Hippology Practice Test Part 5

Eastern National Hippology Contest – 2009 Written Test Exam I Carefully read each of the following questions, and enter the correct answer on your scantron sheet. Do not mark on this page. Make sure you are using the space for Exam I for this set of questions. Please completely fill in the space of your preferred answer with a pencil. The management committee will not hand score questions that the scantron cannot read. Good luck on the exam!! 1. The earliest members of the Equidae family had how many toes on each foot? a. 4 b. 2 c. 3 d. 1 2. At racing speed, a Standardbred can trot at over: a. 20 mph b. 10 mph c. 15 mph d. 30 mph 3. What is the first step in treating an abscess? a. soak the area in epsom salt b. give bute c. open the affected area and allow it to drain. d. antibiotics 4. The horse's field of binocular vision is: a. approximately 95 degrees. b. approximately 20 degrees. c. approximately 80 degrees. d. approximately 65 degrees. 5. Grulla horses are a sub-group of: a. palominos b. dun-colored horses c. buckskins d. black horses 6. What glands lubricate the eye? a. superior and posterior lacrimal glands b. anterior and posterior lacrimal glands c. superior and inferior lacrimal glands d. inferior and anterior lacrimal glands 7. This is defined as a pattern of movement. a. trot b. walk c. gait d. canter 8. The scientific classification of the domestic ass is ___________________. a. Equus Domesticus b. Equus Callabus c. Equus Donkeas d. Equus Asinus 9. Which one of these gaits is not a "single-foot" gait? a. rack b. slow gait c. walk d. fox trot 10. Regarding coat color, black pigmented collors include all of these, EXCEPT: a. red dun b. black c. brown d. grulla 11. Hotblooded horses are defined as: a. horses that are 16.0 hands and under. b. horses that do not grow winter coats. c. horses of Arabian descent. d. horses that tend to spook easily. 12. Two bits are used in a full or Weymouth bridle. What is the small snaffle bit in this bridle called? a. bridoon b. snaffle c. gag d. skinny 13. A horse's olfactory sense is: a. its sense of smell b. its sense of touch c. its sense of sight d. its sense of taste 14. Which of the following equid had high crowned teeth? a. Mesohippus b. Prehorse c. Eohippus d. Pliohippus 15. What is the approximate size of the horse's field of vision for each eye? a. 360 degrees b. 250 degrees c. 180 degrees d. 245 degrees 16. Pigment cells are also called: a. eumelanin b. melanocytes c. melanin d. pheomelanin 17. The horse is all of the following except? a. Omnivore b. Herbivore c. Non-Ruminant d. Prey 18. What bit material increases salivation to make the mouth more responsive when used on a mouthpiece? a. german silver b. steel c. copper d. iron 19. How many chambers is the heart composed of? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6 20. This is the faster gait of harness horses: a. rack b. trot c. gallop d. pace 21. The process of passing genetic material to the next generation is called: a. reproducing b. heritage c. mating d. inheritance 22. This group has been a leader in equine genome research: a. The National Society of Animal Genetics b. The International Society of Animal Genetics c. The National Society of Equine Genetics d. The International Society of Equine Genetics 23. The haploid number of chromosomes in horses is: a. 31 b. 22 c. 32 d. 33 24. Total range of vision for the horse is: a. 270 degrees b. 300 degrees c. 325 degrees d. 350 degrees 25. In the horse's small intestine soluble carbohydrates are digested into what simple structure to be absorbed and used as energy? a. glucose b. volatile fatty acids c. amino acids d. ketones 26. What bit is being described? This bit uses four reins. It is a one piece bit that functions like both a snaffle and a curb combined into one mouthpiece. One set of reins is attached to the rings and work like a snaffle and one set attaches to the shanks and adds leverage. a. pelham b. weymouth c. gag d. liverpool 27. A mule is defined as: a. a minature burro. b. a male burro. c. the offspring of a jack and a mare. d. the offspring of a stallion and a jenny. 28. The first equid to walk permanently on one toe was the _________________. a. Pliohippus b. Eohippus c. Mesohippus d. Merychippus 29. At this gait, there are generally 3 feet on the ground at a time: a. walk b. trot c. canter d. gallop 30. Tostado' is the term used in South America to describe a horse that is: a. red-colored with red points. b. red-colored with darker colored points. c. red-colored with lighter-colored points. d. a grulla. 