Practice Test Questions for Chapter 17 on Blood

1 Practice Test Questions for Chapter 17 on Blood 1) Which of the following is NOT a function of the blood? A) regulation of blood volume and pH of body tissues B) thermoregulation C) transport of oxygen, nutrients and metabolic waste products D) protection against blood loss and microbial pathogens E) All of the answers are correct 2) What is the normal pH range of blood? A) 6.65 - 6.75 B) 7.35 - 7.45 C) 7.75 - 7.85 D) 8.35 - 8.45 3) How much blood does the average adult have? A) 1.5 L B) 3 L C) 5 L D) 7 L 4) Blood volume represents about ________ percent of a person's body weight. A) 7 B) 15 C) 20 D) 25 E) 42 5) What forms the majority of whole blood? A) plasma B) platelets C) buffy coat D) leukocytes E) erythrocytes 6) Plasma composes about ________ percent of whole blood and water composes ________ percent of the plasma volume. A) 55; 90 B) 92; 7 C) 92; 55 D) 45; 55 E) 50; 50 7) When blood is centrifuged, which of the following is found in the buffy coat? A) leukocytes B) erythrocytes C) platelets D) plasma E) all of the above F) A and C G) C and D 2 8) What percentage of the blood is composed of plasma? A) 75% B) 45% C) 15% D) 55% 9) The most abundant component of plasma is A) ions. B) proteins. C) water. D) gases. E) nutrients. 10) Which of the following statements about blood is FALSE? A) Blood contains buffers that control pH. B) The normal pH of blood is 6.8 to 7.0. C) Blood is more viscous than water. D) Blood is about 55 percent plasma. E) Most blood cells do not have a nucleus or other organelles. 11) Each of the following is a characteristic of whole blood, except a A) temperature of approximately 38 degrees Celsius. B) viscosity about the same as water. C) pH of 7.4. D) built-in system for clotting. E) red color from hemoglobin. 12) The chief difference between plasma and interstitial fluid involves the concentration of A) water. B) electrolytes. C) nitrogen wastes. D) proteins. E) glucose. 13) A centrifuged sample of blood shows 53% plasma, 1% buffy coat, and 46% erythrocytes. What percent of the blood is composed of leukocytes and platelets? A) 1% B) 46% C) 47% D) 53% 14) The hematocrit is the percentage of blood composed of: A) erythrocytes B) plasma C) leukocytes D) platelets E) C and D 15) The combination of plasma and formed elements is called A) serum. B) lymph. C) whole blood. D) extracellular fluid. E) packed blood. 3 16) The hematocrit of a healthy person is most likely to be A) 30 B) 45 C) 60 D) 70 17) Formed elements make up about what percentage of blood? A) 55 percent B) 30 percent C) 60 percent D) 45 percent E) 20 percent 18)Which of the following is not one of the formed elements of blood? A) erythrocytes B) platelets C) albumin D) lymphocytes E) basophils 19) Whole blood for testing in a clinical laboratory is usually collected from A) the heart. B) a superficial artery. C) a superficial vein. D) a capillary. E) an arteriole. 20) Each of the following is a characteristic of whole blood, except a A) temperature of approximately 38 degrees Celsius. B) viscosity about the same as water. C) pH of 7.4. D) built-in system for clotting. E) red color from hemoglobin. 21) What organ produces most of the plasma proteins? A) lung B) pancreas C) liver D) spleen E) kidney 22) What plasma protein is most important for the blood's colloid osmotic pressure? A) transport proteins B) albumin C) antibodies D) collagen 23) Which statement best describes red blood cells? A) Red blood cells have a nucleus and most organelles. B) Red blood cells live about 10 days. C) Red blood cells form antibodies to fight antigens. D) Red blood cells possess a protein known as hemoglobin. 4 24) What type of plasma protein are antibodies? A) transport protein B) globulin C) lipoprotein D) clotting protein E) albumin F) fibrinogen 25) Iron molecules released from the breakdown of hemoglobin are transported through the blood by: A) vitamin B12. B) transferrin. C) antibodies. D) albumin E) ferritin 26) The most abundant plasma protein is ________. A) globulins B) fibrinogen C) albumin D) bilirubin E) lipoproteins 27) The function of red blood cells is to A) carry oxygen from the cells to the lungs. B) carry carbon dioxide from the lungs to the body's cells. C) carry nutrients from the digestive system to the body's cells. D) defend the body against infectious organisms. E) carry oxygen to the cells and then carry away carbon dioxide. 