Cybersecurity Principles and Networking Fundamentals (Answer Key) Part 2

Which of the following areas is connected to PII? A. Non-Repudiation B. Authentication C. Integrity D. Confidentiality According to the canon "Provide diligent and competent service to principals", ISC2 professionals are to: A. Take care not to tarnish the reputation of other professionals through malice or indifference. B. Treat all members fairly and,when resolving conflicts, consider public safety and duties to principals, individuals and the profession, in that order. C. Avoid apparent or actual conflicts of interest. D. Promote the understanding and acceptance of prudent information security measures. Malicious emails that aim to attack company executives are an example of: A. Trojans B. Whaling C. Phishing D. Rootkits Governments can impose financial penalties as a consequence of breaking a: A. Regulation B. Standard C. Policy D. Procedure Which type of attack attempts to trick the user into revealing personal information by sending a fraudulent message? A. Phishing B. Cross-Site Scripting C. Denials of Service D. Trojans In which of the following access control models can the creator of an object delegate permission? A. ABAC B. MAC C. RBAC D. DAC Which type of attack has the PRIMARY objective of encrypting devices and their data, and then demanding a ransom payment for the decryption key? A. Ransomware B. Trojan C. Cross-Site Scripting D. Phishing Which of the following cloud models allows access to fundamental computer resources? (★) A. SaaS B. FaaS C. PaaS D. IaaS How many layers does the OSI model have? A. 7 B. 4 C. 6 D. 5 Which of the following principles aims primarily at fraud detection? A. Privileged Accounts B. Defense in Depth C. Least Privilege D. Separation of Duties Which protocol uses a three-way handshake to establish a reliable connection? A. TCP B. SMTP C. UDP D. SNMP Which of the following is an example of a technical security control? A. Access control lists B. Turnstiles C. Fences D. Bollards Which type of attack attempts to gain information by observing the device's power consumption? (★) A. Side Channels B. Trojans C. Cross Site Scripting D. Denials of Service Which of the following areas is the most distinctive property of PHI? A. Integrity B. Confidentiality C. Non-Repudiation D. Authentication Which of these is the most efficient and effective way to test a business continuity plan? A. Simulations B. Walkthroughs C. Reviews D. Discussions Which of the following Cybersecurity concepts guarantees that information is accessible only to those authorized to access it? A. Confidentiality B. Non-repudiation C. Authentication D. Accessibility In the event of a disaster, what should be the PRIMARY objective? (★) A. Apply disaster communication B. Protect the production database C. Guarantee the safety of people D. Guarantee the continuity of critical systems A security professional should report violations of a company's security policy to: A. The ISC Ethics Committee B. Company management C. National authorities D. A court of law Which department in a company is NOT regularly involved in a DRP? A. Executives B. IT C. Public Relations D. Financial Which of the following is included in an SLA document? A. A plan to prepare the organization for the continuation of critical business functions B. A plan to keep business operations going while recovering from a significant disruption C. Instructions to detect, respond to, and limit the consequences of a cyber-attack D. Instructions on data ownership and destruction What is the most important difference between MAC and DAC? A. In MAC, security administrators set the roles for the users; in DAC, roles are set at the object owner’s discretion B. In MAC, security administrators assign access permissions; in DAC, security administrators set user roles C. In MAC, security administrators assign access permissions; in DAC, access permissions are set at the object owner’s discretion D. In MAC, access permissions are set at the object owner’s discretion; in DAC, it is up to security administrators to assign access permissions Requiring a specific user role to access resources is an example of: A. MAC B. ABAC C. RBAC D. DAC Which type of document outlines the procedures ensuring that vital company systems keep running during businessdisrupting events? A. Business Impact Plan B. Business Impact Analysis C. Disaster Recovery Plan D. Business Continuity Plan Which of the following is NOT a best practice in access management? A. Give only the right amount of permission B. Periodically assess if user permissions still apply C. Request a justification when upgrading permission D. Trust but verify If a company collects PII, which policy is required? A. Remote Access Policy B. GDPR C. Privacy Policy D. Acceptable Use Policy Which of these is LEAST likely to be installed by an infection? A. Logic Bomb B. Keylogger C. Trojan D. Backdoor (★) The best defense method to stop a 'Replay Attack' is to: A. Use an IPSec VPN B. Use a Firewall C. Use password authentication D. Use message digesting Which of these devices has the PRIMARILY objective of determining the most efficient path for the traffic to flow across the networks? A. Hubs B. Firewalls C. Routers D. Switches Which of these types of malware self-replicates