31. This disease is characterized by episodes of muscle tremors and weakness. Affected horses are hindered by high levels of potassium in the diet: a. Lethal White Foal Syndrome b. Hemophilia c. Severe Combined Immunodeficiency d. Hyperkalemic Periodic Paralysis 32. Appaloosas are commonly referred to as what type of breed? a. stock horse b. performance horse c. sporthorse d. halter horse 33. A horse that is predisposed to landing on the outside of its hoof walls stands on what type of base? a. bow legged b. base wide c. base narrow d. cow hocked 34. Which nomadic tribesman were the first breeders of the Arabian? a. Kazakh Nomads b. Bedouins c. Adivasi d. Beja 35. What is not a type of Buckskin or Dun colored horse? a. brindle dun b. grulla c. red dun d. gold dun 36. What is the maxumim height allowed for horses to be registered at the American Miniature Horse Association? a. 32 inches b. 36 inches c. 40 inches d. 34 inches 37. American Paint Horses cannot be registered if they have lineage from what registry? a. AMHA b. APHA c. Jockey Club d. AQHA 38. What is not a type of insurance coverage for horses? a. Major Medical b. Loss of Use c. Workers Comp d. Mortality 39. What is not a type of Breeding Contract? a. Stallion Service Contract b. Mare Sharing c. Foal Sharing Agreement d. Mare Lease 40. What is not a critical factor in determining a facilities plan? a. Economic Feasability b. Drainage c. Ability to grow hay d. Area 41. Which type of use is Board Fencing not ideal for? a. Stallion Fencing b. Mares and Foals c. Show and Sale Horse Paddocks d. Arenas 42. Composting manure does not: a. kill nutrients b. kill fly eggs c. kill weed seeds d. kill larvae 43. What is the term for the accumulation of excessive synovial fluid in the joint capsule of the fetlock? a. fetlockitis b. bog spavin c. wind-puffs d. sesamoiditis 44. Night eyes are a common name for what structure on the horse? a. ergots b. chestnuts c. splints d. corns 45. Epiphora is the result of a blocked nasolacrimal duct and results in the overflow of what fluid? a. blood b. saliva c. sweat d. tears 46. What hoof disease is caused by hoof digesting fungi? a. sole disease b. thrush c. white line disease d. laminitis 47. As a horse ages the shape of the incisors changes from oval to what shape? a. triangular b. round c. square d. rectangular 48. Racing Quarter Horses can reach up to ____ when running: a. 18 mph b. 50 mph c. 35 mph d. 40 mph 49. What two organs deliver enzymes and products into the duodenum to assist in the digestive process? a. gall bladder and bile duct b. pancreas and liver c. pancreas and gall bladder d. liver and bile duct 50. In what two breeds is Wobbler Syndrome most prevalent? a. Thoroughbred and Standardbred b. Quarter Horse and Arabian c. Quarter Horse and Thoroughbred d. Standardbred and Saddlebred 51. What structure connects the kidney to the bladder? a. urethra b. ureter c. liver d. bladder vein 52. The endometrium is the mucosal lining of what organ? a. epididymis b. vagina c. testicle d. uterus 53. In inches, how tall is a 15 hand horse? a. 48 inches b. 60 inches c. 56 inches d. 63 inches 54. In describing a horse what would a “hat rack” be? a. an emaciated horse-very thin b. a low quality horse c. a fat horse d. a slow horse 55. In equine competition, what is a kur? a. a musical freestyle ride in dressage b. a stallion testing event c. a low quality horse d. a gymkhana class 56. An inflammation of the tarsal synovial membrane on the inside front portion of the joint causing a noticeable swelling is referred to as what? a. bog spavin b. bone spavin c. thoroughpin d. road gall 57. Name the movement of the horse where the horse trots in a very cadenced, floating manner, while moving forward with a marked period of suspension? a. Extended trot b. Piaffe c. Passage d. Park trot 58. In training, giving a reward when the horse performs the desired act or behavior is termed what? a. treating b. negative reinforcment c. bribery d. positive reinforcement 59. If you measure the distance from where one hoof leaves the ground to where the same foot again hits the ground what have you just measured? a. step lengh b. stride length c. gait length d. swing phase 60. In general terms what does the horse's adrenal gland produce? a. white blood cells b. saliva c. blood d. hormones 61. Endocarditis is an inflammation or infection of the lining of what organ? a. liver b. kidneys c. lung d. heart 62. Epinephrine is a very important hormone for the horse in stress situations and is produced by which organ? a. pineal gland b. kidneys c. pituitary gland d. adrenal gland 63. A blood mark on a horse is: a. small dark colored spots on the white areas of paint horses. b. a ring shaped pattern in the horse's coat. c. a dark colored 'splotch' on the basic coat color. d. a dark base coat with lighter colored hair on the flanks, girth, and muzzle. 