Introduction to Computer Networks Answer Key Part 6

29. ____ is capable of sending traffic that may experience bursts of data, but there are no promises as to when the data may be sent. a. Variable bit rate (VBR) c. Unspecified bit rate (UBR) b. Available bit rate (ABR) d. Constant bit rate (CBR) ANS: C 30. ____ means that users utilize a single desktop application to send and receive e-mail, voice mail, and fax. a. Interactive voice response c. Fax processing b. Unified messaging d. Third-party call control ANS: B 31. ____ means that a user calling into a company telephone system provides some form of data by speaking into the telephone, and a database query is performed using this spoken information. a. Third-party call control b. Unified messaging c. Fax-back d. Integrated voice recognition and response ANS: D 32. In ____, a fax image that is stored on a LAN serverÕs hard disk can be downloaded over a local area network, converted by a fax card, and sent out to a customer over a trunk. a. third-party call control c. fax processing b. unified messaging d. integrated voice recognition and response ANS: C 33. ____ means that users have the ability to control a callÑfor example, set up a conference callÑwithout being a part of it. a. Third-party call control b. Unified messaging c. Fax-back d. Integrated voice recognition and response ANS: A 34. ____ means that different icons on a computer screen represent common PBX functions such as call hold, call transfer, and call conferencing, making the system easier for operators to use. a. Third-party call control c. Fax-back b. PBX graphic user interface d. Call filtering ANS: B a. 35. ____ means that users can specify telephone numbers that are allowed to get through. PBX graphic user interface c. Fax-back b. Customized menuing system d. Call filtering ANS: D a. b. 36. MPLS and VPNs continue to replace which long-distance data services? Google and Yahoo c. frame relay and ATM Telnet and FTP d. frame relay and FTP ANS: C 37. _______________ is the term for the convergence of real-time and non-real-time communications services such as telephony, instant messaging, video conferencing, speech recognition, voice mail, and email into a single interface. a. Big Bundle c. Unified communications b. AT&T d. Frame relay ANS: C Chapter 12: Network Security MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. One very common technique to attack a system is to deliver an e-mail or Web page that contains a malicious piece of code called a ____. a. NOS c. proxy b. firewall d. mobile malicious code ANS: D a. b. 2. Many people consider the Trojan horse to be a form of computer ____. virus c. router firewall d. switch ANS: A 3. file. a. b. A ____ virus is a common type of virus that is programmed into an attached macro boot sector macro c. d. polymorphic file infector ANS: B 4. A ____ virus is usually stored on some form of removable media. When the removable media (such as a flash drive) is connected to a new machine and is used to boot the machine, the virus moves from the media into the host system. a. polymorphic c. boot sector b. macro d. file infector ANS: C a. b. 5. A ____ virus mutates with every infection, thus making them difficult to locate. polymorphic c. boot sector macro d. file infector ANS: A 6. file. a. b. A ____ virus is a virus that infects a piece of executable code such as an .exe or .com polymorphic macro c. d. boot sector file infector ANS: D 7. Some common types of denial of service include e-mail bombing, ____, and ping storm. a. firewalling c. smurfing b. filtering d. routing ANS: C 8. If e-mail messages have a return address of someone other than the person actually sending the e-mail, then the sender is ____. a. e-mail bombing c. smurfing b. spoofing d. firewalling ANS: B 9. ____ is the name of a particularly nasty automated program that attacks a network by exploiting Internet Protocol (IP) broadcast addressing and other aspects of Internet operation. a. E-mail bombing c. Smurfing b. Spoofing d. Firewalling ANS: C 10. A ____ is a common Internet tool used to verify if a particular IP address of a host exists and to see if the particular host is currently available. a. ping c. router b. firewall d. DNS ANS: A 11. In ____, a Web user seeking to visit a particular companyÕs Web site is unknowingly redirected to a bogus Web site that looks exactly like that companyÕs official Web site. a. smurfing c. worming b. pharming d. e-mail bombing ANS: B a. b. 12. ____ may be considered a form of physical protection. Router c. Trojan horses Worms d. Surveillance