Final Exam Enterprise Networking, Security, and Automation Part 3

72. What are two purposes of launching a reconnaissance attack on a network? (Choose two.)  to scan for accessibility  to retrieve and modify data  to gather information about the network and devices  to prevent other users from accessing the system  to escalate access privileges 73. A group of users on the same network are all complaining about their computers running slowly. After investigating, the technician determines that these computers are part of a zombie network. Which type of malware is used to control these computers?  botnet  spyware  virus  rootkit 74. An ACL is applied inbound on a router interface. The ACL consists of a single entry: access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 host 192.31.7.45 eq dns . If a packet with a source address of 10.1.1.201, a destination address of 192.31.7.45, and a protocol of 23 is received on the interface, is the packet permitted or denied?  permitted  denied 75. Refer to the exhibit. From which location did this router load the IOS?  flash memory  NVRAM?  RAM  ROM  a TFTP server? 76. Refer to the exhibit. Which data format is used to represent the data for network automation applications?  XML  YAML  HTML  JSON Explanation: The common data formats that are used in many applications including network automation and programmability are as follows:  JavaScript Object Notation (JSON) – In JSON, the data known as an object is one or more key/value pairs enclosed in braces { }. Keys must be strings within double quotation marks ” “. Keys and values are separated by a colon.  eXtensible Markup Language (XML) – In XML, the data is enclosed within a related set of tags data.  YAML Ain’t Markup Language (YAML) – In YAML, the data known as an object is one or more key value pairs. Key value pairs are separated by a colon without the use of quotation marks. YAML uses indentation to define its structure, without the use of brackets or commas. 77. What QoS step must occur before packets can be marked?  classifying  shaping  queuing  policing 78. What is the main function of a hypervisor?  It is used to create and manage multiple VM instances on a host machine.  It is a device that filters and checks security credentials.  It is a device that synchronizes a group of sensors.  It is software used to coordinate and prepare data for analysis.  It is used by ISPs to monitor cloud computing resources. 79. A company needs to interconnect several branch ofÏces across a metropolitan area. The network engineer is seeking a solution that provides high-speed converged trafÏc, including voice, video, and data on the same network infrastructure. The company also wants easy integration to their existing LAN infrastructure in their ofÏce locations. Which technology should be recommended?  Frame Relay  Ethernet WAN  VSAT  ISDN 80. Refer to the exhibit. As trafÏc is forwarded out an egress interface with QoS treatment, which congestion avoidance technique is used?  traffic shaping  weighted random early detection  classification and marking  trafÏc policing Explanation: Traffic shaping buffers excess packets in a queue and then forwards the traffic over increments of time, which creates a smoothed packet output rate. Traffic policing drops traffic when the amount of traffic reaches a configured maximum rate, which creates an output rate that appears as a saw-tooth with crests and troughs. 81. An ACL is applied inbound on a router interface. The ACL consists of a single entry: access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 host 10.1.3.8 eq dns . If a packet with a source address of 10.1.3.8, a destination address of 10.10.3.8, and a protocol of 53 is received on the interface, is the packet permitted or denied?  denied  permitted 82. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco broadband router?  defines which addresses are allowed into the router  defines which addresses can be translated  defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool  defines which addresses are allowed out of the router 83. If a router has two interfaces and is routing both IPv4 and IPv6 trafÏc, how many ACLs could be created and applied to it?  12 4 8  16 6 84. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator first configured an extended ACL as shown by the output of the show access-lists command. The administrator then edited this access-list by issuing the commands below. Router(config)# ip access-list extended 101 Router(config-ext-nacl)# no 20 Router(config-ext-nacl)# 5 permit tcp any any eq 22 Router(config-ext-nacl)# 20 deny udp any any Which two conclusions can be drawn from this new configuration? (Choose two.)  TFTP packets will be permitted.  Ping packets will be permitted.  Telnet packets will be permitted.  SSH packets will be permitted.  All TCP and UDP packets will be denied. Explanation: After the editing, the final configuration is as follows: Router#;show access-lists Extended IP access list 101 5 permit tcp any any eq ssh 10 deny tcp any any 20 deny udp any any 30 permit icmp any any So, only SSH packets and ICMP packets will be permitted. 85. Which troubleshooting approach is more appropriate for a seasoned network administrator rather than a less-experienced network administrator?  a less-structured approach based on an educated guess  an approach comparing working and nonworking components to spot significant differences  a structured approach starting with the physical layer and moving up through the layers of the OSI model until the cause of the problem is identified  an approach that starts with the end-user applications and moves down through the layers of the OSI model until the cause of the problem has been identified 86. Refer to the exhibit. Many employees are wasting company time accessing social media on their work computers. The company wants to stop this access. What is the best ACL type and placement to use in this situation?  extended ACL outbound on R2 WAN interface towards the internet  standard ACL outbound on R2 WAN interface towards the internet  standard ACL outbound on R2 S0/0/0  extended ACLs inbound on R1 G0/0 and G0/1 87. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure PAT on R1, but PC-A is unable to access the Internet. The administrator tries to ping a server on the Internet from PC-A and collects the debugs that are shown in the exhibit. Based on this output, what is most likely the cause of the problem?  The inside and outside NAT interlaces have been configured backwards  The inside global address is not on the same subnet as the ISP  The address on Fa0/0 should be 64.100.0.1.  