Immunology And Infectious Disease Mcq Week 3 Study Guide Questions

IMMUNOLOGY AND INFECTIOUS DISEASE MCQ WEEK 3 STUDY GUIDE QUESTIONS 1. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? A. When phagosomes and lysosomes fuse together, they form a phagolysosome. B. Macrophages, dendritic cells, B cells and neutrophils are non-professional antigen presenting cells. C. Neutrophils can destroy the bacteria they phagocytose via two mechanisms. D. Upon the apoptosis of a neutrophil, and when the histone is leaked, it can bind to foreign antigens. E. Neutrophil extracellular traps work by an oxidative bursting mechanism. Answer: B 2. Mycolic acid of mycobacteria is located in which part of the bacteria? A. B. C. D. E. Nucleus. Cytoplasm. Cell wall. Plasmid. Mitochondria. Answer: C 3. Which of the following statements if INCORRECT about bacteria? A. F+ ve bacteria is a bacterium that that has plasmin and F-ve is bacteria that does not have plasmin. B. A pilus can act as a little tunnel that transports structures like plasmids from one bacterium to another. C. Plasmids induce the synthesis of enzymes such as beta lactamase which destroy the beta lactams in penillcin which ultimately causes penicillin resistance. D. Forespore is that part of the vegetative cell that contains the daughter DNA after replication and the mother and daughter DNA separate and move different poles. Answer: D 4. Immunosuppressants can be used to treat diseases that involve hyper immune system stimulation. Choose the answer option that contains the INCORRECT mechanism action of the immunosuppressive drug. A. Decongestants contain epinephrine which acts as an alpha agonist on blood vessels in the turbinate in the nose causing them to become vasoconstrictor. Because the area is heavy in vasculature, constriction will cause decreased airway resistance. B. Ipratropium Bromide (Atrovent) is a non-selective muscarinic antagonist causing inhibition of the Gq pathway thereby decreasing the formation of IP3 and DAG which decrease intercellular ca2+ concentration which causes vasoconstriction and inhibit activation of the submucosal glands to decrease mucus production. C. Nasal corticosteroids are the first line treatment for persistent allergic rhinitis. They work by altering the transcription factors down regulating the COX pathway and other inflammatory pathways and thus decrease immune response. D. In allergen immunotherapy there is an increase in the production of IgG4 which inhibit the binding and actions of IgE. This will decrease the activation of mast cells causing them to degranulate less. E. Tezepelumab is a IgG2 anti-TSLP human monoclonal antibody that acts on the upstream response which decreases the activation of professional antigen presenting cells and thus prevent the maturation of lymphocytes. Answer: B (because Atrovent acts on type 3 muscarinic receptors and not the other types, apart form this the rest of the explanation given in the answer option is correct). 5. Glycopeptide antibiotics are a type of cell wall synthesis antibiotics. The mechanism of action of these: A. Binding to penicillin binding protein which activates otolytic enzymes what will break and cut peptide and glycoside bonds. This will cause destruction of the cell wall. They also inhibit transpeptidase which will cause a decrease in the cross linkage of peptidases which will also disturb the cell wall and cause cell lysis. B. Binds to the COO- terminus of the bacteria protein. This will prevent COO- from forming a bond with the NH3 terminus. This will cause cell wall destruction and consequently cell lysis. C. Inhibits mycolic acid which disturb cell wall and thus cell lysis. D. Go through bacterial cells which binds to nitrofine reductase which will cause the formation of a very active intermediate complex that will damage the cell wall and cause destruction and synthesis inhibition of RNA, DNA and proteins. E. Acts on the 50S subunit of ribosomes which prevents the elongation of mRNA cause decreased protein synthesis in the bacteria, thereby decreasing its’s survival and thus death of the cell. Answer: B 6. A regurgitation murmur may be seen in infective endocarditis because: A. Destruction of the mitral valve perivalvular tissue, which causes the leaflets to be pulled away from each other causing a murmur. B. Classification of the mitral valves which causes a murmur to be heard as blood flows. C. Inflammation of the pericardium that causes excess fluid buildup, which then contributes to hearing a murmur. D. All of the above E. None of the above Answer: A 7. Klebsiella Pneumoniae is classified as what type of pathogen: A. B. C. D. E. Bacillus Neisseria Clostridium Enterobacteriaceae Cutaneous mycosis Answer: D 8. What antigen is detected for a patient who is HIV positive? A. B. C. D. P24 Gp120 CCR5 CXCR4 Answer: A 9. Which of the following bacilli pathogen, is classified as a gram-negative opportunistic pathogen? A. B. C. D. E. Bordetella Pertussis Legionella Pnuemophilia Listeria Monocytogenes Corynebacterium diphtheriae Pseudomonas Aeruginosa Answer: E 10. Lupus is an example of an autoimmune diseases mediated by which type of hypersensitivity? A. B. C. D. Type I hypersensitivity. Type II hypersensitivity. Type III hypersensitivity. Type IV hypersensitivity. Answer: C 11. There are various types of soft tissue and skin infections. The skin infection that penetrates the epidermis and dermis only is known as: A. B. C. D. E. Cellulitis Folliculitis Impetigo Erysipelas Necrotising fasciitis. Answer: D 12. What is the main feature in which the types of streptococcus pathogens are classified