EMR Test 1: Chapters 1-7 Practice Questions

EMR Test #1 (Chapters 1-7) Practice Questions Which of the following MOST accurately describes an emergency medical responder (EMR)? A. An individual who provides initial advanced life support B. An individual who responds to the scene in an ambulance C. The first medically trained person to arrive at the scene D. A fire fighter or police officer who assists the paramedics C. The first medically trained person to arrive at the scene Fire fighters and law enforcement personnel are likely to be the first EMRs to arrive at a scene because: A. they are trained in all aspects of an emergency call. B. they are typically paid and are on call 24 hours a day. C. most communities do not have EMTs or paramedics. D. of their location or speed in responding to the call. D. of their location or speed in responding to the call. A cardiac arrest patient's most crucial contact with the EMS system occurs when: A. trained EMRs arrive at the patient's side. B. medical control is made aware of the situation. C. paramedics arrive and administer advanced care. D. the receiving hospital is made aware of the situation. A. trained EMRs arrive at the patient's side. When EMTs or paramedics arrive at the scene of an emergency, the EMR should: A. accompany the patient to the receiving medical facility. C. assist the EMTs in continuing the care that he or she initiated. B. assume that his or her assistance will no longer be required. C. assist the EMTs in continuing the care that he or she initiated. D. obtain a signature from the EMT who is assuming patient care. Which of the following interventions would the EMR most likely perform at the scene of a cardiac arrest? A. CPR and defibrillation B. Administration of certain medications C. Insertion of an endotracheal tube D. Initiation of an intravenous line A. CPR and defibrillation Fire units are often a crucial part of the EMS system because they: A. always arrive at the scene before EMTs or paramedics. B. are better trained than EMTs to assist paramedics. C. provide specialized rescue such as patient extrication. D. provide protection and control of the scene. C. provide specialized rescue such as patient extrication. Which of the following statements regarding transport of a patient to the hospital is correct? A. Patients may require immediate stabilization at the closest hospital and then transfer to another facility. B. Any sick or injured patient should be transported to the closest hospital, regardless of the patient's condition. C. EMRs are legally obligated to accompany the patient in the back of the ambulance to the hospital. D. In most states and EMS systems, EMRs are not authorized to assist the EMT in the back of the ambulance. A. Patients may require immediate stabilization at the closest hospital and then transfer to another facility. A patient requires rapid transport to the hospital when: A. the patient's condition may deteriorate if he or she is not transported fairly quickly. B. EMS personnel are unable to give the patient adequate life-savB. EMS personnel are unable to give the patient adequate life-sav- ing care in the field. ing care in the field. C. traffic is extremely heavy and the patient's condition requires treatment by a physician. 1 / 14 D. he or she requires care that can be provided only by a physician at the hospital. A 33-year-old woman has a possible broken left ankle. She is in significant pain but is conscious and otherwise stable. This patient: A. should be rapidly transported to the closest hospital. B. may deteriorate and requires prompt transport. C. does not require transport to the hospital. D. requires transport but without lights and siren. D. requires transport but without lights and siren. You are at the scene of a shooting. The patient, who is being cared for by paramedics, is unresponsive and has severe bleeding from his injury. In this case, the EMR's most important function is to: C. help the paramedics prepare for rapid transport. A. factually document the care provided to the patient. B. help keep bystanders away from the patient. C. help the paramedics prepare for rapid transport. D. report observations to law enforcement personnel. To provide the best possible care for the patient: A. all EMS personnel must function effectively as a team. B. the medical director must be notified during every emergency. C. a paramedic must be present at each and every emergency. D. the patient must receive rapid transport to the closest hospital. A. all EMS personnel must function effectively as a team. Skills commonly performed by the EMR include all of the following, except: A. intravenous therapy. B. splinting fractures. C. hemorrhage control. D. treating shock. A. intravenous therapy. The EMR must possess the ability to: A. sustain a patient's life for several hours. B. avoid improvisation whenever possible. C. function at the same level as an EMT. D. treat patients using limited equipment. D. treat patients using limited equipment. Which of the following pieces of equipment should be included in the EMR's life support kit? A. Manual defibrillator B. Endotracheal tubes C. Mechanical suction device D. Mouth-to-mask ventilation device D. Mouth-to-mask ventilation device Components of the quality improvement process, as identified by the Institute of Medicine, include all of the following, except: