Client Behavior, Motivation, and Anatomy for Personal Training

ISSA-Certified-Personal-TrainerProgram Question What is the definition of behavior? • An experience that a client will have with a trainer. • An event that has a beginning, middle, and end. • An action that can be observed, measured, and modified. • An action that builds rapport and community. What stage of change is someone in if they are in denial or ignorant to the fact that a change may be necessary? • Action • Pre-contemplation • Preparation • Maintenance What type of motivation is driven by personal enjoyment and satisfaction? • Extrinsic motivation • Intrinsic motivation • External motivation • Independent motivation Which psychological need in the Self-Determination Theory (SDT) is described as the basic need to feel in control of one's own behavior and goals? • Relatedness • Motivation • Autonomy • Competence Which of the following is an example of an open-ended question? • Have you ever seen a doctor for a heart condition? • Do you want to begin your fitness program today? • How did you first notice that you were gaining weight? • Is your favorite color blue?" What type of goal is focused on the necessary steps to achieve it? • Personal goal • Process goal • Private goal • Outcome goal What does the "A" in SMART goals stand for? • Achievable • Absurd • Associated • Addressing What type of goal is open to interpretation by the client as opposed to being supported by measurable data? • A SMART goal • A subjective goal • An objective goal • A motivational goal When communicating with clients, what type of communication must be constructive and effective to improve competence? • Introductions • Feedback • General conversation • Praise What stage of change is someone in if they are engaging in a new behavior and have been doing so for less than six months? • Action (the correct answer) • Precontemplation • Preparation • Maintenance Which human organ systems are responsible for human movement? • The Muscular System, Circulatory System, and Skeletal System • The Nervous System, Muscular System, and Endocrine System • The Muscular System, Digestive System, and Nervous System • The Nervous System, Muscular System, and Skeletal System Which classification of neurons initiate muscle contraction and activate glands? • Interneurons • Motor neurons • Sensory neurons • Dendrites What is the peripheral nervous system (PNS) responsible for? • Receiving sensory input and organizing, analyzing, and processing neural information. • Conveying motor commands, carrying sensory information to the CNS, and regulating involuntary functions. • Sending motor commands to muscle tissue, regulating voluntary functions, and creating reflexes. • Regulating involuntary functions, Sending motor signals to the muscles, and visual sensory interpretation. Where in the brain does most information processing occur? • Cerebrum • Cerebellum • Cerebral Cortex • Medulla oblongata Which type of muscle is the most common in the human body? • Skeletal muscle • Cardiac muscle • Smooth muscle • Autonomic muscle Which type of muscle fiber derives its energy primarily from aerobic energy pathways? • Type IIx muscle fibers • Type II b muscle fibers • Type IIa muscle fibers • Type I muscle fibers Which of the following is included in the appendicular skeleton? • Skull • Ribs • Shoulder girdle • Spine Which type of bone supports the weight of the body and facilitates movement? • Irregular bones • Sesamoid bones • Short bones • Long bones Answer An action that can be observed, measured, and modified. Pre-contemplation Intrinsic motivation Autonomy How did you first notice that you were gaining weight? Process goal Achievable A subjective goal Feedback Action The Nervous System, Muscular System, and Skeletal System Motor neurons Conveying motor commands, carrying sensory information to the CNS, and regulating involuntary functions. Cerebral Cortex Skeletal muscle Type I muscle fibers Shoulder girdle Long bones What does the Golgi tendon organ detect and respond to in the muscle? • The electrical activity of a muscle. • Changes in muscle tension. • Muscular time under tension. • The rate and force of muscle stretch. The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) and posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) are examples of what type of ligament? • Intrinsic ligaments • Extrinsic ligaments • Capsular ligaments • Elastic ligaments The heart and blood vessels are the components of which human organ system? • The Circulatory System • The Muscular System • The Endocrine System • The Respiratory System Blood vessels are comprised of which type of muscle tissue? • Type II muscle fibers • Cardiac muscle • Skeletal muscle • Smooth muscle Which blood vessels