based on: A. Whether they are in pairs or in chains. B. C. D. E. If they are facultative or not. Lancefield groups. Sensitivity to heat. If they are alpha or beta haemolytic. Answer: C 13. The most common causative pathogen impetigo is: A. B. C. D. S. pyrogens. S. Aurus. E. coli. Neisseria Answer: A 14. Which of the following is TURE about STIs? A. N. gonnarehea has virulence factors such as fimbriae, IgA proteases, adhesions and LPO. These will allow the adhesion to mucosal cell surfaces and thus its’ entry. B. Syphilis divides and triggers an immune response slowly of which at first it starts as a papule which breaks down to form a painless ulcer and if left untreated it can spread via the lymphatics. C. When a patient is receiving treatment for syphilis they cannot have sexual contact for the next 7 days. D. Chlamydia is the most communicable disease in Australia and it can be diagnosed via first pass urine. E. All of the above. Answer: E 15. All of the following diseases maybe caused by adenovirus EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. E. Pharyngitis Conjunctivitis Colds Haemorrhagic cysts Meningitis Answer: E 16. Choose the option of which type of vasculitis causes the following presentation. A. B. C. D. E. Lymphoblastic vasculitis. IgA vasculitis. Large vessel vasculitis. Necrotizing vasculitis. Cryoglobulinemia. Answer: B 17. Which of the following patients is most at risk of developing a gas gangrene? A. B. C. D. E. Someone who travels to developed countries. Someone who consumes large number of carbonated drinks. A diabetic patient. A newborn child. None of the above. Answer: C 18. A scalded syndrome is most likely to occur in: A. B. C. D. Diabetic patient. An IV drug user. Working in the health care field. A baby. Answer: D 19. Which pathogen after the introduction of a vaccine for it, it because a lesser cause of croup? A. B. C. D. RSV Parainfluenza. Adenovirus. C. Diphtheria. Answer: D 20. Croup is characterised by: A. B. C. D. Acute laryngotracheitis. Chronic laryngotracheitis. Inflammation of the lung parenchyma An increase in the ventilation and perfusion ration. Answer: A 21. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about otitis externa? A. If it is acute, it is more likely to be due to an ear drum issue. B. If it is chronic, it is more likely to be due to a swimmer’s ear infection. C. A metastasis is more likely to be caused due an invasive necrotizing infection of P. aeruginosa. D. All of the above. Answer: C 22. Otitis media do NOT involve: A. B. C. D. E. Inflammation of the mucosa of the middle ear. Effusion due to an accumulation of fluid in the middle layer of the ear. If there is an effusion in the middle, it is associated with inflammation. Tinnitus, chronic perforation and hearing loss are complications of an acute otitis media. Effusion without inflammation usually follows allergy or barotrauma (physical damage of tissue due to pressure difference). Answer: C 23. Acute otitis media is most common in: A. B. C. D. First 3 years of life. Swimming athletes. Adults who work in health care. The elderly Answer: A 24. A patient with acute bronchitis is most likely to present with: A. B. C. D. E. Pleuritic chest pain. Dry cough progressing to a productive cough with a rusty sputum. Sweat, nausea and fatigue. Sudden onset of chills. All of the above. Answer: E 25. The most common cause of community acquired pneumonia is: A. B. C. D. S. pneumonia. Legionella species. Mycoplasma pneumonia. Chlamydia pneumonia. Answer: A 26. As someone grows older, the risk of all the following increases EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. Asthma Fold allergy Eczema Rhinitis Answer: D 27. All of the pathogens below are enteric pathogens. Which of these are NOT part of the normal human flora? A. B. C. D. E. coli Klebsiella Pneumonia Salmonella None of the above Answer: C 28. In what stage of the Lyme’s disease is their hypertrophy of the synovial joints? A. B. C. D. E. Stage 1 Stage 2 Stage 3 In all stages. In none of the stages. Answer: C 29. Which of the following viruses is known as the most complex animal virus, is classed as a single stranded and has a high affinity for cytoplasm of epidermal and subcutaneous cells? A. B. C. D. Poxvirus Smallpox virus Monkeypox Cowpox Answer: A 30. The virus that is usually confined to the hands only is known as: A. B. C. D. Smallpox. Poxvirus. Monkeypox Cowpox Answer: D 31. Where are does T cell maturation take place? A. B. C. D. E. In the cortex of the thymus. In the medulla of the thymus. In the bone marrow. White bulb of the spleen. Red bulb of the spleen, Answer: A 32. The gold standard for taking a urine sample for analysis without cross contamination is: A. B. C. D. Asking the patient to urinate in a container in a toilet of the clinic. Performing a suprapubic aspiration of the bladder. Getting the urine out via a urinary catheter. All of the above are about the same. Answer: B 33. The study of choice of detecting physiological or anatomical factors associated with a complicated UTI is: A. B. C. D. E. Suprapubic aspiration. Hematocytometry. CT MRI X-ray Answer: CT - Important note: MRIs don’t perform well here 34. Contagious crust is seen in which of the following skin and soft tissue infections? A. B. C. D. Impetigo Erysipelas Cellulitis Necrotising fasciitis Answer: A 35. Scarlet fever is more likely to be caused due to: A. B. C. D. S. aures S. pyrogens S. pneumonia A and B Answer: B 36. Rheumatic fever can be caused by S. pyrogens. It most commonly follows: A. B. C. D. Clinical pharyngitis Sub clinical pharyngitis Acute pharyngitis Chronic pharyngitis