28) Which of the following statements concerning red blood cells is false? A) Red cells are biconcave discs. B) Red cells lack mitochondria. C) Red cells are about 18 µm in diameter. D) Red cells are specialized for carrying oxygen. E) Red cells live for about 100-120 days. 29) Which of the following is NOT a structural characteristic that contributes to erythrocyte gas transport functions? A) biconcave shape B) few organelles provide room for more hemoglobin C) produces energy anaerobically D) mitotically active 30) When a person who lives at sea level vacations in the Rocky Mountains, you would expect A) a drop in atmospheric oxygen levels. B) the release of erythropoietin. C) a rise in hematocrit. D) an increase in red blood cell production. E) All of the answers are correct. 5 31) Select the correct statement regarding blood cell formation. A) The main sites of blood cell production in adults are the spleen and the liver. B) Before the seventh month of fetal development, yellow marrow is the main site of blood cell formation. C) Red marrow is the main site of blood cell formation throughout adult life. D) Yellow marrow is the main site of leukocyte formation. 32) More than 95 percent of the protein in a red blood cell is A) albumin. B) porphyrin. C) hemoglobin. D) immunoglobulin. E) fibrinogen. 33) The function of hemoglobin is to A) carry dissolved blood gases. B) carry bicarbonate ion. C) aid in the process of blood clotting. D) produce antibodies. E) stimulate erythropoiesis. 34) Each heme ring in hemoglobin encloses an atom of A) magnesium. B) calcium. C) iron. D) sodium. E) copper. 35) Each hemoglobin molecule can transport _______ molecules of oxygen. A) one B) two C) three D) four 36) In a hemoglobin molecule, oxygen binds directly to _________. A) the globin polypeptides B) the heme pigments C) iron D) ferritin 37) Excess iron is stored in the liver and spleen as A) transferrin. B) hemosiderin. C) ferritin. D) hemoglobin. E) hemosiderin and ferritin. 38) Which of the choices below is the stem cell for all formed elements of blood? A) normoblast B) lymphoblast C) hematopoietic stem cell D) polymorphonuclear stem cells E) myeloid stem cell 6 39) What organ serves as the control center for the regulation of erythropoiesis? A) liver B) kidney C) spleen D) pancreas E) lung 40) The process of red blood cell production is called A) erythrocytosis. B) erythropenia. C) hemocytosis. D) erythropoiesis. E) hematopenia. 41) Red blood cell production is regulated by the hormone A) thymosin. B) angiotensin. C) erythropoietin. D) M-CSF. E) renin. 42) All the circulating red blood cells in an adult originate in the A) heart. B) thymus. C) spleen. D) red bone marrow. E) lymph tissue. 43) Which of the following might trigger erythropoiesis? A) decreased tissue demand for oxygen B) an increased number of RBCs C) moving to a lower altitude D) Blood oxygen levels fall below normal. 44) Bilirubin comes from the breakdown of ________. A) globin chains of hemoglobin. B) amino acids of hemoglobin. C) heme molecules of hemoglobin that lack iron. D) iron ions found in hemoglobin molecules. 45) If bile ducts are blocked, A) more bilirubin appears in the plasma. B) bilirubin appears in the saliva. C) more hemolysis takes place. D) more red blood cells are produced. E) more white blood cells are produced. 46) The waste product bilirubin is produced from A) globin chains of hemoglobin. B) heme molecules plus iron. C) heme molecules lacking iron. D) iron found in hemoglobin molecules. E) abnormal proteins found in red blood cells. 7 47) Most of the iron that is removed from degraded hemoglobin is A) excreted by the kidneys. B) excreted by the liver. C) excreted by the intestines. D) recycled to the red bone marrow. E) stored in yellow bone marrow. 