carry blood away from the heart? • Venules • Arteries • Veins • Capillaries Which heart chamber receives deoxygenated blood from the body? • Right atrium • Left atrium • Right ventricle • Left ventricle During the cardiac cycle, what is the name of the contraction phase of the heartbeat? • Systole • Fibrillation • Diastole • Arrythmia During exercise, which organ system regulates fluid volume and pressure in body tissues? • The Circulatory System • The Lymphatic System • The Endocrine System • The Integumentary System What is the process of external respiration? • The exchange of gases from the blood to the interstitial fluid and body tissues. • The exchange of gases in the chambers of the heart. • The exchange of gases from the arteries to the capillaries. The exchange of gases between the lungs and the blood in the lungs. Which endocrine hormone promotes the breakdown of protein in muscle cells? • Cortisol • Aldosterone • Glucagon • Insulin Which of the following is an effect of long-term cortisol elevation in the body? • Increases appetite • Enhances the brain's use of glucose • Reduces inflammation • Reduces unnecessary bodily functions during stress Which component of the digestive system performs both mechanical digestion and chemical digestion? • The liver • The small intestine • The mouth • The esophagus What anatomical term is described as a position closer to the center of the body relative to a reference point? • Distal • Proximal • Supine • Inferior Which anatomical term refers to a movement that increases the angle between two body parts? • Extension • Depression • Flexion • Circumduction Which anatomical plane divides the body into left and right halves? • Sagittal plane • Transverse plane • Rotational plane • Frontal plane Which of the following joints should have more mobility? • Lumbar spine • Knee • Cervical spine • Shoulder A medicine ball rolling across the floor is an example of what type of friction? • Gravitational friction • Rolling friction • Sliding friction • Static friction Which of the following is a muscle of the shoulder? • Subscapularis • Biceps femoris • Brachioradialis • External oblique Which three muscles make up the erector spinae group? • Longissimus, Spinalis, and Rhomboids • Spinalis, Longissimus, and Iliocostalis • Quadratus lumborum, Spinalis, and Multifidus • External obliques, Iliocostalis, and Spinalis What is the muscle action of the rectus femoris? • Internal rotation of the hip and flexion of the knee. • External rotation of the hip and adduction of the upper leg. • Extension of the hip and flexion of the knee. • Flexion of the hip and extension of the knee. What is the most superficial muscle of the posterior calf? • Gastrocnemius • Soleus • Tibialis anterior • Tibialis posterior What is the largest muscle of the chest? • Serratus anterior • Pectoralis major • Pectoralis minor • Subclavius Where in the cell do the Krebs cycle and electron transport chain occur? • Mitochondria • Nucleus • Cytoplasm • Lysosome What two values are required to calculate the respiratory quotient (RQ)? • Volume of carbon dioxide the lungs can hold, and volume of oxygen exhaled. • Volume of carbon dioxide inhaled, and volume of oxygen exhaled. • Volume of carbon dioxide exhaled, and volume of oxygen inhaled. • Volume of oxygen exhaled, and ATP created. What is the respiratory quotient (RQ) for carbohydrates? • 1.0 • 0.8 • 0.7 • 0.9 Changes in muscle tension. Intrinsic ligaments The Circulatory System Smooth muscle Arteries Right atrium Systole The Lymphatic System The exchange of gases between the lungs and the blood in the lungs. Cortisol Increases appetite The mouth Proximal Extension Sagittal plane Shoulder Rolling friction Subscapularis Spinalis, Longissimus, and Iliocostalis Flexion of the hip and extension of the knee. Gastrocnemius Pectoralis major Mitochondria Volume of carbon dioxide exhaled, and volume of oxygen inhaled. 1.0 Which energy pathway is dominant for activity generally lasting 10 seconds to 2 minutes? • Anaerobic glycolysis • ATP/CP • Oxidative energy pathway • Lactate What is the primary by-product of anaerobic glycolysis? • Water • Heat • Lactic acid • Hydrogen What is the point at which the body switches from metabolism requiring oxygen to primarily anaerobic metabolism called? • ATP threshold • Lactate threshold • Anaerobic threshold • Aerobic threshold The Krebs cycle and electron transport chain are steps in which energy pathway? • Anaerobic glycolysis • Oxidative energy pathway • ATP/CP • Gluconeogenesis How many Calories (Cal) per gram are in fat? • 3 Cal • 9 Cal • 4 Cal • 7 Cal The Harris-Benedict equation incorporates the resting metabolic rate and an activity level factor to determine what metabolic