64. In horse racing, what distance in miles is 6 furlongs? a. 3/4 mile b. 1/2 mile c. 1 mile d. 1 1/4 miles 65. Hyperkalemic Periodic Paralysis is found in certain descendents of what stallion? a. Secretariat b. Impressive c. Smarty Jones d. Man O’War 66. An accumulation of fluid in the alveoli from an infectious pulmonary problem would be termed what? a. pleurisy b. pulmonary edema c. bronchitis d. pneumonia 67. A Trakehner is an example of what type of horse? a. Warmblood b. Gaited c. Stock d. Draft 68. What term refers to the luster and shine of the hair coat? a. bloom b. dapple c. sheen d. satin 69. Protein metabolism results in nitrogenous waste products that are cleared from the body by what organ? a. large colon b. liver c. kidneys d. rectum 70. The length of the stride of the thoroughbred Secretariat was measured to be: a. 29 ft b. 21 ft c. 23 ft d. 35 ft 71. Name the hard enlargement on the plantar ligament that develops in response to stress. a. bursitis b. capped hock c. curb d. plantar fascitis 72. In reference to conformation, describe a horse that "walks downhill. a. they are heavy on the forehand b. the height at the withers is higher than the hip c. the front legs are shorter d. the height at the hip is higher than the height of the withers 73. In the racing industry, what is the term for a race horse's best time? a. black type b. personal best c. record d. mark 74. This disease is also called Megacolon: a. Hemophilia b. Lethal White Foal Syndrome c. Severe Combined Immunodeficiency d. Hyperkalemic Periodic Paralysis 75. The position of a gene on a chromosome: a. polygenic b. allele c. genotype d. locus 76. A supple horse uses what part of its body to aid in balance and stability? a. barrel b. tail c. head and neck d. legs 77. In general, what is the most common lameness problem in Standardbred race horses? a. inflammation of the stifles b. inflammation of the hocks c. inflammation of the fetlocks d. navicular disease 78. If a pair of alleles are not identical, what should that individual be considered with respect to those genes? a. polyzygous b. homozygous c. monozygous d. heterozygous 79. In order to breed the mare at an optimal time many large breeding programs use a stallion that is not intended to be used as the stud for the mare to see if a mare is receptive to breeding. What is the term for this stallion? a. gomer b. teaser c. gelding d. ridgeling 80. In what age group of horses is epiphysitis associated? a. hard working horses b. pregnant mares c. growing horses d. geriatric horses 81. What is the most common blemish of the hind limbs? a. Capped hock b. Splint c. Bowed tendon d. Curb 82. In what area of the World did the Barb originate? a. Italy b. Arabian peninsula c. Spain d. Northern Africa 83. What is not an identifiable Appaloosa characteristic? a. white sclera b. mottled skin c. vertically striped hooves d. white on face 84. Osselets is the term for an inflammation of the periosteum on the anterior surface of what joint? a. stifle b. knee c. fetlock d. hock 85. Prior to 1908, the American Jockey Club registered two other breeds of horse besides the Thoroughbred. What two breeds were they? a. Arabian and Anglo-Arab b. Standardbred and Saddlebred c. Quarter Horse and Arabian d. Arabian and Standardbred 86. What is termed the “most useful gait” of the horse? a. gallop b. trot c. canter d. walk 87. What is the western version of the standing martingale? a. collar b. running martingale c. breastplate d. tie down 88. What term describes a horse with a stride that is short, quick, high and often choppy? a. Springy b. Trappy c. Suspension d. Elegant 89. Protein is composed of a chain of small units called what? a. aminoacids b. nitrogen c. vitamins d. minerals 90. Osteoblasts form a protein matrix that ultimately forms what tissue? a. cartilage b. bone c. smooth muscle d. striated muscle 91. Which grain is the highest source of energy? a. Wheat b. Oats c. Barley d. Corn 92. Corn infected with aflatoxins can cause damage to what organ of the horse's body? a. stomach b. kidneys c. liver d. intestines 93. Name the hardest-working joint in the horse’s body. a. stifle joint b. hock joint c. shoulder joint d. sacro-iliac joint 94. The King Ranch of Texas developed a linebreeding program around one Quarter Horse stallion that they felt fit their ideal of the working cow horse. Who was this horse? a. Black Hand b. Wimpy P-1 c. Old Sorrel d. Allen F-1 95. At what time of the year is Yellow Star Thistle a problem for horses? a. late summer and into the fall b. early spring c. mid summer d. late fall 96. In what country were horse with the colorful characteristics of the Appaloosa first seen? a. China b. Japan c. India d. Turkestan 97. How many teats does a mare have? a. 4 b. 2 c. 1 d. 3 98. On what continent did the first "true horse" originate? a. Asia b. North America c. South America d. Africa 99. What is the general term that describes the color of a bay and white pinto? a. piebald b. tobiano c. overo d. skewbald 100. In reference to color inheritance, there are six modifications of the black coat color, all of which have black points except one, which is: a. perlino b. cremello c. chestnut d. brown