body parts 17. You are called to a farm to help do a routine dental exam and float the teeth of an 8-year old Standardbred mare. What parts get filed down with the rasp when a horse gets its teeth floated? A - Lingual aspect-upper molar arcade, Buccal aspect-lower molar E - Buccal aspect-upper molar arcade, Lingual aspect-lower molar arcade arcade B - Buccal aspect-upper molar arcade, rostral points of wolf teeth C - Lingual aspect-upper molar arcade, Lingual aspect-lower molar arcade D - Buccal aspect-upper molar arcade, Buccal aspect-lower molar arcade E - Buccal aspect-upper molar arcade, Lingual aspect-lower molar arcade 19. A 3 year-old domestic longhair female spayed cat is presented at your clinic with hypersalivation, vomiting, diarrhea, tremors, 2/9 stumbling and a temperature of 105.2 F (40.7 C). Her pupils are normal size and responsive to light. While the vet examines the animal, she has a seizure. The owner relates that he had treated her the night before with a flea dip he had originally bought for his dog. What toxic ingredient do you suspect most highly? C - Permethrin A - D-Limonene B - Carbamate C - Permethrin D - Organophosphate 20. Which choice lists these species in order of gestation length, from longest to shortest pregnancy? A - Cow, Horse, Pig, Dog, Goat B - Cow, Horse, Pig, Goat, Dog C - Llama, Pig, Sheep, Ferret, Cat D - Horse, Cow, Goat, Pig, Dog D - Horse, Cow, Goat, Pig, Dog 21. What is a nosocomial infection? A - A sinusitis, typically found in horses B - An upper respiratory infection C - An infection acquired in a hospital D - An infection acquired secondary to injury C - An infection acquired in a hospital 22. Why is the brachioradialis muscle clinically significant in dogs and cats? A - Adjacent to the tibial nerve B - Associated with brachial plexus avulsion C - Lies above axillary artery D - Implicated in medial patellar luxation E - Can be mistaken for cephalic vein in venipuncture E - Can be mistaken for cephalic vein in venipuncture What is the clinical significance of the femoral triangle in dogs and cats? A - Associated with brachial plexus avulsion B - Good place to take pulse from femoral artery C - Often damaged with anterior cruciate injuries D - Pulse oximeters attach there E - Surgical approach for hip dysplasia repair B - Good place to take pulse from femoral artery How long after birth does gut closure typically occur in calves and foals? (when protective maternal antibodies can no longer be absorbed from the gut to the bloodstream) E - 18-24 hours A - 1-3 hours B - 3-6 hours C - 9-12 hours D - 15-18 hours E - 18-24 hours Vaccine-associated sarcomas in cats are primarily linked to with which two vaccines? A - FeLV and Feline Panleukopenia vaccines B - FeLV and Rabies vaccines C - Feline Calici/Herpes and Panleukopenia vaccines D - FeLV and Feline Calici/Herpes vaccines E - Rabies and Feline Panleukopenia vaccines B - FeLV and Rabies vaccines How long after the first rabies vaccination is a dog, cat or ferret considered to be immunized and protected against rabies? 3/9 A - After 14 days B - Same day C - After 28 days D - After 7 days C - After 28 days What is the function of a thrombocyte? A - Cause blood clotting B - Prevent blood clotting C - Remove red blood cell parasites D - Prevent phagocytosis A - Cause blood clotting A 6-month-old mixed breed dog presents with a focal area of alopecia with comedones. A skin scraping is shown below. A - Demodecosis Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis? A - Demodecosis B - Cheyletiellosis C - Sarcoptic mange D - Dermatophytosis E - Microsporosis What is the normal amount of expected moisture on a paper testing strip in Schirmer's tear test? A - 18-25 mm B - 10-15 mm C - 5-10 mm D - 0-5 mm A - 18-25 mm Which color is a gram-negative bacteria on the microscopic slide? A - Red B - Blue C - Orange D - Green A - Red A - Eosinophil Which of the following is the predominant white blood cell type seen on this peripheral blood smear from a dog? A - Eosinophil B - Basophil C - Macrophage D - Lymphocyte E - Monocyte How common are dental caries (cavities) in dogs? A - Common B - Seen in 