information? • Non-exercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) • Thermic effect of food (TEF) • Daily calorie expenditure (DCE) • Total exercise expenditure (TEE) What is the general recommendation for a daily calorie deficit for someone working to lose bodyfat? • 100 to 300 Calories • 200 to 500 Calories • 500 to 700 Calories • 600 to 800 Calories What type of client assessments are based on observations and opinions? • Subjective assessments • Body composition assessments • Objective assessments • Cognitive assessments What document should a personal trainer collect from a client to show they are ready to begin an exercise program and explain any restrictions or limitations they have? • Physician's letter of clearance • PAR-Q • Health history questionnaire • Liability waiver What does body composition measure? • Fat mass and lean body mass • Fat mass and total body water • Lean body mass and total body water • Lean body mass and bone mass What is the average bodyfat percentage for males? • 10 to 15 percent • 25 to 31 percent • 17 to 25 percent • 12 to 20 percent What type of muscular assessment is the push-up test? • Muscular strength assessment • Muscular size assessment • Muscular endurance assessment • Muscular metabolic assessment From bottom to top, what are the six kinetic chain checkpoints? • Foot and ankle, knee, hips, pelvis, head, neck • Foot and ankle, knee, hips, spine, shoulders, neck and head • Foot and ankle, knee, pelvis, shoulders, cervical spine, head • Foot and ankle, hips, lumbar spine, shoulders, cervical spine, nec Which spinal deviation is characterized by the excessive curvature of the thoracic spine? • Kyphosis • Lordosis • Sway back • Scoliosis What postural and movement deviation occurs when the knees excessively bow outward away from the midline? • Knee hyperextension • Knee flexion • Knee varus • Knee valgus During the overhead squat assessment, which of the following muscle is likely underactive (weak) if the heels elevate? • Gastrocnemius • Gluteus maximus • Soleus • Tibialis anterior During the squat or overhead squat assessment, which of the following muscles are likely overactive (tight) if knee valgus occurs? • Vastus medialis • Adductors • Gluteus maximus • Gastrocnemius Which of the five components of fitness is described as the physical makeup of the body considering fat mass and lean mass? • Cardiovascular endurance • Muscular strength • Flexibility • Body composition Which of the following is a known benefit of improving muscular strength? • Improves stamina • Helps regulate blood sugar • Increases bone density • Promotes brain health What type of warm-up is simple and aims to increase blood flow, respiration, body temperature, and neural activation of major muscle groups? • Dynamic warm-up • General warm-up • Static warm-up • No warm-up Which element of a fitness program trains the body to be explosive, fast, and agile? • Reactive training • Balance training • Cardiorespiratory training • Flexibility training What is the definition of agility as it relates to the element of reactive training? • The ability to react and change body position with maximum rate of force production • The ability to accelerate, decelerate, stabilize, and change direction with proper posture • The ability to move the body in one direction as fast as Anaerobic glycolysis Lactic acid Anaerobic threshold Oxidative energy pathway 9 Cal Daily calorie expenditure (DCE) 200 to 500 Calories Subjective assessments Physician's letter of clearance Fat mass and lean body mass 17 to 25 percent Muscular endurance assessment Foot and ankle, knee, hips, spine, shoulders, neck and head Kyphosis Knee varus Tibialis anterior Adductors Body composition Increases bone density General warm-up Reactive training The ability to accelerate, decelerate, stabilize, and change direction with proper posture possible • The ability to move a joint in a full range of motion without pain or impingement What type of cardiorespiratory training is performed at a fixed level of exertion? • Circuit training • High-intensity interval training • Interval training • Steady-state exercise Which of the following is a known benefit of interval training? • Strengthening of the left ventricle of the heart • Improvement in muscular coordination • Decreased oxidative capacity of skeletal muscles • Decreased average stroke volume of the heart Which of the five components of fitness is described as the measure of force produced by a muscle or group of muscles? • Muscular endurance • Muscular strength • Flexibility • Cardiovascular endurance Which of the following is a measure commonly used to determine the intensity of cardiorespiratory exercise? • Minimum heart rate • Rate of perceived exertion (RPE) • Respiration rate • Resting heart rate