A. safety. B. timeliness. C. efficiency. D. teamwork. D. teamwork. Which of the following statements regarding stress is correct? A. Past experiences may make it difficult to deal with stress. B. Mass-casualty incidents typically produce low stress levels. C. Most emergency calls produce only a minor level of stress. D. Very young patients tend to cause the least amount of stress. Ways in which the EMR can prevent and reduce unnecessary stress include all of the following, except: A. Past experiences may make it difficult to deal with stress. A. frequent exposure to stress-causing situations to train the mind. A. frequent exposure to stress-causing situations to train the mind. 2 / 14 B. being aware of the resources and services that are available. C. adjustments in lifestyle to include stress-reducing activities. D. learning to recognize the signs and symptoms of stress. Which of the following would most likely produce the greatest amount of stress for the EMR? A. Death B. Anger C. Exercise D. Depression A. Death All of the following are part of the normal grieving process, except: A. violence B. anger C. depression D. acceptance A. violence To see his grandson graduate from high school, a man with a terminal illness promises to keep all of his doctor's appointments and take all of his medications exactly as prescribed. This is an example of: A. bargaining A. bargaining B. acceptance C. denial D. anger Which of the following statements regarding the acceptance stage of the grieving process is correct? A. The patient understands that the situation cannot be changed. A. The patient understands that the situation cannot be changed. B. The patient is satisfied with the situation during this phase. C. Acceptance is typically the first stage of the grieving process. D. It is often characterized by sadness, despair, and denial. When you encounter a patient with a significant illness, it is important to remember that he or she: A. may be experiencing any stage of grief. B. is usually depressed and will not talk. C. ill always project anger toward you. D. has probably already accepted the situation. A. may be experiencing any stage of grief. An important step in managing your own stress is the ability to: A. recognize its signs and symptoms. B. ignore its signs and symptoms. C. eliminate all stressors in your life. D. project the stress toward others. A. recognize its signs and symptoms. If you are experiencing stress away from your job, you should: A. seek assistance from a mental health professional. B. spend some time away from family and friends. C. obtain a prescription for anti-anxiety medication. D. find another job not related to emergency medicine. A. seek assistance from a mental health professional. A critical incident stress debriefing (CISD) is used to: A. alleviate the stress reactions caused by high-stress incidents A. alleviate the stress reactions caused by high-stress incidents B. determine whether any errors in patient care occurred. C. investigate potential wrongdoings by the EMS responder. D. identify the exact stressors that resulted in the stress reaction. Which of the following infectious diseases would be the least likely to be spread by the airborne droplet route? 3 / 14 A. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) B. Influenza C. Tuberculosis (TB) D. Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) A. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) The most effective way to prevent exposure to infectious diseases is to: A. follow standard precautions on all calls. B. place a mask on all patients you treat. C. ensure that your immunizations are current. D. wash your hands thoroughly after each call. A. follow standard precautions on all calls. Which of the following is not part of the standard precautions recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)? A. Use leather gloves as a barrier against blood and fluids. A. Use leather gloves as a barrier against blood and fluids. B. Wear a face shield if blood splatter is anticipated. C. Place needles directly in a puncture-proof container. D. Wash your hands immediately after patient contact. In which of the following situations would the use of a gown or apron, face shield, and gloves clearly be indicated? A. Emergency childbirth B. Minor trauma C. Obtaining vital signs D. All emergency situations A. Emergency childbirth You are the first responder to arrive at an emergency scene. What should you do first? A. Survey the scene for potential safety hazards. B. Access the patient and initiate the appropriate care. C. Wait in your vehicle until law enforcement arrives. D. Determine exactly how many patients are involved. A. Survey the scene for potential safety hazards. In addition to ensuring your own safety, the most important guideline to follow when moving a patient is to: A. do no further harm to the patient. B. move the patient only when necessary. C. move the patient as little as possible. D. move the patient's body as a unit. A. do no further harm to the patient. When moving a patient, who typically gives the command to begin the move? A. The most senior responder at the scene B. The paramedic in charge of patient care C. The rescuer at the patient's head D. The strongest rescuer at the scene C. The rescuer at the patient's head If you suspect that a patient has suffered a head or spine injury, you should: A. carefully move the patient in a sitting position to avoid further injury. D. keep the patient's head and spine immobilized to avoid moveB. allow the patient to move slowly as you stabilize his or her head. ment C. move the patient quickly so that his or her spine can be immobilized. D. keep the patient's head and spine immobilized to avoid movement 4 / 14 Regardless of the technique you use for moving patients, you should: A. lift and lower the patient by bending your legs. B. maintain a slight curvature of your back. C. lift and lower the patient by bending your back. D. keep your arms away from your body. A. lift and lower the patient by bending your legs. You and your partner are the first to arrive at the scene of a man who fell approximately 202 (6 m) from a second-story balcony. The patient is found lying on his side. He is conscious and alert with adequate breathing. A paramedic unit is approximately 5 minutes away. You should: A. keep the patient's head and neck stabilized, tell the patient not A. keep the patient's head and neck stabilized, tell the patient not to move, and wait for the paramedic unit to arrive at the scene. to move, and wait for the paramedic unit to arrive at the scene. B. carefully place the patient on his back and stabilize his head and neck until the paramedic unit arrives at the scene. C. apply a cervical collar and carefully secure the patient to a short backboard or vest-style immobilization device. D. carefully immobilize the patient to a long backboard and monitor his condition until the paramedic unit arrives. The recovery position is used for patients who are: A. unconscious and not injured. B. semiconscious with a neck injury. C. severely obese and not breathing. D. experiencing respiratory distress. A. unconscious and not injured. With regard to lifting and moving, good body mechanics includes: A. using your legs and not your back when lifting. B. twisting your body slightly when lifting. C. lifting with the strong musculature of your back. D. keeping your feet no less than 32 (1 m) apart. A. using your legs and not your back when lifting. Before attempting to move any patient, you should: A. assess the patient's weight and know your physical limitations. B. put on a protective back brace to facilitate curvature of your A. assess the patient's weight and know your physical limitations. back. C. roll the patient onto his or her side to estimate his or her weight. D. concentrate on what you are doing instead of the other rescuers. You are the first medically trained person to arrive at the scene of an ill person. You find the patient, a 350-pound man, sitting in a small bathroom. The patient tells you that he is extremely weak and is unable to walk. You should: A. wait for additional rescuers to arrive before trying to move him. B. apply a cervical collar and position the patient on his left side. C. use the one-person walking assist technique to move the patient. D. carefully lift the patient and move him to a more open area. A. wait for additional rescuers to arrive before trying to move him. The blanket drag would be most appropriate to use to move a patient if he or she is: A. wearing clothing that is easily torn. B. in cardiac arrest and requires CPR. C. underweight and semiconscious. D. wearing a sturdy shirt but no pants. A. wearing clothing that is easily torn. An elderly woman must be moved from an unsafe environment quickly. The patient is unconscious and is wearing a thin night5 / 14 gown. What is the most rapid and effective way for you and your partner to move her? A. Place a blanket or rug on the ground, roll her onto it, and quickly remove her from the unsafe environment. A. Place a blanket or rug on the ground, roll her onto it, and quickly B. Grasp the patient by the collar of her nightgown and pull her in remove her from the unsafe environment. the direction of the long axis of her body. C. Quickly log roll her onto a backboard, secure her to the board with straps, and move her to safety. D. Place her in a chair and rapidly move her to a place of safety while protecting her head and neck. Basic patient movement techniques require slight modification when moving a patient from a wrecked vehicle because the patient: A. is not in a lying position. A. is not in a lying position. B. cannot be grasped under the arms. C. is often unconscious. D. is usually trapped in the wreckage. A 60-year-old man is found sitting in his car alongside the road. There is no apparent damage to his vehicle. Your assessment reveals that the man is in cardiac arrest. You should: A. grasp the patient by his arms and rapidly drag him from the vehicle while protecting his head and neck as much as possible. C. grasp the patient under his arms, cradle his head between your B. recline the seat completely back, get inside the car, and begin arms, and remove him from the vehicle. CPR until additional help arrives at the scene. C. grasp the patient under his arms, cradle his head between your arms, and remove him from the vehicle. D. begin CPR while the patient is still in his car and remove him from the car when additional help arrives. The direct ground lift should not be performed if the patient: A. is unconscious and not breathing. B. has experienced a traumatic injury. C. weighs more than 175 pounds (79 kg). D. has a back injury and is able to walk. B. has experienced a traumatic