ANS: D 13. ____ involves electronically monitoring data flow and system requests into and out of their systems. a. Worms c. Firewalls b. Intrusion detection d. Routers ANS: B 14. Perhaps the most common form of protection from unauthorized use of a computer system is the ____. a. password c. PKI b. certificate d. digital signature ANS: A 15. ____ usually involves having a software program that monitors every transaction within a system. a. Firewalling c. Access rights b. Routing d. Computer auditing ANS: D 16. ____ cable represented a major improvement in the ability of transmission media to secure sensitive data. a. Coaxial c. Fiber-optic b. Twisted d. Copper ANS: C a. b. 17. ____ is data before any encryption has been performed. Plaintext c. Encriptext Ciphertext d. Cryptotext ANS: A a. b. 18. A(n) ____ is the computer program that converts plaintext into an enciphered form. worm c. firewall Trojan horse d. encryption algorithm ANS: D 19. A(n) ____ is the unique piece of information that is used to create ciphertext and then decrypt the ciphertext back into plaintext. a. encryption algorithm c. key b. firewall d. IP address ANS: C 20. A ____ substitution-based cipher replaces a character or group of characters with a different character or group of characters. a. transposition c. monotransposition b. monoalphabetic d. polytransposition ANS: B a. b. 21. Possibly the earliest example of a polyalphabetic cipher is the ____ cipher. Caesars c. Enigma Roman d. VigenŽre ANS: D 22. A ____ cipher is different from a substitution-based cipher in that the order of the plaintext is not preserved. a. transposition-based c. polyalphabetic b. monoalphabetic d. multialphabetic ANS: A a. b. 23. The concept of two keys, public and private, is called ____ cryptography. private key c. secret key public key d. symmetric ANS: B 24. The opposite of asymmetric encryption is ____ encryption, in which one key is used to encrypt and decrypt. a. available key c. symmetric b. asymmetric key d. public key ANS: C 25. SSLÕs successor is ____, which is based upon SSL version 3 and contains a few technical improvements over SSL. a. Transport Layer Security (TLS) c. Date Encryption Standard (DES) b. IPsec d. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) ANS: A a. b. 26. ____ is a set of protocols created to support the secure transfer of data at the IP layer. Transport Layer Security (TLS) c. Date Encryption Standard (DES) IPsec (IP security) d. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) ANS: B 27. The ____ is a commonly employed encryption method used by businesses to send and receive secure transactions. a. firewall c. Data Encryption Standard (DES) b. Trojan horse d. TCP ANS: C 28. A ____ is a security procedure that uses public key cryptography to assign to a document a code for which you alone have the key. a. certificate c. PKI b. certificate authority d. digital signature ANS: D 29. ____ is high-quality encryption software that has become quite popular for creating secure e-mail messages and encrypting other types of data files for average users. a. DES c. 3DES b. PGP d. AES ANS: B 30. ____ is an authentication protocol designed to work on client/server networks that use secret or symmetric cryptography. a. Kerberos c. 3DES b. DES d. AES ANS: A 31. ____ is the combination of encryption techniques, software, and services that involves all the necessary pieces to support digital certificates, certificate authorities, and public key generation, storage, and management. a. 3DES c. Data Encryption Standard (DES) b. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) d. Public key infrastructure (PKI) ANS: D a. b. 32. Many certificates conform to the ____ standard. X.309 c. X.509 X.409 d. X.609 ANS: C 33. A ____ is a list of certificates that have been revoked before their originally scheduled expiration date. a. PKI c. digital certificate b. public key cryptography d. certificate revocation list (CRL) ANS: D 34. ____ technology essentially takes the data to be transmitted and rather than transmitting it in a fixed bandwidth spreads it over a wider bandwidth. a. Spread spectrum c. AES b. 3DES d. PKI ANS: A 35. ____ spread spectrum spreads the transmission of a signal over a wide range of frequencies using mathematical values. a. Frequency hopping c. Time hopping b. Direct sequence d. Amplitude sequence ANS: B a. b. 36. ____ scanning works by recognizing the unique pattern of a virus. Time-based c. Signature-based Amplitude-based d. Frequency-based ANS: C 37. An antivirus technique that is used in conjunction with signature-based scanning and terminate-and-stay-resident monitoring is ____. a. integrity checking c. direct sequence b. time division d. frequency hopping ANS: A 38. The ____ firewall is essentially a router that has been programmed to filter out certain IP addresses or TCP port numbers. a. proxy server c. packet filter b. switch d. hub ANS: C a. b. 39. The first security protocol for wireless LANs was ____. Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) c. IPsec Wired Equivalency Protocol (WEP) d. IEEE 802.11i ANS: B 40. IEEE ____ addresses both weaknesses of WEP by allowing the keys, encryption algorithms, and negotiation to be dynamically assigned, and by adopting the AES encryption based on the Rijndael algorithm with 128-, 192-, or 256-bit keys. a. 802.11a c. 802.11g b. 802.11b d. 802.11i ANS: D Chapter 13: Network Design and Management MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. One of the most popular and successful plans currently used by businesses today is the ____. a. network cycle c. systems development life cycle (SDLC) b. software-network cycle d. distributed cycle ANS: C 2. In general, a ____ approach is a series of steps and tasks that professionals, such as systems developers, can follow to build high-quality systems faster, with fewer risks, and at lower costs. a. structured c. linear b. random d. quadratic ANS: A 3. The intent of SDLC is for ____ not to be disjointed steps in a big plan, but overlapping layers of activity. a. cycles c. rounds b. phases d. levels ANS: B a. b. 4. One technique used to model a corporationÕs network environment is to create ____. link shadows c. dots model node approaches d. connectivity maps ANS: D 5. Three different modeling techniques can be used: ____ area connectivity maps, metropolitan area connectivity maps, and local area connectivity maps. a. personal c. world b. wide d. universal ANS: B 6. In a wide area connectivity map, mobile or wireless sites are indicated by circles containing the letter ____. a. A c. M b. E d. X ANS: C 7. In a wide area connectivity map, external sites, such as suppliers or external agents, are denoted by circles containing the letter ____. a. E c. M b. F d. X ANS: A a. b. 8. A new parameter that might have an impact on metropolitan area design is the ____. link shadow c. link length node distance d. failover time ANS: D 9. To examine the nodes in a wide area connectivity map in more detail, an analyst can expand each individual site into a ____ area connectivity map. a. personal c. world b. local d. universal ANS: B 10. A ____ map can show how individual workstations or groups of workstations are clustered with switches, routers, hubs, and server farms. a. local area detailed connectivity c. metropolitan area connectivity b. local area overview connectivity d. wide area connectivity ANS: A 11. A systemÕs ____ feasibility is the extent to which the system can be created, given the companyÕs current finances. a. technical c. financial b. operational d. time ANS: C 12. When a company is evaluating a projectÕs ____ feasibility, the company must ask: Will the proposed system produce the expected results? a. financial c. time b. technical d. operational ANS: D 13. When a company is evaluating a projectÕs ____ feasibility, the company must ask: Can the proposed system be designed, built, tested, and installed in an amount of time that all parties find reasonable and to which they can agree? a. financial c. time b. technical d. operational ANS: C 14. ____ analysis is a common financial analysis technique that involves determining a proposed systemÕs costs and benefits. a. Payback c. Operational b. Time d. Technical ANS: A 15. With respect to ____ benefits, the most common measurement is the monthly or annual savings that will result from the use of the proposed system. a. intangible c. imaginary b. tangible d. projected ANS: B 16. ____ benefits are ones for which assigning a dollar amount is difficult; they include customer goodwill and employee morale. a. Tangible c. Real b. Concrete d. Intangible ANS: D 17. When performing a payback analysis calculation, you should show all dollar amounts using the ____. a. time value of money c. computer simulation b. money value of time d. benchmarking ANS: A 18. ____ means that if something is going to cost one dollar one year from now, you need to put away less than a dollar today to pay for it. a. Operational feasibility c. Technical feasibility b. The money value of time d. The time value of money ANS: D a. b. 19. In a payback analysis, the ____ Cost is