Which of the following is an adaptation from plyometric exercise? • Increased muscle size • Decreased muscle size • Decreased involuntary nervous reflexes • Decreased intermuscular coordination In fitness, what do acute training variables determine? • How an exercise or training program is performed. • When an exercise or training program is performed. • Why an exercise or training program is performed. • Where an exercise or training program is performed. Which acute training variable is the equipment, methods, or technique used to complete an activity? • Tempo • Frequency • Type • Time The load used for a resistance training exercise is most closely related to which actute training variable? • Intensity • Tempo • Range of motion • Type A training intensity of 67 percent or less is most closely related to which training adaptation? • Maximum strength • Hypertrophy • Muscular endurance • Power For the training adaptation of muscle hypertrophy, what is the recommended number of repetitions per set? • 1 to 6 repetitions • 6 to 12 repetitions • More than 15 repetitions • 1 to 5 repetitions What does the "F" in the FITT Principle stand for? • Frequency • Foundation • Flexibility • Fascial Which principle of fitness states that acute training variables must be changed periodically to prevent plateaus, injuries, and boredom? • Principle of specificity • Principle of individual differences • Principle of progressive overload • Principle of variability What is the final stage of the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS)? • Stimulus • Resistance • Alarm • Exhaustion Resistance training is included in which category of training? • Speed, agility, and quickness (SAQ) • Foundational training • Strength training • Metabolic training What condition is the result of the accumulation of stress from both training and non-training activities resulting in short-term decreases in performance? • Overreaching • Overtraining • Over-exhaustion • Overtraining syndrome (OTS) Which of the following is a known benefit of flexibility training? • Decreased balance • Decreased postural control • Decreased joint range of motion • Decreased chronic pain What is dynamic stretching? • Lengthening a muscle and holding the lengthened position • Movement-based active stretching where muscles engage to bring about a stretch • The activation of a muscle to actively stretch another muscle • The use of an external force to move a joint to the end of a range of motion In a flexibility training protocol, which of the following should be executed after a training session? • Static or pre-contraction stretching • Dynamic stretching • General warm-up • Specific warm-up What type of inhibition do myofascial release techniques rely on to decrease the excitability of muscle tissue? • Allosteric inhibition • Automatic inhibition • Autogenic inhibition • Autonomic inhibition Which type of stretching should mirror the movements that will be performed in an upcoming activity? • Static stretching • Passive stretching • Ballistic stretching • Dynamic stretching What term is defined as the measurement of movement around a specific joint or body part? • Range of motion • Resisted range of motion • Passive flexibility • Muscle action Steady-state exercise Strengthening of the left ventricle of the heart Muscular strength Rate of perceived exertion (RPE) Increased muscle size How an exercise or training program is performed. Type Intensity Muscular endurance 6 to 12 repetitions Frequency Principle of variability Exhaustion Strength training Overreaching Decreased chronic pain Movement-based active stretching where muscles engage to bring about a stretch Static or pre-contraction stretching Autogenic inhibition Dynamic stretching Range of motion Which of the following is an example of an active range of motion? • A physical therapist moving a client's shoulder through flexion and extension • A client moving their shoulder through flexion and extension • A client using a wall to stretch their pectoral muscles • A client using a stretching strap to stretch their hamstring What type of stretching uses bouncing and the momentum of the body or limb to force it beyond a normal range of motion? • Dynamic stretching • Static stretching • Ballistic stretching • Active stretching What are the two most important acute training variables related to flexibility training? • Intensity and time • Type and repetitions • Intensity and repetitions • Time and tempo In most cases, how long should a static stretch be held? • 90 to 120 seconds • 5 to 15 seconds • 60 to 90 seconds • 10 to 30 seconds Which of the following is a known benefit of cardiorespiratory training? • Improves sleep • Increases depression • Increases fatigue • Reduces mental acuity Which