injury. Which of the following concepts is the first and most important when providing patient care? A. Render proper treatment B. Above all else, do no harm C. Provide your care in good faith D. Maintain your composure B. Above all else, do no harm An EMR has a legal duty to act: A. if he or she encounters an emergency scene while not on duty. B. only if he or she is not paid by a fire department or rescue C. while employed by an agency that designates you as an EMR. squad. C. while employed by an agency that designates you as an EMR. D. even when outside of his or her response jurisdiction. To comply with the standard of care, the EMR must: A. provide prompt and competent care that is consistent with what is deemed appropriate by the paramedic in charge and that is D. treat the patient to the best of his or her ability and provide clearly defined in the EMS system protocols. care that a reasonable, prudent person with similar training would B. treat the patient in a manner that is consistent with what is provide under similar circumstances. expected of the general public and that meets or exceeds the EMR's established scope of practice. C. provide the same prompt and competent care that an individual 6 / 14 with a higher level of training would have provided under the same or similar circumstances. D. treat the patient to the best of his or her ability and provide care that a reasonable, prudent person with similar training would provide under similar circumstances. You are a volunteer EMR and have placed your name on the schedule to respond for a 12-hour shift. With 10 minutes left in your shift, you are dispatched for a patient with a possible fractured leg. You should: D. proceed to the scene and begin providing care to the patient. A. wait for paramedics to arrive to determine if you are needed. B. respond only if it is convenient because you are a volunteer. C. wait until your relief arrives and let him or her respond. D. proceed to the scene and begin providing care to the patient. While functioning at the scene of a patient in cardiac arrest, you do not initiate CPR because the patient is elderly and you think that he is probably dead. Paramedics arrive and determine that the patient has only been in cardiac arrest for 6 minutes. Which of the following statements regarding this scenario is correct? A. You may be held liable for failure to follow the standard of care. A. You may be held liable for failure to follow the standard of care. B. Your actions are consistent with the responsibilities of an EMR. C. The patient would most likely not be able to be resuscitated. D. As an EMR, you did not have a legal duty to begin CPR. The scope of care under which the EMR functions is specified by the: A. State Department of Public Safety. B. EMS system medical director. C. National Association of Emergency Medical Technicians. D. National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians. B. EMS system medical director. In general, you should never change or alter a patient care report, unless: A. you need to correct an error to ensure that the information is A. you need to correct an error to ensure that the information is accurate. accurate. B. a paramedic or licensed physician orders you to do so. C. law enforcement personnel need the report for legal reasons. D. the patient's condition deteriorated after a paramedic assumed care. A patient who verbally or non-verbally lets you know that he or she is willing to accept treatment is giving you ____________ consent. A. assumed B. informed C. expressed D. implied C. expressed For a patient to be legally able to make a decision regarding his or her own health care, he or she must: A. accept EMS transport to an appropriate hospital. B. have a non-life-threatening injury or illness. C. have at least two witnesses present at the scene. D. be of legal age as defined by state law. D. be of legal age as defined by state law. The principle of implied consent assumes that an unconscious patient: A. is at least 18 years of age. B. has a life-threatening condition. C. has a living will on file. D. would wish to receive treatment. 7 / 14 D. would wish to receive treatment. You arrive at the scene of an incident involving a motor vehicle and a pedestrian. Law enforcement officers are present, but the paramedic unit will not arrive for another 5 minutes. Your patient, who was struck by the vehicle, is a 16-year-old girl. She is unconscious and has severe bleeding from her head. You should: A. begin immediate treatment and ask a law enforcement officer A. begin immediate treatment and ask a law enforcement officer to attempt to contact the child's parents. to attempt to contact the child's parents. B. keep curious bystanders away from the patient until the paramedic unit arrives at the scene. C. contact the child's parents and obtain phone consent before rendering any emergency medical care. D. ask a law enforcement officer to sign a statement that you are providing care without parental consent. You are dispatched to an elementary school for a 7-year-old boy who sustained a minor injury while on the playground. The child is conscious, alert, and does not appear to have any life-threatening injuries. What should you do? A. Send the child to the nurse's office for minor treatment and then B. Ask a teacher to contact the child's parents to obtain consent return