Path Check Your Understanding #1

Path Check Your Understanding #1 1. Necrotic death of brain tissue usually produces _________ necrosis. a. Coagulative b. Caseous c. Liquefactive d. Fat 2. Of the statements below, the accurate statement regarding nutrition and cellular health is: a. The body can generally produce elements essential for nutritional balance. b. Obese individuals are generally nutritionally health. c. Deficient cellular uptake by one cell type may contribute to excess nutrient delivery to other cell types. d. A normal BMI indicates nutritional health. 3. The cellular component that is most susceptible to radiation injury is the: a. Membrane b. DNA c. RNA d. Ribosomes 4. The cellular response indicative of injury of faulty metabolism is: a. Hydropic swelling b. Lactate production c. Metaplasia d. Intracellular accumulations 5. Familial retinoblastoma involves the transmission of what from parent to offspring? a. Mutant tumor-suppressor gene b. Cancer-causing virus c. Oncogene d. Extra chromosome 6. After bronchoscopy and histologic examination of a suspected tumor, your patient is diagnosed with primary bronchial carcinoma. Thus, the tumor: a. Is benign b. Is malignant c. Is secondary to cancer elsewhere in the body d. Has spread 7. Your patient eats “lots of fat,” leads a “stressful” life, and has smoked “about two packs a day for the last 40 years.” Her chronic morning cough recently worsened, and she was diagnosed with a lung mass. The most likely contributing factor for development of lung cancer in this patient is: a. High-fat diet b. Urban pollutants c. Stressful lifestyle d. Cigarette smoking 8. The primary effect of aging on all body systems is: a. Decreased functional reserve b. Diseased function c. Programmed senescence d. Senility 9. The hypermetabolic state leading to cachexia in terminal cancer is thought to be because of: a. Tumor necrosis factor b. Angiogenesis c. Loss of ATP production d. Pain medications 10. The most common tumor-suppressor gene defect identified in cancer cells is: a. Rb b. P53 c. DCC d. APC 11. Your patient is scheduled for a staging procedure. She wants to know what that means. The correct response is which of the following? a. It is a procedure for determining the extent of tumor spread. b. It is a histologic examination of tissues to determine the degree of tumor differentiation. c. It is based on exploratory surgery. d. It is biochemical testing of tumor cells to determine the genetic basis of the tumor. 12. Carbon monoxide injures cells by: a. Destruction of cellular membranes. b. Reducing oxygen level on hemoglobin. c. Promotion of free radicals. d. Crystallization of cellular organelles. 13. After surgery to remove a lung tumor, your patient is scheduled for chemotherapy, which will: a. Selectively kill tumor cells. b. Stimulate immune cells to fight the cancer. c. Have minimal side effects. d. Kill rapidly dividing cells. 14. Malignant neoplasms of epithelial origin are known as: a. Lymphoma b. Sarcomas c. Carcinomas d. Adenomas 15. A patient with metastatic lung cancer wants to know her chances for survival. Which response is correct? a. “Lung cancer is always fatal.” b. “Lung cancer has about a 15% survival rate.” c. “Lung cancer is highly curable when diagnosed early.” d. “Lung cancer death rate has decreased significantly, as with all other cancers.” 16. Breast cancer in women who have the breast cancer gene: a. Occurs at an earlier age. b. Is more likely to be unilateral. c. Is more common than non-inherited breast cancer. d. Is more responsive to treatment. 17. In general, a cancer cell that is more tissue-specific differentiated is more likely to be aggressive. a. True b. False 18. The cellular change that is considered preneoplastic is: a. Anaplasia b. Dysplasia c. Metaplasia d. Hyperplasia 19. Cancer grading is based on: a. Tumor size b. Local invasion c. Cell differentiation d. Metastasis 20. Metaplasia is: a. The replacement of one differentiated cell type with another. b. The transformation of a cell type to malignancy. c. An irreversible cellular adaptation. d. The disorganization of cells into various sizes, shapes, and arrangements. 21. A 17-year-old college-bound student receives a vaccine against an organism that causes meningitis. This is an example of: a. Primary prevention. b. Secondary prevention. c. Tertiary prevention. d. Disease treatment. 22. In general, with aging, organ size and function: a. Increase. b. Decrease. c. Remain the same. d. Are unknown. 23. Apoptosis is a process that results in cellular: a. Atrophy. b. Death. c. Proliferation. d. Mutation. 24. Coagulative necrosis is caused by: a. Dissolving of dead cells and cyst formation. b. Trauma or pancreatitis. c. Lung tissue damage. d. Interrupted blood supply. 25. An increase in organ size and function caused by increased workload is termed: a. Atrophy. b. Hypertrophy. c. Metaplasia. d. Inflammation. 26. After suffering a heart attack, a middle-aged man is counseled to take a cholesterol-lowering medication. This is an example of: a. Primary prevention. b. Secondary prevention. c. Tertiary prevention. d. Disease treatment. 27. Somatic death refers to death: a. Of a body organ. b. Of the entire organism. c. Of nerve cells. d. Secondary to brain damage. 28. Extreme cold injures cells by all the following except: a. Ischemic injury from vasoconstriction. b. Peripheral nerve damage from rebound vasodilation. c. Decreased blood viscosity. d. Crystallization of cellular components. 29. All the following stress-induced hormones increase blood glucose except: a. Aldosterone. b. Cortisol. c. Norepinephrine. d. Epinephrine. 30. Indicators that an individual is experiencing high stress include all the following except: a. Tachycardia. b. Diaphoresis. c. Increased peripheral resistance. d. Pupil constriction. 31. Persistence of the alarm stage will ultimately result in: a. Stress reduction. b. Permanent damage and death. c. Movement into the resistance stage. d. Exhaustion of the sympathetic nervous system. 32. Many of the responses to stress are attributed to activation of the sympathetic nervous system and are mediated by: a. Norepinephrine. b. Cortisol. c. Glucagon. d. ACTH. 33. Reperfusion injury to cells: a. Results in very little cellular damage. b. Results from calcium deficiency in cells. c. Occurs following nutritional injury. d. Involves formation of free radicals. 34. A patient has been exposed to meningococcal meningitis, but is not yet demonstrating signs of this disease. This stage of illness is called the _______ stage. a. Prodromal. b. Latent. c. Sequela. d. Convalescence. 35. The primary adaptive purpose of the substances produced in the alarm stage is: a. Energy and repair. b. Invoke a resting state. c. Produce exhaustion. d. Set a new baseline steady-state. 36. When the cause is unknown, a condition is said to be idiopathic: a. True. b. False. 37. The nurse is swabbing a patient’s throat to test for streptococcal pharyngitis. The nurse must understand that tests such as this differ in the probability that they will be positive for a condition when applied to a person with the condition; this probability is termed sensitivity. a. True. b. False. 38. A patient with high blood pressure who is otherwise healthy is counseled to restrict sodium intake. This is an example of: a. Primary prevention. b. Secondary prevention. c. Tertiary prevention. d. Disease treatment. 39. All these cellular responses are potentially reversible except: a. Necrosis. b. Metaplasia. c. Atrophy. d. hyperplasia. 40. The stage during which the patient functions normally, although the disease processes are well established, is referred to as: a. Latent. b. Subclinical. c. Prodromal. d. Convalescence.