without the need for human intervention? A. Worm B. Trojan C. Virus D. Rootkits As an (ISC)2 member, you are expected to perform with due care. What does 'due care' specifically mean? A. Do what is right in each situation you encounter on the job B. Give continuity to the legacy of security practices of your company C. Apply patches annually D. Researching and acquiring the knowledge to do your job right (★) Which of these is NOT a best practice in access management? A. Periodically assessing whether user permissions still apply B. Requesting a justification when upgrading permission C. Giving only the right amount of permission D. Trust but verify During the investigation of an incident, which security policies are more likely to cause difficulties? A. Configuration standards B. Incident response policies C. Communication policies D. Retention policies In an Access Control List (ACL), the element that determines which permissions you have is: A. The subject B. The object C. The firmware D. The rule What does the term 'data remanence' refer? A. Data in use that can't be encrypted B. Files saved locally that can't be remoted accessed C. Data left over after routine removal and deletion D. All of the data in a system (★) Which type of recovery site has some or most systems in place, but does not have the data needed to take over operations? A. A hot site B. A cloud site C. A warm site D. A cold site Which of these is NOT a characteristic of an MSP implementation? A. Manage all in-house company infrastructure B. Monitor and respond to security incidents C. Mediate, execute and decide top-level decisions D. Utilize expertise for the implementation of a product or service Which of these is NOT a typical component of a comprehensive business continuity plan (BCP)? A. A cost prediction of the immediate response procedures B. Immediate response procedures and checklists C. Notification systems and call trees for alerting personnel D. A list of the BCP team members Acting ethically is mandatory for (ISC)2 members. Which of these is NOT considered unethical? A. Disrupting the intended use of the internet B. Seeking to gain unauthorized access to resources on thae internet C. Compromising the privacy of users D. Having fake social media profiles and accounts In an incident response process, which phase uses indicators of compromise and log analysis as part of a review of events? A. Preparation B. Eradication C. Identification D. Containment Which of these Access Control Systems is commonly used in the military? A. ABAC B. DAC C. RBAC D. MAC Which of these is NOT a security principle? A. Security in Depth (SID) B. Zero Trust model C. Least Privilege D. Separation of Duties Which of these is not a common goal of a cybersecurity attacker? A. Allocation B. Alteration C. Disclosure D. Denial Which of these types of layers is NOT part of the TCP/IP model? A. Application B. Physical C. Internet D. Transport On a BYOD model, which of these technologies is best suited to keep corporate data and applications separate from personal? A. Biometrics B. Full-device encryption C. Context-aware authentication D. Containerization In the context of risk management, which information does ALE outline? A. The expected cost per year of not performing a given risk-mitigating action B. The business impact of a risk C. The percentage of Asset Lost Efficiency D. The probability of a risk coming to pass in a given year Which of these techniques is PRIMARILY used to ensure data integrity? A. Message Digest B. Content Encryption C. Backups D. Hashing Which of these is an example of a privacy breach? A. Any observable occurrence in a network or system B. Being exposed to the possibility of attack C. Unavailability of critical systems D. Access of private information by an unauthorized person Which of these terms refers to a collection of fixes? A. Downgrade B. Patch C. Service Pack D. Hotfix While performing background checks on new employees, which of these can NEVER be an attribute for discrimination? A. Employment history, references, criminal records B. Credit history, employment history, references C. Criminal Records, credit history, references D. References, education, political affiliation, employment history When looking for cybersecurity insurance, which of these is the MOST IMPORTANT objective? A. Risk acceptance B. Risk transference C. Risk avoidance D. Risk spreading Which of these documents is MORE directly related to what can be done with a system or with its information? A. SLA B. MOA C. MOU D. ROE Which kind of document outlines the procedures ensuring that vital company systems keep running during businessdisrupting events? A. Business Impact Analysis B. Business Impact Plan C. Business Continuity Plan D. Disaster Recovery Plan Which of these social engineering attacks sends emails that target specific individuals? A. Pharming B. Whaling C. Vishing D. Spear phishing (★) Which of these properties is NOT guaranteed by a Message Authentication Code (MAC)? A. Authenticity B. Anonymity C. Integrity D. Non-repudiation What is the PRIMARY objective of a degaussing? A. Preventing magnetic side-channel attacks B. Reducing noisy data on a disk C. Erasing the data on a disk D. Retaining the data on a disk Which of these is part of the canons (ISC)2 code of