acute training variables are included in the FITT Principle as it relates to cardiorespiratory training? • Frequency, Intervals, Tempo, Time • Form, Intensity, Time, Type • Frequency, Intensity, Time, Type • Frequency, Intensity, Time Under Tension, Type What is a metabolic equivalent (MET)? • The quantitative and subjective measure of exertion during physical activity. • The measure of the ratio of a person's energy expenditure to their mass during physical activity. • The ratio of how the body is using carbohydrates compared to fats as a fuel source during exercise. • The ability to speak during exercise as a gauge of the relative intensity. According to the modified Rate of Perceived Exertion (RPE) chart, what intensity equates to maximum exertion during cardiorespiratory exercise? • RPE 1 • RPE 10 • RPE 5 to 6 • RPE 7 to 8 During cardiorespiratory training, how can speed be modified to increase training intensity? • Maintain speed • Increase speed • Reduce speed • Vary speed What vital capacity reading is considered low and a potential symptom of a respiratory problem? • Below 6,000 mL • Below 4,000 mL • Below 3,000 mL • Below 5,000 mL Which of the following activities has a MET value between 3.0 and 6.0? • Brisk walk (3.5 to 4 mph) • Competitive soccer • Yoga • Sitting at a desk What does (1) MET equal to? • A person's heart rate when at rest. • A person's breathing rate when at rest. • A person's metabolic rate during exercise. • A person's metabolic rate when at rest. What other cardiorespiratory efficiency measure can be estimated by the ventilatory threshold? • Maximum heart rate • Lactate threshold • Anaerobic threshold • Glucose threshold The formula 220 minus age is commonly used to estimate what cardiorespiratory information? • Maximum heart rate • Ventilatory threshold • Vital capacity • V02 max Which strength category is defined as a combination of strength and speed? • Power • Maximum strength • Starting strength • Relative strength Strength training has been found to reduce which resting biological measure? • Resting breathing rate • Resting metabolic rate • Resting heart rate • Resting blood pressure Which strength curve most accurately represents a squatting exercise? • Bellshaped strength curve • Descending strength curve • Flat strength curve • Ascending strength curve What type of foundational exercises promote overall strength adaptations without necessarily translating to performance or skill development? • General exercises • Accessory exercises • Compound exercises • Specific exercises During a taper, how much should training volume be reduced while exercise intensity remains at or above competition (maximal) levels? • 50 to 80 percent reduction in training volume • 70 to 80 percent reduction in training volume • 10 to 20 percent reduction in training volume • 30 to 70 percent reduction in training volume For resistance training, how is intensity expressed? • Percentage of maximum breathing rate • Percentage of target heart rate • Percentage of 1RM • Percentage of maximum heart rate A client moving their shoulder through flexion and extension Ballistic stretching Intensity and time 10 to 30 seconds Improves sleep Frequency, Intensity, Time, Type The measure of the ratio of a person's energy expenditure to their mass during physical activity. RPE 10 Increase speed Below 3,000 mL Brisk walk (3.5 to 4 mph) A person's metabolic rate when at rest. Lactate threshold Maximum heart rate Power Resting blood pressure Ascending strength curve General exercises 30 to 70 percent reduction in training volume Percentage of 1RM What training goal is promoted when resistance training intensity is below 67 percent of 1RM? • Muscular endurance • Maximum strength • Power • Hypertrophy During resistance training, what sub-variable is related to exercise type? • Tempo • Grip • Intensity • Time under tension Which of the following is equipment with variable resistance? • Resistance band • Kettlebell • Barbell • Dumbbell Which of the following is an example of a static resistance exercise? • Squat • Bench press • Plank • Biceps curl What is an exercise progression? • Modifications to acute training variables that increase the challenge of a movement pattern. • Modifications to acute training variables that decrease the challenge of a movement pattern. • Modifications to acute training variables that expedite training adaptations. • Modifications to acute training variables that make an exercise impossible to execute. Body language, spatial relations, and paralanguage are all examples of what type of communication? • Verbal communication • Visual communication • Nonverbal communication • Kinesthetic communication What type of learner learns best when they can see the information being