Emotion and Motivation

Tripken Mot and Emo 12/12 ST Guide Motivation MOTIVATIONAL CONCEPTS Motivation: a need or desire that energizes and directs behavior. Instinct: a complex behavior that is rigidly patterned throughout a species and is unlearned (e.g., imprinting in birds or the return of salmon to their birthplace to spawn). Reflexes in human infants are to simple to be considered instincts. Drive-Reduction Theory: the idea that a physiological NEED creates an aroused state of tension (DRIVE) that motivates an organism to satisfy that need. NEED (for food or water)→DRIVE (hunger or thirst)→DRIVE-REDUCING BEHAVIORS (eating or drinking). Drive-Reduction Theory is based on the concept of Homeostasis. Homeostasis: a tendency to maintain a balanced or constant internal state; the regulation of any aspect of body chemistry, such as blood glucose, around a particular level. Arousal Theory: rather that reducing a physiological need or tension state, some motivated behaviors increase arousal. Curiosity-driven behaviors, for example, suggest that too little as well as too much stimulation can motivate people to seek an optimum level of arousal. Incentive Theory: Theory that even if a need or drive is not originally present, positive or negative environmental stimuli may motivate behavior (e.g., after finishing a big meal, and feeling totally satisfied, we may become hungry again if we see or smell a delicious dessert). Hierarchy of Needs: Maslow's pyramid of human needs, beginning at the base with physiological needs that must first be satisfied before higher-level needs become active. HUNGER Glucose: the form of sugar that circulates in the blood and provides the major source of energy for body tissues. When blood glucose levels are low, we feel hungry. Orexin: When blood-glucose is low, the lateral hypothalamus releases orexin, which makes us even more hungry. Lateral Hypothalamus: the "hunger center" of the brain. When blood glucose is low, the lateral hypothalamus kicks on, releases orexin and we feel hungry. Ventromedial Hypothalamus: the "satiety center" of the brain. When blood glucose is high (after we have eaten), the ventromedial hypothalamus kicks in and we no longer feel hungry. Insulin: Substance released from the pancreas. When blood glucose rises, insulin is released to allow the glucose to move from the blood to the tissues of the body. Set Point: the point at which an individual's "weight thermostat" is supposedly set. When the body falls below this weight, an increase in hunger and a lowered metabolic rate may act to restore the lost weight. Basal Metabolic Rate: the body's resting rate of energy expenditure. Eating Disorders Anorexia Nervosa: an eating disorder in which a normal-weight person (usually an adolescent female) diets and becomes significantly underweight (15% or more), yet, still feeling fat, continues to diet. Bulimia Nervosa: an eating disorder characterized by episodes of overeating, usually of high-calorie foods, followed by vomiting, laxative use, fasting, or excessive exercise. These individuals are not typically underweight. SEXUAL MOTIVATION Sexual Response Cycle: the four stages of sexual responding described by Masters and Johnson--excitement, plateau, orgasm, and resolution. Refractory Period: a resting period after orgasm, during which a man cannot achieve another orgasm. Sexual Disorder: a problem that consistently impairs sexual arousal or functioning. They include impotence and premature ejaculation in men and orgasmic dysfunction in women. Tripken Mot and Emo 12/12 ST Guide Sexual Orientation: an enduring sexual attraction toward members of either ones' own sex (homosexual orientation) or the other sex (heterosexual orientation). Biological Correlates of Homosexuality Brain differences: *Hypothalamic brain cluster is larger in straight men than in women and gay men. *Corpus callosum is larger in gay men than in women or straight men. Genetic influences: *Shared sexual orientation is higher among identical twins than fraternal twins. *Sexual attraction in male fruit flies can be genetically manipulated. Prenatal hormones: *Altered prenatal hormone exposure may lead to homosexuality in humans and other animals. *Men with several older brothers are more likely to be gay. Other observed gay-straight differences that may be due to biology: *spatial abilities, fingerprint ridge counts, auditory system, handedness, occupational preferences, relative finger lengths, gender nonconformity, age of male puberty, and male body size. THE NEED TO BELONG Affiliation Needs: our need to feel connected and to identify with others. This boosted our ancestors' chances of survival and is therefore part of our human nature. MOTIVATION AT WORK Industrial/Organizational (I/O) Psychology: the application of psychological concepts and methods to optimizing human behavior in the workplace. Personnel Psychology: a subfield of I/O psychology that focuses on employee recruitment, selection, placement, training, appraisal, and development. Organizational Psychology: a subfield of I/O psychology that examines organizational influences on worker satisfaction and productivity and facilitates organizational change. Human Factors