Campbell Essential Bio Test with Answers 1

Campbell Essential Bio – practice test – CHAPTER 1 1) In what way(s) is the science of biology influencing and changing our culture? A) By helping us understand the relevance of evolution to human health B) By revealing how mutations in genes can lead to disease C) By providing new tools for forensic investigations D) All of the above 2) What is biology? A) The scientific study of the environment B) The scientific study of DNA C) The scientific study of ecosystmes D) The scientific study of life 3) Which of the following is not a property of life? A) Populations of organisms rarely change over time B) Organisms take in energy and use it to perform all of life’s activities. C) Living things exhibit complex but ordered organization D) Organisms reproduce their own kind. 4) What the two main processes that ecosystems depend upon? A) Speciation and evolution B) Decomposition and nutrient recycling C) Nutrient recycling and energy flow D) Sunlight and photosynthesis 5) Which of the following is not recycled but is lost from ecosystems? A) Nitrogen B) Energy C) Magnesium D) Carbon 6) Which of the following is a producer? A) Earth worm B) Sun C) Cat D) Oak tree 7) Humans are ________. A) Producers B) Producers and consumers C) Consumers D) Producers and decomposers 8) Which of the following structures can perform all the activities required for life? A) DNA molecules B) Cells C) Organelles D) Nuclei 9) Relative to prokaryotic cell, eukaryotic cells are usually __________. A) Smaller and simpler B) Larger and more complex C) Larger and equally complex D) Smaller and more complex 10) Humans are composed of _________ cells. A) Eukaryotic B) Bacterial C) Plant D) Prokaryotic 11) What is the name given to the functional compartments of a cell? A) Genomes B) Nuclei C) Genes D) Organelles 12) The DNA of a eukaryotic cell is found within the _________. A) Archaea B) Nucleus C) Prokaryotic cell D) Insulin 13) What are eukaryotic genes composed of? A) RNA B) Organelles C) RNA and DNA D) DNA 14) What is a gene? A) A type of eukaryotic cell B) A unit of inheritance C) An organelle that houses DNA D) A type of prokaryotic cell 15) More than half of all known species are _______. A) Plants B) Insects C) Bacteria D) Vertebrates 16) Taxonomy is the ___________. A) Study of cells B) Naming and classifying of species C) Study of organisms and their interaction with the environment D) Study of genes 17) How does taxonomy assist biologists? A) By providing easily remembered scientific names for organisms B) By reducing life to its smallest common denominator, the cell C) By categorizing diverse items into smaller and smaller numbers of groups D) All of the above 18) Which domain(s) consist(s) of prokaryotic cells A) Bacteria only B) Eukarya only C) Archaea and Eukarya D) Bacteria and archaea 19) Which kingdom of Eukarya consists primarily of unicellular organisms? A) Protista B) Plantae C) Bacteria D) Fungi 20) A newly discovered multicellular organism obtains food by digesting dead organisms. Such an organism is most likely a member of the kingdom __________. A) Plantae B) Fungi C) Protista D) Animalia 21) Members of the kingdom Plantae differ from members of the other kingdoms of Eukarya in that most members of the kingdom Plantae _________. A) Are decomposers B) Are unicellular C) Are consumers D) Produce their own food 22) The branch of biology that explains both the diversity and the unity of life is _______. A) Evolution B) Microbiology C) Taxonomy D) Genetics 23) Which of these is most closely associated with Darwin? A) Energy flow B) Ecosystem structure C) The three domains of life D) Natural selection 24) Which of these is required for natural selection to occur? A) Inhereitance B) Unequal reproductive success C) Individual variation D) All of the above 25) Unequal reproductive success _______. A) Can lead to a population being less well adapted to its environment B) Increases variation C) Can lead to natural selection D) Does not affect the frequency of expression of traits in succeeding generations of a population 26) What does adaptation mean in a biological context? A) The way an individual’s body adjusts to its environment B) The accumulation of favorable variations in a population over time C) The ability of organisms to alter their appearance under changing environmental conditions D) All of the above 27) What accounts for the different breeds of domesticated dogs? A) Overproduction B) Artificial selection