taught? • Visual learners • Kinesthetic learners • Auditory learners • Fast learners Which if the following is advised when giving verbal cues to increase client understanding? • Use anatomical terminology. • Give constant feedback. • Speak quickly. • Use simplified language. Which of the following exercises is categorized as a hinge movement? • Deadlift • Push up • Squat • Biceps curl Which movement category includes upper body exercises in which the arms themselves or the arms and a tool are moved away from the body? • Squat • Hinge • Push • Pull What is the agonist at the shoulder during an upper body vertical pulling movement? • Posterior deltoid • Latissimus dorsi • Pectoralis major • Trapezius What type of exercises are often single-joint movements that can promote muscular adaptations like strength and hypertrophy? • Activation exercises • Isolation exercises • Isometric exercises • Compound exercises Which movement dysfunction occurs when a synergist muscle takes over a movement pattern when an agonist fails? • Synergistic dominance • Altered arthrokinematics • Altered kinetics • Muscle synergies According to the study of proxemics, what is considered a personal distance between two people? • 4 to 12 feet • 12 to 20 feet • 0 to 18 inches • 1.5 to 4 feet Which category of nutrients protect the body from free radicals and the cellular damage they cause? • Macronutrients • Protein • Electrolytes • Antioxidants In which of the following ways can a certified personal trainer help a client with nutrition? • Offer general nutrition guidance and recommendations. • Write meal plans that support the client's fitness goals. • Diagnose a food allergy for a client. • Give nutrition advice to treat a client's chronic health condition. Which type of carbohydrate is broken down and converted to energy in the body the quickest? • Simple carbohydrates • Fiber • Complex carbohydrates • Raw carbohydrates Which of the following is an example of a complex carbohydrate? • Fruit • White bread • Starchy vegetables • Candy Which type of fats have been found to increase an individual's risk for coronary artery disease when consumed in excess? • Polyunsaturated fat • Trans fat • Monounsaturated fat • Omega-3 fatty acid Which of the following foods has the highest number of grams of fat per 100 grams of food? • Plain yogurt • Cashews • Cheesecake • Vegetable oil Approximately what percentage of the average adult's total body weight is water? • 60 percent • 75 percent • 80 percent • 55 percent Which of the following is the recommended portion size for a serving of protein for a male? • One fist • Two thumbs • Two palms • One palm Which of the following is the recommended portion size for a serving of fats for a female? • One palm • Two thumbs • One fist • One thumb What are nutritional limiting factors? • The limited availability of nutritious foods to some clients who live in food deserts. • The nutritional choices a client makes that keep them from making progress or seeing results. • The limited nutritional Muscular endurance Grip Resistance band Plank Modifications to acute training variables that increase the challenge of a movement pattern. Nonverbal communication Visual learners Use simplified language. Deadlift Push Latissimus dorsi Isolation exercises Synergistic dominance 1.5 to 4 feet Antioxidants Offer general nutrition guidance and recommendations Simple carbohydrates Starchy vegetables Trans fat Vegetable oil 60 percent Two palms One thumb The nutritional choices a client makes that keep them options available to a client who cannot afford fresh foods. • The nutritional choices a client makes that drives fitness success and promotes optimal health. Which of the following is an example of a performance supplement? • Vitamin D • Biotin • Multivitamin • Creatine monohydrate Which of the following animal-based protein sources has the highest bioavailability in the human body? • Whey protein isolate • Beef • Chicken • Casein isolate Which of the following is a good source of Vitamin C? • Brussel sprouts • Seafood • Sunlight • Nuts and seeds Which of the following is a food source of the mineral calcium? • Dairy • Rye • Olives • Turkey Which of the following is a function of sodium in the body? • Immune function • Fluid balance • Reproduction • Fat metabolism According to the World Health Organization, what is one of the most common nutrient deficiencies worldwide? • Iron deficiency • Calcium deficiency • Vitamin C deficiency • Vitamin A deficiency Which of the following is a food source of vitamin E? • Citrus • Fish • Peanuts • Eggs Where in the digestive tract are amino acids absorbed? • The large intestine • The ascending colon • The stomach • The small intestine When selecting a multivitamin, what