Psychology: a subfield of I/O psychology which explores how machines and environments can be optimally designed to fit human abilities and expectations. ACHIEVEMENT MOTIVATION Achievement Motivation: a desire for significant accomplishment: for mastery of things, people, or ideas; for attaining a high standard. Intrinsic Motivation: a desire to perform a behavior for its own sake and to be effective. Extrinsic Motivation: a desire to perform a behavior due to promised rewards or threats of punishment. Task Leadership: goal-oriented leadership that sets standards, organizes work, and focuses attention on goals. Social Leadership: group-oriented leadership that builds teamwork, mediates conflict, and offers support. Theory X: assumes that workers are basically lazy, error-prone, and extrinsically motivated by money and, thus, should be directed from above. Theory Y: assumes that, given challenges and freedom, workers are motivated to achieve self-esteem and to demonstrate their competence and creativity. 2 Neural Pathways for Emotion Tripken Mot and Emo 12/12 ST Guide Opponent-Process Theory of Emotion Emotion OBJECTIVE 1. Identify the three components of emotion, and contrast the James-Lange, Cannon-Bard, and two-factor theories of emotion. An emotion is a response of the whole organism that involves an interplay among (1) physiological arousal, (2) expressive behaviors, and (3) conscious experience. The James-Lange theory states that our experience of an emotion is a consequence of our physiological response to a stimulus; we are afraid because our heart pounds (say, in response to an approaching stranger). The Cannon-Bard theory, on the other hand, proposes that the physiological response and subjective experience of emotion occur simultaneously. Heart pounding and fear occur at the same time—one does not cause the other. Schachter and Singer’s two-factor theory of emotion focuses on the interplay of thinking and feeling, not on the timing of feelings. This theory states that to experience emotion, one must (1) be physically aroused and (2) cognitively label the arousal. 2. Describe the role of the autonomic nervous system during emotional arousal. The autonomic nervous system controls arousal. In an emergency, the sympathetic nervous system automatically mobilizes the body for fight or flight, directing the adrenal glands to release hormones that increase heart rate, blood pressure, and blood sugar level. Other physical changes include tensed muscles, dry mouth, dilated pupils, slowed digestion, and increased sweating. The parasympathetic nervous system calms the body after a crisis has passed, although arousal diminishes gradually. 3. Discuss the relationship between arousal and performance. Tripken Mot and Emo 12/12 ST Guide In day-to-day life, our performance on a task is usually best when arousal is moderate, though this varies with the difficulty of the task. With easy tasks, peak performance comes with relatively high arousal, which enhances the dominant, usually correct, response. With more difficult tasks, the optimal arousal is somewhat less. 4. Name three emotions that involve similar physiological arousal. Similar physiological arousal occurs during fear, anger, and sexual arousal. Nonetheless, these emotions feel different. And, despite similar arousal, sometimes our facial expressions differ during these three states. For example, people may appear “paralyzed” with fear or “ready to explode” with anger. 5. Describe some physiological and brain pattern indicators of specific emotions. Fear and rage are sometimes accompanied by differing finger temperatures and hormone secretions. Emotions may also stimulate different facial muscles. During fear, brow muscles tense. During joy, muscles in the cheek and under the eye pull into a smile. Emotions differ much more in the brain circuits they use. For example, brain scans show increased activity in the amygdala during fear. Finally, emotions activate different areas of the brain’s cortex. The right prefrontal cortex becomes more electrically active as people experience negative emotions, such as disgust. The left frontal lobe shows more activity with positive emotions. 6. Explain how the spillover effect influences our experience of emotions. The spillover effect occurs when arousal from one event affects our response to other events. Dozens of experiments show that a stirred-up state can be experienced as different emotions depending on how we interpret and label it. Arousal fuels emotion and cognition channels it. 7. Distinguish the two alternative pathways that sensory stimuli may travel when triggering an emotional response. Sometimes we experience unlabeled emotion. Sensory input can follow a pathway that leads via the thalamus to the amygdala, bypassing the cortex and triggering a rapid reaction that is outside our conscious awareness. Other, more complex emotions such as guilt, happiness, and love require interpretation and are routed along the slower route to the cortex for analysis. 