C) Natural selection D) Competition 28) Over a span of two decades, scientists measured changes in the beak size of a population of Galapagos ground finches. This __________. A) Provided evidence of natural selection in action B) Is an example of artificial selection C) Is an example of overproduction D) Led Darwin to his theory of evolution through natural selection 29) Science is ________. A) The inquiry-based effort to describe and explain nature B) The search for truth C) An organized set of principles for how to ethically and morally behave D) All of the above 30) What is the difference between discovery science and hypothesis-driven science? A) Discovery science “discovers” new knowledge, whereas hypothesis-driven science does not. B) Discovery science is based on deductive reasoning, whereas hypothesis-driven science is based on inductive reasoning. C) Discovery science is mostly about describing nature, whereas hypothesis-driven science tries to explain nature. D) Discovery science involves predictions about outcomes, whereas hypothesis-driven science involves tentative answers to specific questions. 31) Which of these statements is correct? A) Scientific ideas are subjected to repeated testing B) Science can be used to prove or disprove the idea that deities or spirits cause earthquakes and other natural disasters C) Science does not require observations that other people can confirm D) Only discovery science can lead to important conclusions about nature. 32) Discovery science is primarily based on __________. A) Hypothesis testing B) Deduction C) Observation D) Experimentation 33) Which of these would be a valid hypothesis? A) Human history is determined by a series of supernatural events. B) Humans should help in the conservation of other animal species C) Humans are controlled by forces beyond our understanding D) Humans and bacteria share a common genetic code 34) A hypothesis is a(n) ___________. A) Tentative answer to a question B) Guess C) Observation D) Theory 35) You try to start your car, but it does not start. Which of these is a hypothesis? A) My car’s battery is dead. B) If I recharge the battery, then my car will start. C) My car is too old to function properly. D) What is wrong with my car? 36) You try to start your car, but it does not start. Which of these is a prediction? A) My car’s battery is dead. B) My car is too old to function properly C) What is wrong with my car? D) If I recharge the battery, then my car will start. 37) Which of the following are the proper components of the scientific method? A) Experiment, conclusion, application B) Question, observation, experiment, analysis, prediction C) Observation, question, hypothesis, prediction, experiment, results, conclusion D) Observation, question, opinion, conclusion, hypothesis 38) In a scientific experiment, the control group _________. A) Serves as a basis of comparison with the experimental group B) Is subjected to the factor whose effect is being tested C) Allows for the simultaneous testing of multiple variables D) Is required for the validity of discovery science 39) How do hypotheses differ from theories? A) Theories must be testable; hypotheses do not need to be testable. B) Theories are more comprehensive than hypotheses C) Hypotheses are educated guesses, and theories are tentative explanations. D) Hypothesis are derived from experimentation, whereas theories are derived from observation. 40) Which of the following is an example of a scientific theory? A) The scientific method theory B) The Big Bang theory C) The theory of the thing D) None of the above 41) Antibiotic resistance evolves in bacteria because ____________. A) The presence of antibiotics favors bacteria that already have genes for resistance B) Farmers do not use enough antibiotics in animal feed C) The antibiotics create resistance genes in bacteria D) None of the above. 