information should be considered? • Sex and height • Sex and age • Age and height • Eating pattern and age In a normal, healthy adult, what percent of food consumed is absorbed in the GI tract? • 75 percent • 50 percent • 95 percent • 80 percent What minimum consistent blood pressure reading is associated with the condition of hypertension? • 120/80 mm Hg • 130/80 mm Hg • 140/90 mm Hg • 120/90 mm Hg What chronic disease was the DASH diet created to combat? • High blood pressure • Type 2 diabetes • Heart disease • Dementia What is the role of insulin in the human body? • Insulin binds to adipose tissue and promotes the release of glycogen from the cells. • Insulin promotes gastric emptying and the breakdown of macronutrients. • Insulin binds to cells and restricts the uptake of glucose from the blood. • Insulin binds to target cells and promotes the uptake of glucose from the blood. What condition is characterized as a degenerative joint disease caused by wear and tear on the joints? • Osteoarthritis (OA) • Fibromyalgia (FM) • Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) • Gout Which of the following exercises are recommended for a client with arthritis? • Swimming, yoga, interval training, and circuit training. • Running, stair-climbing, high-impact aerobics, and calisthenics. • Cycling, swimming, group exercise class, and brisk walking. • High-intensity interval training, cycling, jogging, and kickboxing. What is the definition of the heart condition of cardiomyopathy? • Narrowing of the coronary arteries. • The enlargement and stiffening of the heart. • Weakness of the heart muscle that reduces blood flow. • Narrowing or stiffness of the blood vessels in the extremities. Which chronic health condition can be caused by pollen, mold, smoke, and air pollution? • Arthritis • Heart disease • Diabetes • Asthma What is the most common symptom of coronary artery disease (CAD)? • Dizziness • Angina • Skin discoloration • Shortness of breath Which of the following joints in the body are commonly affected by the condition of Gout? • Lesser toe joints, ankle, and knee. • Big toe joint, knee, and elbow. • Ankle, hips, and shoulder. • Big toe joint, hips, and elbow. Which arthritic condition is an autoimmune disorder? • Rheumatoid arthritis • Gout • Osteoarthritis • Fibromyalgia At what age may youth begin implementing circuit training and strength exercises with light free weights and low intensity? • 7 to 8 years • 11 to 14 years • 15 to 18 years • 10 to 13 years Approximately what percentage of adults over the age of 65 are living with at least one chronic health condition? • 40 percent • 30 percent • 80 percent • 60 percent from making progress or seeing results. Creatine monohydrate Whey protein isolate Brussel sprouts Dairy Fluid balance Iron deficiency Peanuts The small intestine Sex and age 95 percent 140/90 mm Hg High blood pressure Insulin binds to target cells and promotes the uptake of glucose from the blood. Osteoarthritis (OA) Cycling, swimming, group exercise class, and brisk walking. The enlargement and stiffening of the heart. Asthma Angina Lesser toe joints, ankle, and knee. Rheumatoid arthritis 11 to 14 years 80 percent Which type of exercise is recommended to prevent osteoporosis in older adults? • Resistance training • Balance training • Flexibility training • Cardiorespiratory training For senior populations, what does the back scratch fitness assessment measure? • Muscular strength • Hand-eye coordination • Lower body flexibility • Upper body flexibility What is the general physical activity recommendation for pregnant women assuming no medical conditions are present? • 30 minutes of moderate-intensity exercise and one day of strengthening exercise weekly. • 150 minutes of moderate-intensity exercise and three days of strengthening exercise weekly. • 75 minutes of moderate-intensity exercise and three days of strengthening exercise weekly. • 100 minutes of moderate-intensity exercise and two days of strengthening exercise weekly. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for a pregnant client? • Premature labor • Morbid obesity • Orthopedic limitations • Severe anemia Exercise programming for a pregnant client should focus on what fitness outcome(s)? • Maintaining current health status • Fat loss • Performance improvement • Muscle gain Approximately what percentage of the world's population has a condition that disables them? • 5 percent • 25 percent • 15 percent • 30 percent Which of the following is a physiological change that occurs in pregnant women that can affect how they exercise? • Respiratory rate decreases. • Elasticity of muscles, tendons, and ligaments decreases. • Lung capacity increases. • Resting heart rate increases. Which fitness assessment for senior