35% of adults older than 5 years C - Uncommon D - Seen in 75% of adults older than 5 years C - Uncommon What is the most common malignant oral tumor in cats? A - Osteosarcoma B - Squamous cell carcinoma C - Melanoma D - Fibrosarcoma B - Squamous cell carcinoma Which is more severe, periodontitis or gingivitis? C - Periodontitis A - No difference in severity B - Depends on patient 4/9 C - Periodontitis D - Gingivitis What is the total serum protein level in a dog with an albumin of 4.0 g/dl and a globulin level of 3.5 g/dl? A - 1.5 g/dl B - 3.5 g/dl C - 7.5 g/dl D - Cannot calculate with this information C - 7.5 g/dl How might you roughly calculate the hemoglobin concentration in a blood sample from a normal dog if you know the red blood cell (RBC) packed cell volume (PCV, %)? D - Multiply PCV by one third (0.33) A - Double the PCV B - Divide PCV by half C - Multiply PCV by one quarter (0.25) D - Multiply PCV by one third (0.33) A calf with pinkeye is being treated with an injection of long acting oxytetracycline. The calf weighs 100 lbs and the dose is 10mg/kg. How many milligrams will be needed for one dose? A - 454.5 milligrams A - 454.5 milligrams B - 22 milligrams C - 2200 milligrams D - 4.5 milligrams E - 75 milligrams Why are most antibiotics contraindicated in rabbits and hamsters? A - Highly permeable blood-brain barrier B - Their little hearts just can't take it C - Disrupts gram positive gut flora D - Highly sensitive to renal toxicity C - Disrupts gram positive gut flora Which drug causes vomiting in cats? A - Xylazine B - Phenobarbital C - Ketamine D - Diazepam A - Xylazine The major active ingredient in most IV euthanasia solutions is: A - Phenobarbital B - Potassium chloride C - Pentobarbital D - Thiopental C - Pentobarbital How would you change exposure settings to make an x-ray film lighter? A - Decrease kVp, increase mA, incease time B - Increase kVp, decrease mA, increase time C - Decrease kVp, decrease mA, decrease time D - Increase kVp, increase mA, increase time C - Decrease kVp, decrease mA, decrease time What is the rule of thumb for how long an x-ray film should stay in the fixer bath? A - Twice as long as film was in developer A - Twice as long as film was in developer B - Half as long as film was in developer 5/9 C - Five minutes D - One minute Which choice correctly lists the order in which gasses pass through a typical circular anesthetic circuit? A - Pressure regulator, vaporizer, patient, CO2 canister, flowmeter C - Pressure regulator, flowmeter, vaporizer, patient, CO2 canister B - Vaporizer, pressure regulator, flowmeter,CO2 canister, patient C - Pressure regulator, flowmeter, vaporizer, patient, CO2 canister D - Flowmeter, pressure regulator, vaporizer, patient, CO2 canister Which of the following choices is a side effect that you should be aware of when using ketamine for anesthesia in cats? A - Eyes stay open B - Dose-dependent respiratory depression C - Cardiac arrest D - Laryngospasm A - Eyes stay open What is the purpose of a curette? A - Scrape hard tissues B - Highly absorbent surgical sponge C - Holds intramedullary bone pins D - Cauterizes blood vessels A - Scrape hard tissues Which anatomic area do these three surgical approaches access in the horse? Modified Whitehouse Viborg's triangle Hyovertebrotomy E - Guttural pouch A - Maxillary sinus B - Soft palate C - Atlanto-occipital joint D - Osseous bullae E - Guttural pouch The vet has asked you to prepare for a pyometra surgery on a 7 year-old intact female schnauzer. What are you about to remove from the dog? A - Uterus A - Uterus B - Kidney C - Gall bladder D - Mammary glands You are looking at a canine vaginal smear through a microscope. At what stage of the estrous cycle is this dog? D - Diestrus A - Cannot tell from this slide B - Anestrus C - Estrus D - Diestrus Where would a dog or cat be likely to encounter arsenic around the house? C - Ant baits A - De-icer crystals B - Anti-mildew paint C - Ant baits 6/9 D - Silver-polish E - Snail baits How long is a practice required to maintain client medical records? A - Years B - Weeks C - Months D - Decades E - A practice is not legally required