48) The organ sometimes called the “graveyard of red blood cells” is the A) yellow bone marrow B) spleen C) kidney D) red bone marrow 49) The average life span of a red blood cell is A) 24 hours. B) 1 month. C) 3 - 4 months. D) about 1 year. E) many years. 50) ________ is a condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood is reduced. A) Polycythemia B) Leukemia C) Anemia D) Leukopenia E) Thrombocytopenia 51) Which of the following types of anemia is due to a genetic mutation? A) Pernicious anemia B) Hemolytic anemia C) Sickle-cell anemia D) Aplastic anemia 52) The disease sickle cell anemia is an example of what can happen if A) the diet is deficient in iron. B) there is insufficient heme in the hemoglobin. C) a gene for adult hemoglobin is abnormal. D) red blood cells bind too much oxygen. E) hemolysis is prevented by a mutated gene. 53) Which of the following is NOT TRUE about pernicious anemia? A) Commonly caused by autoimmune disease B) Patients lack intrinsic factor. C) Patients have a deficiency in vitamin B12. D) It is most often treated by having patients increase their dietary intake of iron. 54) Eileen is a strict vegan and therefore eats no animal products. She develops an anemia that her doctor thinks is caused by a nutritional deficiency. Which of the following is the likeliest candidate? A) aplastic anemia B) vitamin B12 deficiency C) lack of intrinsic factor D) vitamin K deficiency E) vitamin B6 deficiency 8 55) Surgical removal of the stomach could cause A) hemophilia. B) pernicious anemia. C) thrombocytopenia. D) leukocytosis. E) jaundice. 56) Which two factors below make rapid and substantial blood loss life threatening? A) loss of immunity and loss of carbon dioxide carrying capacity B) loss of clotting ability and loss of osmotic pressure C) loss of blood pressure and loss of oxygen carrying capacity D) loss of immunity and loss of blood pressure 57) Higher viscosity of blood will increase the amount of stress placed on the heart while it is pumping. Viscosity of blood is highest when ________. A) hemoglobin levels are lowest B) hematocrit is highest C) electrolyte levels are lowest D) plasma levels are highest 58) Which of the following is characteristic of all leukocytes? A) They are nucleated. B) They have cytoplasmic granules. C) They are phagocytic. D) They are the most numerous of the formed elements in blood. E) A and B 59) Which feature of WBCs makes them particularly important in tissue injury? A) They undergo aerobic respiration. B) They stick to injured blood vessels. C) They undergo a fast rate of mitosis. D) They can squeeze out through blood vessel walls into tissues. E) They carry loads of oxygen. 60) Granulocytes form in A) the intestines. B) the spleen. C) the thymus. D) red bone marrow. E) yellow bone marrow. 61) Which type of white blood cell produces antibodies? A) monocytes B) T lymphocytes C) B lymphocytes/plasma cells D) thrombocytes 62) What cells are categorized as agranulocytes? A) neutrophils and basophils B) lymphocytes and monocytes C) reticulocytes and erythrocytes D) eosinophils and basophils 9 63) What is the most common type of leukocyte in a healthy adult? A) neutrophils. B) eosinophils. C) basophils. D) lymphocytes. E) monocytes. 64) During a tapeworm infection, you would expect to see increased numbers of: A) eosinophils. B) basophils. C) neutrophils. D) lymphocytes. 65) White blood cells that are increased in allergic individuals are the A) neutrophils. B) eosinophils. C) platelets. D) lymphocytes. E) monocytes. 66) Which of the following is true of eosinophils? A) Granules stain with eosin dyes. B) Allergic patients have many. C) They have bilobed nucleus. D) They constitute about 2 to 4 percent of WBCs. E) All of the answers are correct. 67) Neutrophils are most effective at: A) antibody formation. B) fighting a viral infection. C) fighting a parasitic infection. D) fighting a bacterial infection. 68) All of the following are true of neutrophils except that they are A) granular leukocytes. B) phagocytic. C) also known as polymorphonuclear leukocytes. D) important in coagulation. E) active in fighting bacterial infections. 