42) _____________ is an example of an element. A) Water B) Carbon C) Glucose D) Salt 43) The four most common elements found in living things are A) Nitrogen, oxygen, phosphorus, and carbon B) Carbon, oxygen, nitrogen, and hydrogen C) Carbon, oxygen, potassium, and calcium D) Oxygen, calcium, hydrogen, and carbon 44) Which of the following elements, essential to life, is a trace element? A) Phosphorus B) Carbon C) Iodine D) Calcium 45) An atom with a positive charge has __________. A) Protons plus neutrons B) More Protons than neutrons C) Electrons D) Neutrons 46) An atom’s __________ are found in its nucleus. A) Neutrons and protons B) Protons only C) Neutrons and electrons D) Electrons, protons, and neutrons 47) How many electrons can be housed in the first shell of an atom? A) 8 B) 4 C) 2 D) 0 48) How many electrons can be housed in the 2nd, 3rd, 4th (and beyond) shells of an atom? A) 8 B) 4 C) 2 D) 0 49) Beryllium’s atomic mass is 9 and its atomic number is 4. How many neutrons are found in a beryllium atom? A) 9 B) 5 C) 13 D) 4 50) Carbon has an atomic number of 6, this means it has: A) 6 protons and 6 neutrons B) 6 protons and 6 electrons C) 3 protons and 3 electrons D) 3 protons and 3 neutrons 51) An uncharged atom of gold has an atomic number of 79 and an atomic mass of 197. This atom has _____protons, ______ neutrons, and _______ electrons. A) 118 . . . . 79. . . . 118 B) 118 . . . 276 …. 118 C) 79 . . . . 118 . . . . 79 D) 79 . . . 34 . . . 79 52) The way Earth moves about the sun is most like ___________. A) The neutron and electron moving around a proton B) An electron moving around the nucleus of an atom C) A proton moving about an electron D) A neutron moving about a proton 53) Isotopes of an element have the same number of _______ and different numbers of ________. A) Protons….neutrons B) Protons…..electrons C) Neutrons….protons D) Electrons…….protons 54) How do radioactive isotopes differ from isotopes? A) Radioactive isotopes are unstable; isotopes are stable. B) Radioactive isotopes have more neutrons than do isotopes C) Radioactive isotopes are stable; isotopes are unstable D) Radioactive isotopes have fewer neutrons than do isotopes 55) The second electron shell of an atom can hold a maximum of ______ electron(s). A) 1 B) 2 C) 6 D) 8 56) Nitrogen has an atomic number of 7; therefore, it has ______ electrons in its outmost electron shell. A) 10 B) 18 C) 5 D) 2 57) An atom with an electrical charge is a(n) _________. A) Isotope B) Molecule C) Compound D) Ion 58) The bond between oppositely charged ions is a(n) _________ bond. A) Ionic B) Polar C) Hydrogen D) Covalent 59) In the following reaction, what type of bond is holding the two atoms together? K + Cl - K+ = Cl. - KCl A) B) C) D) Hydrophilic Ionic Hydrophobic Covalent 60) What name is given to bonds that involve the sharing of electrons? A) Hydrogen B) Ionic C) Covalent D) Polar 61) Sulfur has an atomic number of 16. How many covalent bonds can sulfur form? A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 0 62) The hydrogens and oxygen of a water molecule are held together by ______ bonds. A) Electron B) Hydrogen C) Covalent D) Osmotic 63) Why is water considered a polar molecule? A) The oxygen is found between the two hydrogens B) The oxygen atom attracts the hydrogen atoms. C) The oxygen end of the molecule has a slight negative charge, and the hydrogen end has a slight positive charge. D) Both hydrogens are at one end of the molecule, and oxygen is at the other end. 64) Why is water NOT considered an organic molecule? A) Because water does not have hydrogen B) Because water can be bottled. C) Because water does not contain carbon D) Because water is not a producer. 65) Adjacent water molecules are joined by _________ bonds. A) Covalent only B) Ionic C) Polar and covalent D) Hydrogen 66) Adjacent water molecules are connected by the _______. A) Sharing of electrons between the hydrogen of one water molecule and the oxygen of another water molecule B) Electrical attraction between the hydrogen of one water molecule and the oxygen of another water molecule C) Sharing of electrons between adjacent oxygen molecules D) Electrical attraction between the hydrogens of adjacent water molecules 67) How many oxygen atoms are in the products of the following reaction? C6H12O6 + 6 H2O + 6O2  6CO2 + 12 H2O A) 24 B) 18 C) 6 D) 12 68) What are the reactant(s) in the following chemical reaction? C6H12O6 + 6 H2O + 6O2  6CO2 + 12 H2O A) CO2 and H2O B) C6H12O6, H2O, AND O2 C) O2 only D) C6H12O6, H2O, O2, CO2, and H2O 69) Human body cells are approximately _______ water. A) 95-99% B) 25-35% C) 50-55% D) 70-95% 70) The tendency of molecules of the same kind to stick together is called _________. A) Bonding B) Cohesion C) Polarity D) Adhesion 71) Why (if you are careful) are you able to float a needle on the surface of water? A) Water has adhesive properties B) The covalent bonds that hold a water molecule together are responsible for this ability. C) A single needle is less dense than water. D) The surface tension that is a result of water’s cohesive properties makes this possible.