Anatomy and Physiology (Blood) Answer Key 81-146

81) A hormone that stimulates production of granulocytes and monocytes is A) M-CSF. B) G-CSF. C) GM-CSF. D) multi-CSF. E) thymosin. Answer: C 82) A genetically engineered hormone that stimulates the production of neutrophils is A) M-CSF. B) G-CSF (Neupogen). C) GM-CSF. D) multi-CSF. E) thymosin. Answer: B 83) The most numerous WBCs in a differential count of a healthy individual are A) neutrophils. B) basophils. C) lymphocytes. D) monocytes. E) leukocytes. Answer: A 84) Which of the following is not true of neutrophils? A) less abundant than lymphocytes B) can make hydrogen peroxide C) can exit capillaries D) can destroy bacteria E) attracted to complement-coated bacteria Answer: A 85) Which of these descriptions best matches the term B lymphocytes? A) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium B) helper cells are one type C) produce antibodies in response to antigens D) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide E) often elevated in allergic individuals Answer: C 86) Which of the following is true of basophils? A) constitute about 1 percent of WBCs B) granules contain heparin C) granules contain histamine D) attract other defense cells E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E 87) Which of these descriptions best matches the term T lymphocytes? A) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium B) are involved in cell mediated immunity C) produce antibodies in response to antigens D) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide E) often elevated in allergic individuals Answer: B 88) An infected wound contains typically contains A) dead neutrophils. B) cellular debris. C) tissue fluids. D) pus. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E 89) Which of the following is not true of monocytes? A) about same size as basophils B) enter tissues and wander C) become macrophages D) are long lived E) can phagocytize bacteria Answer: A 90) Eosinophils function in: A) destroying antibody-labeled antigens B) blood coagulation C) production of surface antigens for red blood cells D) antibody production E) production of heparin Answer: A 91) During a bacterial infection you would expect to see increased numbers of A) neutrophils. B) eosinophils. C) basophils. D) reticulocytes. E) thrombocytes. Answer: A 92) The blood cells involved in specific immunity are the: A) neutrophils B) monocytes C) basophils D) erythrocytes E) lymphocytes Answer: E 93) Non-specific immunity, such as phagocytosis, is a function of which blood cells? A) basophils and eosinophils B) neutrophils, eosinophils, and monocytes C) lymphocytes and monocytes D) platelets E) lymphocytes Answer: B 94) Which of the following is true of eosinophils? A) granules stain with eosin dyes B) allergic patients have many C) have bilobed nucleus D) constitute about 2 to 4 percent of WBCs E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E 95) A patient has an infected puncture wound to her foot. Which type of white blood cell would you expect to be elevated in a differential white cell count? A) neutrophils B) eosinophils C) basophils D) lymphocytes E) monocytes Answer: A Figure 19-1 The Origins and Differentiation of Formed Elements Use Figure 19-1 to answer the following questions: 96) Identify the cell labeled "5." A) erythrocyte B) lymphocyte C) eosinophil D) basophil E) monocyte Answer: E 97) Identify the cell labeled "6." A) erythrocyte B) lymphocyte C) eosinophil D) basophil E) monocyte Answer: B 98) Identify the cell labeled "4." A) neutrophil B) lymphocyte C) platelet D) basophil E) monocyte Answer: D 99) Identify the cell labeled "3." A) eosinophil B) lymphocyte C) erythrocyte D) basophil E) monocyte Answer: A 100) Identify the cell labeled "2." A) lymphocyte B) eosinophil C) basophil D) neutrophil E) monocyte Answer: D 101) The function of platelets is to assist in the A) destruction of bacteria. B) process called hemostasis. C) removal of worn out red blood cells. D) immune response during an infection. E) transport of blood gases such as oxygen. Answer: B 102) Platelets are pinched off from giant multinucleated cells in the bone marrow called A) erythroblasts. B) normoblasts. C) megakaryocytes. D) myeloblasts. E) lymphoblasts. Answer: C 103) Platelets are A) red cells that lack a nucleus. B) blue cells that have a nucleus. C) large cells with a prominent, concave nucleus. D) tiny cells with a polynucleus. E) cytoplasmic fragments of large cells. Answer: E 104) In case of hemorrhage, platelets are stored as a reserve in A) the heart. B) the kidneys. C) the spleen. D) the thymus gland. E) bone marrow. Answer: C 105) Which of these descriptions best matches the function of platelets? A) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium B) helper cells are one type C) produce antibodies in response to antigens D) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide E) often elevated in allergic individuals Answer: A 106) A person whose platelet count is 40,000/µl is suffering from A) thrombocytosis. B) leukocytosis. C) hemocytosis. D) thrombocytopenia. E) leukopenia. Answer: D 107) ________ involves a cascade of reactions leading to the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. A) Vascular spasm B) The platelet phase C) Retraction D) Coagulation E) Fibrinolysis Answer: D 108) Most of the protein factors that are required for clotting are synthesized by A) platelets. B) megakaryocytes. C) the liver. D) the kidneys. E) the spleen. Answer: C 109) The extrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated by the A) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue. B) activation of Factor VII exposed to collagen. C) release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium. D) release of heparin from the liver. E) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. Answer: C 110) The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is activated by the A) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue. B) activation of Factor XII exposed to collagen. C) release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium. D) release of heparin from the liver. E) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. Answer: B 111) The common pathway of coagulation begins with the A) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue. B) activation of a proenzyme