69) A patient has an infected puncture wound to her foot. Which type of white blood cell would you expect to be elevated in a differential white cell count? A) neutrophils B) eosinophils C) basophils D) lymphocytes E) monocytes 70) Which of the following types of leukocytes can become a tissue macrophage? A) neutrophils. B) eosinophils. C) basophils. D) lymphocytes. E) monocytes. 10 71) ________ are large phagocytic white cells that spend most of their time outside the blood as fixed and free phagocytic cells. A) Neutrophils B) Eosinophils C) Basophils D) Lymphocytes E) Monocytes 72) The blood cells involved in specific immunity are the A) neutrophils. B) monocytes. C) basophils. D) erythrocytes. E) lymphocytes. 73) A small white blood cell with a large round nucleus would be a A) neutrophil. B) lymphocyte. C) monocyte. D) basophil. E) eosinophil. 74) Which type of leukocyte may produce antibodies? A) neutrophils. B) eosinophils. C) basophils. D) lymphocytes. E) monocytes. 75) Which of these descriptions best matches the term T lymphocytes? A) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium B) are involved in cell mediated immunity C) produce antibodies in response to antigens D) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide E) often elevated in allergic individuals 76) Which of these descriptions best matches the term B lymphocytes? A) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium B) helper cells are one type C) develop into plasma cells D) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide E) often elevated in allergic individuals 77) White blood cells that release histamine at the site of an injury are A) neutrophils. B) eosinophils. C) basophils. D) lymphocytes. E) monocytes. 11 78) Which of the following is true of basophils? A) constitute about 1 percent of WBCs B) granules contain heparin C) granules contain histamine D) attract other defense cells E) All of the answers are correct. 79) Hormones called ________ are involved in regulation of white blood cell populations. A) erythropoietin B) bilirubin C) thrombopoietin D) colony-stimulating factors E) plasmin 80) The function of platelets is to assist in the A) destruction of bacteria. B) process called hemostasis. C) removal of worn out red blood cells. D) immune response during an infection. E) transport of blood gases such as oxygen. 81) Platelets are pinched off from giant multinucleated cells in the bone marrow called A) erythroblasts. B) normoblasts. C) megakaryocytes. D) myeloblasts. E) lymphoblasts. 82) Platelets are A) red cells that lack a nucleus. B) blue cells that have a nucleus. C) large cells with a prominent, concave nucleus. D) tiny cells with a polynucleus. E) cytoplasmic fragments of large cells. 83) Which of the following descriptions best matches the function of platelets? A) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium B) helper cells are one type C) produce antibodies in response to antigens D) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide E) often elevated in allergic individuals 84) Most of the protein factors that are required for clotting are synthesized by A) platelets. B) megakaryocytes. C) the liver. D) the kidneys. E) the spleen. 85) _________ is the specific phase of hemostasis that involves transformation of blood from a liquid to a gel. A) coagulation. B) hemolysis. C) vascular spasm. D) a platelet plug. 12 E) diapedesis. 86) Which sequence is correct for the following events involved in hemostasis? 1. fibrinogen → fibrin 2. clot retraction 3. vascular spasm 4. prothrombin → thrombin 5. platelets adhere indirectly to collagen A) 3, 5, 4, 1, 2 B) 5, 1, 2, 3, 4 C) 4, 3, 1, 5, 2 D) 3, 5, 2, 1, 4 87) The conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin is catalyzed by the enzyme A) fibrinogen-converting enzyme. B) plasmin. C) factor VIII. D) thrombin. E) prothrombinase. 