a one-time cost that occurs in Year 0. Operation and Maintenance c. Time-Adjusted Development d. Cumulative Time-Adjusted ANS: B 20. In a payback analysis, the ____ Costs are simply the running sums of the TimeAdjusted Costs over all the years. a. Operation and Maintenance c. Cumulative Time-Adjusted b. Development d. Time-Adjusted ANS: C 21. In a payback analysis, the ____ values are the running sums of the Time-Adjusted Benefits over all the years. a. Time-Adjusted Benefits c. Cumulative Time-Adjusted Costs b. Cumulative Time-Adjusted Benefits d. Time-Adjusted Costs ANS: B 22. In a payback analysis, the ____ Costs are the Cumulative Time-Adjusted Costs plus the Cumulative Time-Adjusted Benefits for each year. a. Time-Adjusted Benefits c. Cumulative Lifetime Time-Adjusted b. Operation and Maintenance d. Time-Adjusted Costs ANS: C 23. Payback analysis helps you determine the approximate time for a projectÕs payback, or ____, to occur. a. cumulative lifetime c. discount factor b. benefits derived d. return on investment (ROI) ANS: D 24. When a company calculates the ____ for a proposed project, it compares the revenue generated from the project with the expenses incurred. a. ROI (return on investment) c. operational feasibility b. technical feasibility d. time feasibility ANS: A 25. A number of techniques exist for performing ____ planning, including linear projection, computer simulation, benchmarking, and analytical modeling. a. financial c. capacity b. time d. money ANS: C 26. The advantage of using a ____ is that it can mimic conditions that would be extremely difficult, if not impossible, to create on a real network. a. computer simulation c. time projection b. linear projection d. benchmark ANS: A 27. ____ involves generating system statistics under a controlled environment and then comparing those statistics against known measurements. a. Linear projection c. Computer simulation b. Benchmarking d. Analytical modeling ANS: B 28. ____ involves the creation of mathematical equations to calculate various network values. a. Linear projection c. Computer simulation b. Benchmarking d. Analytical modeling ANS: D 29. One of the best techniques for determining current network capacities is creating a ____. a. baseline c. return of investment (ROI) b. payback analysis d. topline ANS: A 30. Network personnel create a ____ to determine the normal and current operating conditions of the network. a. linear projection c. timeline b. computer projection d. baseline ANS: D 31. To collect baseline information on ____, you create a list of the number and types of system nodes in the network. a. operational protocol c. system nodes b. system users d. network application ANS: C 32. Collecting baseline information on ____ involves listing the types of operational protocols used throughout the system. a. system users c. network application b. operational protocols d. system nodes ANS: B a. b. 33. 55 60 Typically, a network reaches saturation when its network utilization is at ____ percent. c. 80 d. 100 ANS: D 34. To learn new skills and demonstrate proficiency within a particular area, the network administrator can obtain ____. a. certification c. ROI b. policies d. capacity planning ANS: A 35. Four statistics, or measures, that are useful in evaluating networks are mean time between failures, mean time to repair, ____, and reliability. a. payback c. availability b. integrity d. ROI ANS: C a. b. 36. The ____ includes the time needed to bring the system back up to normal operation. mean time between failures c. availability mean time to repair d. reliability ANS: B a. b. 37. A protocol analyzer is also known as ____. cable tester c. simulator catcher d. sniffer ANS: D 38. ____ is an industry standard created by the Internet Engineering Task Force and designed originally to manage Internet components. a. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) b. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) c. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) d. Transport Control Protocol (TCP) ANS: C 39. The ____ software controls the operations of a managed element and maintains a database of information about all managed elements. a. SNMP agent c. SMTP manager b. SNMP manager d. SMTP agent ANS: B 40. ____ is a protocol that allows a network administrator to monitor, analyze, and troubleshoot a group of remotely managed elements. a. Remote Network Monitoring (RMON) b. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) c. Remote Login (rlogin) d. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) ANS: A