populations measures the amount of time needed for an individual to stand up from a seated position and walk eight feet? • Chair sit and reach • Eight foot up and go • Two-minute step test • 30-second chair stand Which style of personal training utilizes both in-person and virtual training? • Virtual training • Hybrid training • Small group training • Group exercise Which style of personal training utilizes videos, live streaming, websites, and chat forums to deliver training content? • Buddy training • Small group training • Inperson training • Virtual training When utilizing emails to communicate with clients, what is the ideal length of an email? • 50 to 125 words • 75 to 200 words • 300 to 500 words • 150 to 225 words In email marketing, what is a strategic email? • An email that explains the trainer's mission, philosophies, and more about themselves. • An email used to engage with clients and prospects and build rapport. • An email series that presents an offer or promotion for a limited time. • A series of emails that gather client information and assessments to begin a training program. In email marketing, what is an onboarding email? • An email that explains the trainer's mission, philosophies, and more about themselves. • An email used to engage with clients and prospects and build rapport. • An email series that presents an offer or promotion for a limited time. • A series of emails that gather client information and assessments to begin a training program. Under the scope of practice for a personal trainer, which of the following may a certified personal trainer assist clients with? • Treating a chronic health issue • General nutrition guidance • Meal planning • Treating injuries In marketing, what is the phrase "Sign up now!" an example of? • Call to service • Lead enticement • Call to action • Request for purchase When identifying a target market, what is the fictional person that represents a trainer's preferred clientele known as? • Client persona • Client form • Desired client • Optimal market Which style of personal training is often choreographed? • Small group training • Buddy training • Group exercise • Large group training Which style of personal training requires a fitness professional to consider camera quality, lighting, and the available exercise equipment? • In-person training • Small group training • Large group training • Virtual training According to the CDC, what is the definition of disinfecting? • Cleaning and killing germs on surfaces to bring the microbe level to an acceptable range. • Removing dirt and impurities from a surface with a detergent and water. • Killing germs and viruses on surfaces with the use of chemicals. • Removing stains from surfaces and clothing. Resistance training Upper body flexibility 150 minutes of moderateintensity exercise and three days of strengthening exercise weekly. Premature labor Maintaining current health status 15 percent Resting heart rate increases. Eight foot up and go Hybrid training Virtual training 50 to 125 words An email that explains the trainer's mission, philosophies, and more about themselves. A series of emails that gather client information and assessments to begin a training program. General nutrition guidance Call to action Client persona Group exercise Virtual training Killing germs and viruses on surfaces with the use of chemicals. To receive a personal training certification, what additional certification is required? • CPR/ AED • First aid • Nutrition • Injury prevention What type of injury develops slowly and is persistent? • Abrasion • Bone break • Acute injury • Chronic injury Which of the following is often included in a first aid kit? • Pencils • Adhesive bandages • Lip balm • Heating pad Which of the following emergency situations requires a fitness professional to call 911 immediately? • Low blood sugar • A minor cut • An unconscious person • Headache What type of acute injury occurs in a muscle? • Sprain • Strain • Fracture • Dislocation Which of the following emergency situations requires a fitness professional to call 911 immediately? • Chest pain • A bruise • A minor cut • Elevated heart rate What tool in a first aid kit can be used to remove debris from a wound? • Tweezers • First aid tape • Thermometer • Analgesics What should every location where exercise is performed have posted or available for patrons and employees? • Instructions for using exercise equipment • A staff directory • An emergency exit plan • The manager on duty What serious health situation occurs when the body is unable to regulate its temperature? • Headache • Heat stroke • Heart attack • Stroke CPR/ AED Chronic injury Adhesive bandages An unconscious person Strain Chest pain Tweezers An emergency exit plan Heat stroke