88) What do vascular spasms contribute to the process of hemostasis? A) Vascular spasms cause activated platelets to release the contents of their granules. B) Vascular spasms cause platelets to adhere to exposed collagen. C) Vascular spasms transform fibrinogen into fibrin. D) Vascular spasms decrease blood vessel diameter to limit blood loss. 89) ________ involves a cascade of reactions leading to the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. A) Vascular spasm B) The platelet phase C) Retraction D) Coagulation E) Fibrinolysis 90) Medications known as anticoagulants interfere with: A) platelet activation. B) platelet aggregation. C) vascular spasms. D) the coagulation cascade. E) B and D 91) Which vitamin is most important for production of clotting factors? A) vitamin C B) vitamin D C) vitamin K D) vitamin E 92) Which ion is most important for coagulation? A) potassium B) magnesium C) calcium D) iron E) sodium 13 93) A person's blood type is determined by the A) size of the RBCs. B) volume of the RBCs. C) chemical character of the hemoglobin. D) presence of specific glycoproteins on the cell membrane of erythrocytes. E) presence of specific glycoproteins on the cell membrane of leukocytes. 94) People with type AB blood are considered the "universal recipient" for transfusions because A) their blood cells lack A and B antigens. B) their blood lacks A or B agglutinins. C) their blood is plentiful in A and B agglutinins. D) they usually have very strong immune systems. E) they are usually Rh negative. 95) Blood type is identified primarily by A) the Kahn blood group. B) the HB blood system. C) the Rh blood group. D) both the ABO and Rh blood groups. E) the ABO blood group. 96) Type A blood has ________ antibodies in the blood plasma. A) anti-A B) anti-D C) anti-B D) anti-Rh E) anti-O 97) Type AB blood has which of the following characteristics? A) RBCs have the Rh positive antigens and the anti-D plasma antibodies. B) RBCs have no surface antigens and both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the plasma. C) RBCs have both the A & B surface antigens and no ABO plasma antibodies. D) RBCs have the A and the B surface antigens and the plasma has anti-A and anti-B antibodies. E) RBCs have the A antigen and the plasma has the anti-B antibody. 98) Anti-D antibodies are present in the blood of A) all individuals with type AB blood. B) Rh negative individuals who have been exposed to the D surface antigen. C) all Rh positive individuals. D) Rh positive individuals who have been exposed to the D surface antigen. E) all Rh negative individuals. 99) Antigens of the surface of red blood cells are also called ________ and antibodies in the blood plasma are also called ________. A) agglutinins; agglutinogens B) agglutinogens; agglutinins C) T-cells; B-cells D) erythrogens; antibiotics E) serum; plasma 14 100) Which blood types have anti-A antibodies in plasma? A) Type A B) Type B C) Type AB D) Type O E) A and C F) B and C F) A and D H) B and D 101) An individual who is blood type AB negative can ________. A) receive any blood type in moderate amounts except that with the Rh antigen B) donate to all blood types in moderate amounts C) receive types A, B, and AB, but not type O D) donate to types A, B, and AB, but not to type O 102) Fred's blood was determined to be AB positive. What does this mean? A) There are no antibodies to A, to B, or to Rh antigens in the plasma. B) Antibodies to A and B are present. C) His blood lacks Rh factor. D) He can only receive blood from a donor who is AB positive. E) He can only receive blood from a donor who is O negative. F) none of the above G) A and E only 103) Bill wants to determine his blood type, so he takes a few drops of blood from a puncture wound in his finger and mixes it with various antisera. His blood cells agglutinate when mixed with the anti-A sera but not with the anti-B or anti-D sera. What does this mean? A) Bill could receive type B-negative blood in a transfusion. B) Bill could donate blood to an individual with type O blood. C) Bill is Rh positive. D) Bill's plasma contains B antibodies. E) Bill's red blood cells contain the O surface antigen. 104) During a transfusion reaction, antibodies in the recipient’s blood bind to foreign antigens on the donated blood cells. This causes the donated blood cells to clump together or _________. A) activate. B) coagulate. C) agglutinate. D) granulate. 