ethics? A. Provide diligent and competent services to stakeholders B. Advance and protect the profession C. Prevent and detect unauthorized use of digital assets in a society D. Act always in the best interest of your client Which of these is NOT one of the (ISC)2 ethics canons? A. Act honorably, honestly, justly, responsibly, and legally B. Consider the social consequences of the systems you are designing C. Protect society, the common good, necessary public trust and confidence, and the infrastructure D. Provide diligent and competent service to principals (★) Which of these is the PRIMARY objective of the PCI-DSS standard? A. Personally Identifiable Information (PII) B. Change Management C. Secure Credit Cards Payments D. Protected Health Information (PHI) Which of these is an attack that encrypts the organization's information, and then demands payment for the decryption code? A. Phishing B. DDoS C. Spoofing D. Ransomware The PRIMARY objective of a business continuity plan is: A. To regularly verify whether the organization complies with applicable regulations B. To sustain business operations while recovering from a disruption C. To assess the impact of disruption to the business D. To restore the business to the full last-known reliable state of operations Which of these is an attack whose PRIMARY goal is to gain access to a target system through falsified identity? A. Ransomware B. Amplification C. Spoofing D. DDoS When an incident occurs, which of these is not a PRIMARY responsibility of an organization's response team? A. Determining the scope of the damage caused by the incident B. Implementing the recovery procedures necessary to restore security and recover from any incident-related damage C. Determining whether any confidential information has been compromised over the course of the entire incident D. Communicating with top management regarding the circumstances of the cybersecurity event What is the PRIMARY objective of a rollback in the context of the change management process? A. Identify the required changes needed B. Validate the system change process C. Restore the system to its last state before the change was made D. Establish a minimum understood and acceptable level of security requirements Which of these entities is responsible for signing an organization's policies? A. Human Resources B. Security engineer C. Financial Department D. Senior management Which of these terms refers to threats with unusually high technical and operational sophistication, spanning months or even years? A. Rootkit B. APT C. Side-channel D. Ping of death The PRIMARY objective of a security baseline is to establish ... A. a minimum understood and a good level of security requirements B. a minimum understood and acceptable level of security requirements C. security and configuration requirements D. a maximum understood and an acceptable level of security requirements Which of these attacks take advantage of inadequate input validation in websites? A. Phishing B. Trojans C. Cross-Site Scripting D. Rootkits An organization needs a network security tool that detects and acts in the event of malicious activity. Which of these tools will BEST meet their needs? A. Router B. IPS C. IDS D. Firewall In a DAC policy scenario, which of these tasks can only be performed by a subject granted access to information? A. Changing security attributes B. Reading the information C. Executing the information D. Modifying the information In the event of non-compliance, which of these can have considerable financial consequences for an organization? A. Policies B. Regulations C. Guidelines D. Standards What does the term LAN refer to? A. A tool to manage and control network traffic, as well as to protect a network. B. A network on a building or limited geographical area C. A device that connects multiple other devices in a network D. A long-distance connection between geographically-distant networks Which of these is a type of corrective security control? A. Patches B. Intrusion detection systems C. Guidelines D. Encryption Which of these enables point-to-point online communication over an untrusted network? A. VLAN B. Firewall C. Router D. VPN At which of the OSI layers do TCP and UDP work? A. Transport Layer B. Session Layer C. Application Layer D. Physical Layer (★) Which is the PRIMARY focus of the ISO 27002 standard? A. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) B. Information Security Management System (ISMS) C. Risk Management D. Application Security (★) Which of these different sub-masks will allow 30 hosts? A. /26 B. /30 C. /27 D. /29 (★) Which of these statements about the security implications of IPv6 is NOT true? A. Rules based on static IPv6 addresses may not work B. IPv6's NAT implementation is insecure C. IPv6 traffic may bypass existing security controls D. IPv6 reputation services may not be mature and useful Which of these is a type of detective access control? A. Bollards B. Movement Sensors C. Turnstiles D. Firewalls The name, age, location and job title of a person are all examples of: A. Biometric factors B. Attributes C. Account permissions D. Identity factors Which cloud service model provides the most suitable environment for customers who want to install their custom operating system? A. SaaS B. SLA C. IaaS D. PaaS