your unit to service. for you to begin treatment. B. Ask a teacher to contact the child's parents to obtain consent for you to begin treatment. C. Allow a teacher to sign a patient refusal form because the child does not require treatment. D. Begin treatment of the child and request an EMT unit to transport him to the hospital. Which of the following statements regarding a patient's consent to treatment is correct? A. A patient must be transported if he or she consents to treatB. Patients may refuse treatment at any time, even if treatment has ment. begun. B. Patients may refuse treatment at any time, even if treatment has begun. C. Patients can give consent to treat only to an EMT or paramedic. D. Once a patient gives you consent, he or she cannot revoke it. Which of the following is not considered an advance directive? A. Durable power of attorney for health care B. EMS system protocols C. Do not resuscitate (DNR) order D. Living will B. EMS system protocols A DNR order is a written request giving permission for medical personnel not to: A. begin resuscitation unless the patient is in shock. B. attempt resuscitation in the event of cardiac arrest. C. give oxygen to a patient with severe hypoxemia. D. render treatment to patients with a terminal illness. B. attempt resuscitation in the event of cardiac arrest. The purpose of a communications system is to: A. alert the general public in the event of a natural disaster, terrorist attack, or other significant situation. B. relay information from one location to another when it is impos- B. relay information from one location to another when it is impossible to communicate face to face. sible to communicate face to face. C. transmit data from a remote location to the hospital so that the physician can provide the proper guidance. D. communicate critical patient information face to face with another healthcare professional. 8 / 14 Which of the following statements regarding a base station is correct? A. Most base stations can be mobilized and deployed quickly to a remote location in an emergency situation. B. Base stations are attached to more than one antenna but can transmit and receive on only one frequency. C. A base station is a powerful mobile two-way radio system that is designed to transmit on multiple frequencies. D. A base station is used by dispatchers to send and receive messages to and from all parts of the service area. D. A base station is used by dispatchers to send and receive messages to and from all parts of the service area. Upon arriving at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash, you determine that there are multiple patients. You should: A. page additional help by using the mobile data terminal in your response vehicle. B. immediately request additional resources using the mobile radio B. immediately request additional resources using the mobile in your response vehicle. radio in your response vehicle. C. call for additional help using a cellular phone after you have determined the severity of the patients' injuries. D. triage all patients and then use your portable radio to call for additional resources. When transmitting information from the patient's side to the responding ambulance, the EMR would most likely use a: A. cellular telephone. B. base station. C. mobile radio. D. portable radio. D. portable radio. A device that receives a weak radio signal, amplifies that signal, and then rebroadcasts it is called a(n): A. repeater B. antenna C. amplifier D. paging system A. repeater When dispatched to an emergency call, you should: A. get in your response vehicle and proceed immediately. B. call the dispatcher by phone to confirm directions. C. send a "received call" message to the dispatcher via text. D. not respond until you are sure of the location. D. not respond until you are sure of the location. Upon arriving at the scene of an emergency call, a visual survey will enable you to: A. identify the patients who are the most critically ill or injured. D. determine the number of patients and estimate injury severity B. identify any type of hazardous materials that may be involved. C. determine the events that occurred shortly before the incident. D. determine the number of patients and estimate injury severity In which of the following phases of an EMS call is the EMR typically not involved? A. Transport to the hospital B. Updating responding EMS units C. Transferring patient care D. Response to the scene A. Transport to the hospital Which of the following pieces of information is the least critical to relay to the responding EMS unit about your patient? A. Level of responsiveness 9 / 14 C. Past medical history D. Chief complaint C. Past medical history D. Status of the airway When EMTs or paramedics arrive at an emergency scene, the EMR should: A. disengage from patient care and give them room to work. B. apprise family members who may be present at the scene. C. notify the dispatcher of their arrival and then depart the scene. D. provide them with a hand-off report and assist as needed. D. provide them with a hand-off report and assist as needed. The most important reason for notifying the dispatcher after you have turned over care of a patient to other EMS providers is: A. that the dispatcher is required to report any and all radio traffic to his or her supervisor. B. to let the dispatcher know how long it will