to preserve medical records A - Years Which choice correctly describes apnea? A - No breathing B - Difficult breathing C - Heart murmur D - Atopic allergy A - No breathing Which drug family is associated with tooth enamel problems? A - Aminoglycosides B - Quinolones C - Macrolides D - Tetracyclines E - Cephalosporins D - Tetracyclines Which statement about the proper storage of fresh or frozen plasma is most correct? A - can be frozen for up to 1 year B - must be used within 48 h C - should be stored above 98.6 F (37 C) D - can be stored at 39.2 F - 50 F (4 C - 10 C) for up to 3 weeks A - can be frozen for up to 1 year A cat that weighs 11 lb (5 kg) is prescribed antibiotics at a dosage of 0.2 mg/lb (0.44 mg/kg). The medication is available only in 2 mg tablets. How many tablets should the cat receive in a single dose? C - ~1 tablet A - ~1/4 tablet B - ~1/2 tablet C - ~1 tablet D - ~1 1/2 tablets What does it mean if a cow is multiparous? A - Has given birth more than once B - Pregnant with twins C - Has been pregnant, then aborted D - Is a twin and other animal is male E - She is good at math A - Has given birth more than once The vet has asked you to prepare for an onychectomy on a cat. What kind of surgery is this? A - Declaw B - Spay C - Cesarean delivery D - Castration A - Declaw A basset hound with galloping halitosis has been prescribed with medicated mint dog treats prn for bad breath. How often does the dog get treated? A - Every other day 7/9 D - As needed B - Once a day C - Four times a day D - As needed Which choice indicates that the soda lime granules in a CO2 absorbent canister have become exhausted? A - Color stays pink, regardless of exposure B - Color change from white to purple C - Color change from purple to white D - Color stays white, regardless of exposure B - Color change from white to purple What is an iatrogenic medical or surgical problem? A - A disease secondary to inbreeding B - A genetic predisposition C - A disease that gets better without treatment D - A bad outcome, inflicted by the therapy itself D - A bad outcome, inflicted by the therapy itself Which one of the following choices does not produce energy when ingested? A - Mineral B - Carbohydrate C - Protein D - Sucrose E - Cellulose A - Mineral While examining a high-producing dairy cow that is off-feed, the vet puts her stethoscope on the left side in a line between the left elbow and the cow's hip bones and starts flicking her fingers against the side of the cow while listening to the stethoscope. What is she listening for? C - The musical ping of a left displaced abomasum A - The characteristic dead spot of an impacted omasum B - The dull thud of rumen stasis C - The musical ping of a left displaced abomasum D - The regular movement of rumen contraction waves Which direction is plantar? A - The bottom of the hindfoot B - The top of the hoof C - The top of the hind foot D - The bottom of the fore foot A - The bottom of the hindfoot What treatment in the clinic will make the cat vomit as soon as possible? A - Fomepizole (4-MP) IV B - Clofazimine SQ C - Yohimbine IM D - Xylazine IV D - Xylazine IV Which commonly-used anesthetic circuit is made up of a tube within a tube? A - Bain system B - Closed circle system C - Semi-closed circle system D - Universal Y circuit A - Bain system Which choice best describes the process of repairing a clean wound within a few hours of injury by first intention? A - Suture the wound closed A - Suture the wound closed 8/9 B - Delayed primary closure C - Allow wound to contract and epithelialize D - Allow wound to granulate closed How long after a booster rabies vaccination is a dog, cat or ferret considered to be currently vaccinated and protected against rabies? A - Immediately B - After 24 hours C - After 48 hours D - After 7 days E - After 14 days A - Immediately Which choice is best for an x-ray of a nervous, moving dog? A - Higher milliamperage (mA); Shorter time (seconds) B - Higher kilovoltage (kVp) C - Lower milliamperage (mA); Shorter time (seconds) D - Higher milliamperage (mA); Longer time (seconds) A - Higher milliamperage (mA); Shorter time (seconds) 9/9