exposed to collagen. C) release of tissue factor by damaged endothelium. D) conversion of Factor X to prothrombinase. E) conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. Answer: D 112) The process of fibrinolysis A) activates fibrinogen. B) draws torn edges of damaged tissue closer together. C) dissolves clots. D) forms emboli. E) forms thrombi. Answer: C 113) The enzyme that can digest fibrin and dissolve a clot is A) thrombin. B) plasmin. C) heparin. D) fibrinase. E) phosphokinase. Answer: B 114) Tissue factor (Factor III) is a factor in the ________ pathway. A) extrinsic B) intrinsic C) common D) retraction E) fibrinolytic Answer: A 115) Plasma thromboplastin is a factor in the ________ pathway. A) extrinsic B) intrinsic C) common D) retraction E) fibrinolytic Answer: B 116) Some rat poisons contain a toxin that blocks the liver's ability to utilize vitamin K. Animals that consume this poison would die of A) anemia. B) acidosis. C) hemorrhage. D) thrombocytopenia. E) starvation. Answer: C 117) A substance that activates plasminogen might be useful to A) cause clots to form faster. B) cause clot dissolution to proceed faster. C) initiate clot formation. D) mimic heparin. E) recruit neutrophils to an infection. Answer: B 118) How would removal of calcium ions from a blood sample affect coagulation? A) the coagulation pathway would be more sensitive to activation B) coagulation would be prevented C) no important effect because magnesium can substitute for calcium D) coagulation would occur only in Rh positive individuals E) more blood cells would be produced Answer: B 119) Which of the following vitamins is needed for the formation of clotting factors? A) vitamin A B) vitamin B C) vitamin K D) vitamin D E) vitamin E Answer: C 120) A moving blood clot is called a(n) A) embolus. B) thrombus. C) plaque. D) procoagulant. E) platelet plug. Answer: A 121) Areas in a vessel wall where large quantities of lipid accumulate are called A) thrombi. B) emboli. C) plaques. D) clots. E) occlusions. Answer: C 122) People who suffer from hemophilia A fail to produce a functional Factor VIII; as a result A) they lack a functional intrinsic pathway. B) they lack a functional extrinsic pathway. C) they lack a functional common pathway. D) their coagulation times are much longer than normal. E) their coagulation times are too quick. Answer: A 123) What are common sources of vitamin K? A) green vegetables B) organ meats C) whole grains D) intestinal bacteria E) All of answers are correct. Answer: E 124) The conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin is catalyzed by the enzyme A) fibrinogen-converting enzyme. B) plasmin. C) factor VIII. D) thrombin. E) prothrombinase. Answer: D 125) A digestive disorder that impairs a person's ability to absorb vitamin K will result in A) low levels of prothrombin. B) low levels of Factor X. C) low levels of thromboplastin. D) prolonged bleeding. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Short Answer Questions 126) Approximately 45% of the blood volume is composed of the ________ . Answer: formed elements 127) After blood is fractionated, its components are ________ for the purpose of analysis. Answer: separated 128) Blood volume represents about ________ percent of a person's body weight. (Note: Be sure your answer is a numeral, e.g. '5' vs 'five'). Answer: 7 129) The most abundant plasma protein is ________. Answer: albumin 130) Proteins in the blood for defense are called ________. Answer: immunoglobulins or antibodies 131) The plasma protein involved in blood clotting is ________. Answer: fibrinogen 132) Reticulocytes complete their development into ________ in the circulation. Answer: erythrocytes (or RBCs or red blood cells) 133) ________ is responsible for the RBC's ability to transport oxygen and CO2. (Note: Be sure to capitalize the first letter of your answer). Answer: Hemoglobin 134) The condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood is reduced, owing to a low blood hemoglobin concentration, is called ________. Answer: anemia 135) Erythropoiesis is stimulated by a kidney-derived hormone called ________. Answer: erythropoietin (EPO) 136) Type A blood has ________ antibodies in the blood plasma. Answer: anti-B 137) Hormones called ________ are involved in regulation of white blood cell populations. Answer: colony-stimulating factors 138) The ________ is a procedure that is used to determine the number of each of the various types of white blood cells. Answer: differential count 139) Fifty to seventy percent of circulating white blood cells are ________ . Answer: neutrophils 140) The phase of hemostasis that involved clotting of blood is called ________. Answer: coagulation 141) A fibrin network that contains trapped blood cells and platelets is called a(n) ________. Answer: blood clot 142) Plasminogen is converted to its active form by an enzyme called ________. Answer: tissue plasminogen activator 143) Endothelial cells release ________ that stimulate smooth muscle contraction and accelerate the repair process. Answer: endothelins Essay Questions 144) Why do people with advanced kidney disease commonly become anemic? Answer: For three reasons: (1) Damaged kidneys produce less erythropoietin and so there is less stimulation of the marrow to produce RBCs. (2) Also, erythropoietin is more easily lost into the urine by leaky kidneys. (3) Finally, during dialysis treatment, the patient's erythropoietin is washed away. Treatment for kidney patients today includes injections of synthetic erythropoietin. 145) How does Rhogam prevent erythroblastosis fetalis (HDN, hemolytic disease of the newborn)? Answer: If a mother who is Rh negative carries a fetus who is Rh positive, she will make antibodies against its Rh positive RBCs after being exposed to the infant's blood during labor and delivery. By giving a dose of anti-Rh antibody (Rhogam) just before or after delivery, the fetal red cells will be agglutinated and removed from the mother's circulation before her immune system will have time to make anti-Rh antibodies that would endanger her next Rh-positive offspring. 146) Which of the formed elements would increase after the donation of a pint of blood?Answer: Reticulocytes would increase in number as additional numbers of immature RBCs move into the bloodstream to compensate for the reduction in blood volume.