take before you are B. to let the dispatcher know how long it will take before you are available for another call. available for another call. C. to enable the dispatcher to maintain an accurate time log for the incident. D. to inform the dispatcher of the care you provided before other EMS providers arrived. Guidelines for effective radio communication include all of the following, except: A. reducing background noise as much as you possibly can. B. avoiding words that are difficult to hear, such as "yes" and "no." C. holding the microphone 2" to 3" from your mouth. D. pausing every 60 seconds and saying, "Do you copy?" D. pausing every 60 seconds and saying, "Do you copy?" Effective communication means that: A. the person being spoken to understands exactly what he or she is told. B. the person being spoken to will be able to hear what is being A. the person being spoken to understands exactly what he or she said. is told. C. only a minimal communication barrier exists between two people. D. all external distractions have been eliminated from a conversation. Which of the following is an example of an internal distraction that may hinder an EMR's communication with a patient? A. A loud bulldozer that is operating in a lot near a patient's residence D. Worrying about personal finances while at the scene of a car B. An angry husband who is demanding that the EMR care for his crash wife C. Numerous family members who are giving the EMR patient information D. Worrying about personal finances while at the scene of a car crash When communicating with a conscious, sick, or injured patient, it is important to: A. allow minimal time for the patient to respond. B. maintain eye contact whenever possible. C. speak quickly to expedite patient care. D. use medical terms to avoid patient confusion. B. maintain eye contact whenever possible. A patient is in the anatomic position when he or she is: A. lying down on his or her back with the arms at the sides and D. standing facing you with arms at the sides and the palms of the the palms facing downward. hands facing outward. B. lying down on his or her side with the arms above the head and the hands clenched in a fist. 10 / 14 C. standing facing you with arms to the side and palms touching the side of the lower extremities. D. standing facing you with arms at the sides and the palms of the hands facing outward. The term "anterior" refers to the: A. back B. sides C. top D. front D. front Which of the following statements is correct? A. The thigh is proximal in relation to the patient's hips. B. The chest is located on the anterior aspect of the body. A. The abdomen is on the posterior aspect of the body. D. An injured left foot is proximal to an injured left knee. B. The chest is located on the anterior aspect of the body. During your assessment of a 21-year-old man who fell from a roof, you note the presence of bruising on the medial aspect of the anterior trunk. What part of the body is this describing? B. Toward the midline on the front part of the torso A. Away from the midline on the front part of the torso B. Toward the midline on the front part of the torso C. Toward the midline on the back of the torso D. Away from the midline on the back of the torso In relation to the nose, the eyes are: A. medial B. proximal C. distal D. lateral D. lateral Which of the following statements is correct? A. The wrist is distal to the elbow. B. The knee is proximal to the thigh. C. The ears are medial to the eyes. D. The head is inferior to the neck. A. The wrist is distal to the elbow. A fracture of a femur in a location farthest away from the hip is: A. proximal B. medial C. superior D. distal D. distal The location of a lateral body part is: A. away from the midline of the body. B. in the lower part of the body. C. at the highest point of the body. D. toward the center of the body. A. away from the midline of the body. A 40-year-old woman has an injury to the midshaft humerus following a motor vehicle crash. What major joint is immediately distal to her injury? D. Elbow A. Xiphoid B. Wrist C. Shoulder D. Elbow The respiratory system functions by: A. bringing oxygen into the body and removing carbon dioxide. 11 / 14 B. transporting oxygenated blood throughout the body. C. ensuring that an adequate amount of oxygen reaches the body's cells. D. eliminating damaged blood cells from the body. A. bringing oxygen into the body and removing carbon dioxide. The structure that prevents food or liquid from entering the larynx is called the: A. esophagus B. epiglottis C. oropharynx D. nasopharynx B. epiglottis All of the following are upper airway structures, except the: A. larynx B. pharynx C. epiglottis D. alveoli D. alveoli The airway within the lungs branches into narrower and narrower passages called: A. red blood cells B. alveoli C. bronchioles D. capillaries C. bronchioles Air is inhaled into the lungs when the diaphragm: A. contracts and moves upward in the chest. B. relaxes and moves upward in the chest. C. contracts and moves downward in the chest. D. relaxes and moves downward in the chest. C. contracts and moves downward in the chest. The circulatory system is responsible for: A. producing carbon dioxide in the body. B. enriching the blood with oxygen. C. pumping blood through the body. D. producing oxygen-carrying blood cells. C. pumping blood through the body. All of the