Chapter 3 Genetic Influence on Cell Division, Differentiation, and Gametogenesis

____ Chapter 3: Genetic Influence on Cell Division, Differentiation, and Gametogenesis 1. In what way is hypertrophic tissue growth more advantageous than hyperplastic tissue growth? C. Less energy is required for hypertrophic growth. ____ 2. In which phases of the cell cycle is the normal cell tetraploid (4N)? C. S and G2 ____ 3. How is apoptosis related to physiologic homeostasis? B. The efficiency of organ/tissue functions is increased. ____ 4. Which normal cell characteristic is represented by the production of insulin in the beta cells of the ____ 5. What is the consequence for a tissue/cell that no longer produces any cell adhesion molecules? D. Migration of cells into other tissues ____ 6. How do transcription factors influence cell division? B. Transcription factors regulate the expression of genes involved in cell division. ____ 7. How does apoptosis contribute to healthy organ and whole-body function? C. Removes old or damaged cells from an organ population ____ 8. What would be the expected response to a skin injury if the involved tissue had lost the normal cell ____ 9. What is the function of a suppressor gene product? A. To ensure cell division occurs only when it is needed pancreas? A. Performance of a differentiated function characteristic of contact inhibition? B. Excessive growth of replacement tissue ____ 10. Normal cells spend most of their life spans in which phase? A. G0 ____ 11. How do cyclins influence the process of cell division? D. Opposing suppressor gene products and promoting cell division ____ 12. What is the general purpose of tyrosine kinase enzymes? A. Activating cyclins by phosphorylation ____ 13. Which event occurs during mitosis? C. Daughter cells are produced that are genetically identical to the parent cell. ____ 14. Which cell feature is common to normal human differentiated cells and to early embryonic human cells? D. Euploidy ____ 15. Which feature or characteristic of early embryonic cells is unique in comparison with normal differentiated cells? B. Pluripotency ____ 16. Which event characterizes embryonic commitment? C. Increased suppressor gene activity ____ 17. Which mechanism allows cell differentiation in embryonic tissue? C. Selected expression of individual structural genes ____ 18. How many different genotypes are possible in any single mature spermatocyte of a man who is heterozygous at a single gene locus for a specific trait? A. One ____ 19. Which stage of cell division is present in mitosis but is missing in meiosis? C. G2 ____ 20. What is the expected result when two homologous chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis I of spermatogenesis? B. One gamete will have two of these chromosomes, and one will have neither of these chromosomes. ____ 21. During which phase of gametogenesis is the process of crossing over more likely to occur for either spermatocytes or oocytes? D. Prophase I ____ 22. Which process is unique to spermatogenesis? B. Equal distribution of cytoplasm during meiosis I ____ 23. Which cell in the process of oogenesis has the most chromosomes? B. Primary oocyte ____ 24. What is the usual outcome of “crossing over” during meiosis I for both spermatogenesis and oogenesis? B. Mixing of maternal and paternal genes within one chromosome pair ____ 25. Which cell division process sequences are normal for meiosis for gametogenesis? C. A single round of DNA synthesis followed by two separate rounds of meiotic cell division ____ 26. Which response is the immediate and direct result of fertilization? C. Primary sex determination of the zygote ____ 27. What is the consequence of synapsis and crossing over? D. Random recombination of genetic material between paternal and maternal chromatids ____ 28. Why is meiosis II for both spermatogenesis and oogenesis called an “equatorial division?” B. The actual number of chromosomes within the resulting cells is the same as before this division. ____ 29. How many mature ovum result from the complete oogenesis of one oogonium? A. One ____ 30. Meiosis II of oocytes is completed at which developmental period? A. At the ninth prenatal week ____ 31. Why is normal fertilization of one mature ovum usually performed by only one mature sperm even though hundreds of millions of sperm are present in the seminal fluid of one ejaculation? D. After being penetrated by one sperm, the ovum’s membrane changes electrically and prevents other sperm from entering. ____ 32. Why is fertilization of a polar body unlikely to lead to normal embryonic and fetal development? B. The lack of cytoplasm would inhibit cellular reproduction.