105) A mismatch of blood types during a transfusion is dangerous because ________. A) antibodies in the donor's plasma will attack and kill the recipient's healthy blood cells B) clotting factors in the donor's blood will cause unwanted clots known as thrombus C) preformed antibodies in the recipient's blood will bind and clump (agglutinate) the donated cells D) white blood cells from the donor's blood cause inflammation 106) Hemolytic disease of the newborn will NOT be possible if __________? A) the child is type O positive B) the child is Rh+ C) the father is Rh+ D) the father is RhE) the mother is Rh- 15 107) Which of the following statements is true regarding the ABO blood types and the Rh blood types? A) Rh disease in the newborn occurs when the mother is Rh+ and the baby is Rh-. B) Rh disease is worse in male offspring because it is a hereditary disease. C) A person with O- blood type has blood cells with O antigens, but no Rh antigens. D) Those with AB blood type can receive blood from other AB people only, no other blood type can be given. E) An Rh- person has to be exposed to Rh+ blood in order to produce anti-Rh. 108) A cross-match test is performed between donor blood and recipient blood, even though the ABO and Rh blood types match between the two because A) there are many more surface antigens on red blood cells other than A, B and Rh. B) all antibodies of the donor blood and the recipient blood must be identified. C) coagulation can occur even in a small percentage of cases. D) one has to make sure that the same agglutinogens have to be on both donor and recipients red blood cells. E) errors are commonly made by the clinical staff regarding donor-recipient matches. 109) Which answer shows the correct order of events in the body’s metabolism of bilirubin? 1) Degraded bilrubin is excreted from body in feces. 2) Liver cells secrete bilirubin into bile. 3) Heme group is separated from globin. 4) Red blood cells undergo phagocytosis by macrophages in the spleen. 5) Bilirubin binds to albumin. A) B) C) D) E) 5, 2, 4, 3, 1 4, 3, 5, 2, 1 4, 5, 3, 2, 1 3, 4, 5, 2, 1 2, 5, 3, 4, 1 True or False. 110) Platelets are more abundant in blood than leukocytes. 111) Pernicous anemia is caused by insufficient amounts of iron in the diet. 112) Ferritin is an intracellular protein used to store iron. 113) The process of fibrinolysis disposes of bacteria when healing has occurred. 114) Hemolytic anemia results from blood loss. 115) Production of white blood cells is controlled by the action of interleukins and colony stimulating factors. 116) Hemoglobin is made up of the protein heme and the red pigment globin. 117) Each heme group contains one atom of iron and can transport one molecule of oxygen. 118) Diapedesis is the process by which red blood cells move into tissue spaces from the interior of blood capillaries. 119) Positive chemotaxis is a feedback system that signals leukocyte migration into areas of damaged or infected tissue. 16 120) A condition of leukocytosis may be present when a person has over 11,000 white blood cells per cubic millimeter of blood. 121) Parasitic disease typically results in increased numbers of basophils in the blood. 122) Leukopenia is an abnormally low number of leukocytes. 123) Granulocytes called neutrophils are phagocytic and are the most numerous of all white blood cell types. 124) Most of the US population is Rh+. 125) Most plasma proteins are produced by leukocytes. 126) Platelets undergo mitosis during the clotting process. 127) The universal blood donor is O- since this blood type lacks the A, B, and Rh antigens. 128) Individuals with type O blood lack both anti-A and anti-B antibodies. 129) For the human ABO blood group, anti-A and anti-B antibodies are made by the body without previous exposure to the A or B antigens. 130) All lymphocytes are leukocytes, but not all leukocytes are lymphocytes. 131) Oxygen and carbon dioxide bind to different sites on hemoglobin. 132) During hemostasis, platelet plug formation occurs before vascular spasm. 133) Platelet plug formation requires direct attachment of platelets to damaged endothelial cells.