The NAT source access list matches the wrong address range. Explanation: The output of debug ip nat shows each packet that is translated by the router. The “s” is the source IP address of the packet and the “d” is the destination. The address after the arrow (“->”) shows the translated address. In this case, the translated address is on the 209.165.201.0 subnet but the ISP facing interface is in the 209.165.200.224/27 subnet. The ISP may drop the incoming packets, or might be unable to route the return packets back to the host because the address is in an unknown subnet. 88. Why is QoS an important issue in a converged network that combines voice, video, and data communications?  Data communications must be given the first priority.  Voice and video communications are more sensitive to latency.  Legacy equipment is unable to transmit voice and video without QoS.  Data communications are sensitive to jitter. 89. Which statement describes a VPN?  VPNs use logical connections to create public networks through the Internet.  VPNs use open source virtualization software to create the tunnel through the Internet.  VPNs use dedicated physical connections to transfer data between remote users.  VPNs use virtual connections to create a private network through a public network. 90. In which OSPF state is the DR/BDR election conducted?  ExStart  Init  Two-Way  Exchange 91. Two corporations have just completed a merger. The network engineer has been asked to connect the two corporate networks without the expense of leased lines. Which solution would be the most cost effective method of providing a proper and secure connection between the two corporate networks?  Cisco Secure Mobility Clientless SSL VPN  Frame Relay  remote access VPN using IPsec  Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility Client with SSL  site-to-site VPN 92. What is the final operational state that will form between an OSPF DR and a DROTHER once the routers reach convergence?  loading  established  full  two-way 93. Refer to the exhibit. If the switch reboots and all routers have to re-establish OSPF adjacencies, which routers will become the new DR and BDR?  Router R3 will become the DR and router R1 will become the BDR.  Router R4 will become the DR and router R3 will become the BDR.  Router R1 will become the DR and router R2 will become the BDR.  Router R3 will become the DR and router R2 will become the BDR. Explanation: OSPF elections of a DR are based on the following in order of precedence:  highest pritority from 1 -255 (0 = never a DR)  highest router ID  highest IP address of a loopback or active interface in the absence of a manually configured router ID. Loopback IP addresses take higher precedence than other interfaces. In this case routers R3 and R1 have the highest router priority. Between the two, R3 has the higher router ID. Therefore, R3 will become the DR and R1 will become the BDR. 94. Which type of server would be used to keep a historical record of messages from monitored network devices?  DNS  print  DHCP  syslog  authentication 95. When QoS is implemented in a converged network, which two factors can be controlled to improve network performance for real-time trafÏc? (Choose two.)  packet addressing  delay  jitter  packet routing  link speed 96. In which step of gathering symptoms does the network engineer determine if the problem is at the core, distribution, or access layer of the network?  Determine ownership.  Determine the symptoms.  Narrow the scope.  Document the symptoms.  Gather information. 97. What protocol sends periodic advertisements between connected Cisco devices in order to learn device name, IOS version, and the number and type of interfaces?  CDP  SNMP  NTP  LLDP 98. An administrator is configuring single-area OSPF on a router. One of the networks that must be advertised is 192.168.0.0 255.255.252.0. What wildcard mask would the administrator use in the OSPF network statement?  0.0.0.127  0.0.0.31  0.0.3.255  0.0.0.63 99. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator configures the following ACL in order to prevent devices on the 192.168.1.0 subnet from accessing the server at 10.1.1.5: access-list 100 deny ip 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 host 10.1.1.5 access-list 100 permit ip any any Where should the administrator place this ACL for the most efÏcient use of network resources?  inbound on router A Fa0/0  outbound on router B Fa0/0  outbound on router A Fa0/1  inbound on router B Fa0/1 100. Which type of OSPFv2 packet is used to forward OSPF link change information?  link-state acknowledgment  link-state update  hello  database description 101. What protocol synchronizes with a private master clock or with a publicly available server on the internet?  MPLS  CBWFQ  TFTP  NTP 102. Which type of VPN allows multicast and broadcast trafÏc over a secure site-to-site VPN?  dynamic multipoint VPN  SSL VPN  IPsec virtual tunnel interface  GRE over IPsec 103. An OSPF router has three directly connected networks; 10.0.0.0/16, 10.1.0.0/16, and 10.2.0.0/16. Which OSPF network command would advertise only the 10.1.0.0 network to neighbors?  router(config-router)# network 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0  router(config-router)# network 10.1.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0  router(config-router)# network 10.1.0.0 255.255.255.0 area 0  router(config-router)# network 10.1.0.0 0.0.0.0 area 0 104. Refer to the exhibit. Which sequence of commands should be used to configure router A for OSPF? i386046n1v2.gif router ospf 1 network 192.168.10.0 area 0 router ospf 1 network 192.168.10.0 router ospf 1 network 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192 network 192.168.10.192 255.255.255.252 router ospf 1 network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0 network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.3 area 0 105. An administrator is configuring single-area OSPF on a router. One of the networks that must be advertised is 192.168.0.0 255.255.254.0. What wildcard mask would the administrator use in the OSPF network statement?  0.0.7.255  0.0.1.255  0.0.3.255  0.0.15.255 106. How does virtualization help with disaster recovery within a data center?  improvement of business practices  supply of consistent air flow  support of live migration  guarantee of power Explanation: Live migration allows moving of one virtual server to another virtual server that could be in a different location that is some distance from the original data center.