following are components of the scene size-up, except: A. determining the need for additional resources. B. ensuring that the scene is safe for you to enter. C. strict adherence to standard precautions at all times. D. determining whether the patient is sick or injured. D. determining whether the patient is sick or injured. As you approach an emergency scene, you should first: A. determine the number of critically injured patients. B. notify the dispatcher of your scene size-up findings. C. quickly gain access to the patient and begin treatment. D. scan the area to determine the extent of the incident. D. scan the area to determine the extent of the incident. Scene hazards that are not visible to emergency responders include: A. poisonous fumes B. spilled gasoline C. ice on the road D. unstable surfaces A. poisonous fumes Identifying potential exit routes at an emergency scene is most important because: A. the quickest exit route is almost always the safest route to take. 12 / 14 B. law enforcement personnel need to be notified of all exit routes. C. you may need to exit the area rapidly if the scene becomes unsafe. D. ambulances will need to take the quickest route to the hospital C. you may need to exit the area rapidly if the scene becomes unsafe. The purpose of noting the mechanism of injury (MOI) is to: A. rule out the possibility of any life-threatening injuries. B. allow you to predict what injuries the patient may have. C. identify life-threatening injuries that the patient has. D. determine whether the patient's problem is medical or trauma. B. allow you to predict what injuries the patient may have. When assessing the MOI of a vehicle that struck a utility pole, you notice that the vehicle's steering wheel is bent. You should: A. suspect injuries to the patient's chest. B. be the most suspicious for head injuries. C. check the patient for extremity injuries first. D. conclude that the air bag deployed. A. suspect injuries to the patient's chest. Which of the following statements regarding the MOI is correct? A. The MOI is used to rule out life-threatening conditions in patients who have experienced a traumatic injury. B. The MOI is the single most important factor when determining C. The MOI can provide clues, but it cannot be used to determine which injuries a particular patient has. which injuries a particular patient has. C. The MOI can provide clues, but it cannot be used to determine which injuries a particular patient has. D. The MOI is usually identified during your primary assessment of a critically injured patient. During the primary assessment, you should: A. determine whether the scene is safe for you to enter. B. identify and correct all life-threatening conditions. C. determine whether additional resources are needed. D. perform a comprehensive examination of the patient. B. identify and correct all life-threatening conditions. You enter the residence of an unconscious 30-year-old man. As you are approaching the patient, who is lying motionless on the floor, you should: A. advise your partner that the patient appears to be deceased. B. rule out a traumatic injury because the patient is inside. C. note the patient's position and any unusual odors or sounds. D. conclude that the patient is suffering from a severe illness. C. note the patient's position and any unusual odors or sounds. The first part of determining a conscious patient's level of responsiveness is to: A. gently shake the patient to elicit a response. B. ask the patient why he or she called 9-1-1. C. introduce yourself to the patient. D. pinch the trapezius muscle to elicit a response. C. introduce yourself to the patient. A patient is said to be alert if he or she: A. is able to answer questions accurately and appropriately. B. reacts to a loud stimulus, such as when you raise your voice. C. has not experienced any significant illnesses or injuries. D. is confused but is able to tell you the approximate time. A. is able to answer questions accurately and appropriately. The most effective way to assess a small child's level of responsiveness is to: C. assess the child's interaction with his or her environment. A. pinch the child's skin to elicit a response to pain. B. determine if the child is able to tell you his or her birthday. 13 / 14 C. assess the child's interaction with his or her environment. D. speak directly to the child in a nonthreatening tone of voice. When opening the airway of an unconscious injured patient, you should: A. use the head tilt-chin lift maneuver. B. insert an oral airway before manually moving the head. C. use the jaw-thrust maneuver. D. grasp the patient's tongue and lower jaw and lift. C. use the jaw-thrust maneuver. After opening the airway of an unconscious elderly woman, you discover that there are thin secretions in her mouth. You should: A. insert an oral airway. B. assess her respiratory rate. C. begin rescue breathing at once. D. clear her airway with suction. D. clear her airway with suction. If you are unable to feel a carotid pulse in an unconscious, nonbreathing adult within 5 to 10 seconds, you should: A. look for and control severe external bleeding. B. provide rescue breathing and reassess for a pulse in 2 minutes. C. locate the radial pulse and assess it for up to 10 seconds. D. begin CPR, starting with chest compressions. 14 / 14 D. begin CPR, starting with chest compressions.