8. Describe some of the factors that affect our ability to decipher nonverbal cues. All of us communicate nonverbally as well as verbally. For example, a firm handshake immediately conveys an outgoing, expressive personality. With a gaze, an averted glance, or a stare, we can communicate intimacy, submission, or dominance. Most people can detect nonverbal cues, and we are especially sensitive to nonverbal threats. Research indicates that we read fear and anger mostly from the eyes, happiness from the mouth. Introverts are better emotion-detectors than extraverts, although extraverts are easier to read. Experience also contributes to our sensitivity to cues as studies of abused children demonstrate. 9. Describe some gender differences in perceiving and communicating emotions. Women generally surpass men at reading people’s emotional cues. Women’s nonverbal sensitivity gives them an edge in detecting deception. Their skill at decoding others’ emotions may also contribute to their greater emotional responsiveness in both positive and negative situations. When surveyed, women are far more likely than men to describe themselves as Tripken Mot and Emo 12/12 ST Guide empathic. Gender differences also appear in the emotions that women and men express best. Women surpass men in conveying happiness, but men communicate anger better. 10. Discuss the research on reading and misreading facial and behavioral indicators of emotion. Facial muscles reveal signs of emotions, but most people find it difficult to detect expressions of deceit. Training them to discern lying versus truth-telling boosts accuracy rates. When people are not seeking to deceive us, we do much better. In fact, our brains are rather amazing detectors of subtle expressions. Specific interpretations of postures and gestures are risky because different expressions may convey the same emotion. Folded arms, for example, can signify either irritation or relaxation. The absence of gestures, facial expressions, and tones of voice in e-mails deprives us of an important source of information. 11. Discuss the culture-specific and culturally universal aspects of emotional expression, and explain how emotional expressions could enhance survival. Although some gestures are culturally determined, facial expressions, such as those of happiness and fear, are common the world over. Cultures and languages also share many similarities in the ways they categorize emotions as anger, fear, etc. Children’s facial expressions, even those of blind children who have never seen a face, are also universal. Charles Darwin suggested that before our ancient ancestors communicated in words, their ability to convey threats, greetings, and submissions with facial expressions helped them survive. Emotional expressions may also enhance our survival in other ways. For example, surprise widens the eyes, enabling us to take in more information. Disgust wrinkles the nose, closing it from foul odors. Cultures differ in how much they express emotions. For example, in cultures that value individuality, intense and prolonged displays of emotion are frequent. They are frowned on in countries such as Japan. 12. Discuss the facial feedback and behavior feedback phenomena, and give an example of each. The facial feedback hypothesis proposes that expressions amplify our emotions by activating muscles associated with specific states, and the muscles signal the body to respond as though we were experiencing those states. For example, students induced to make a frowning expression reported feeling a little angry. Students induced to smile felt happier and found cartoons funnier. Similarly, the behavior feedback hypothesis assumes that if we move our body as we would when experiencing some emotion (shuffling along with downcast eyes, as when sad), we are likely to feel that emotion to some degree. 13. Name several basic emotions, and describe two dimensions psychologists use to differentiate emotions. Carroll Izard’s investigations identified 10 basic emotions: joy, interest-excitement, surprise, sadness, anger, disgust, contempt, fear, shame, and guilt. Although other researchers argue for additional emotions, Izard contends that other emotions are combinations of these 10. When psychologists have asked people to report their experiences of different emotions, all seem to place emotions along the dimensions of pleasant versus unpleasant (the emotion’s valence) and high versus low arousal. The valence dimension can be seen in successful exam takers who—more than their less successful counterparts—label arousal as energizing rather than threatening. On the arousal dimension, “terrified” is more frightened than “afraid” and “delighted” is happier than “happy.” 14. State two ways we learn our fears. Fear is often an adaptive response. Fear of enemy’s binds people together, and fear of injury protects us from harm. What we learn through experience best explains the variety of human fears. Through conditioning (associating emotions with specific situations) and observation (watching others display fear in response to certain events or surroundings), the short list of naturally painful and frightening events multiplies into a long list of human fears. 15. Discuss some of the biological components of fear. Tripken Mot and Emo 12/12 ST Guide We seem biologically prepared to learn some fears faster than others. We quickly learn to fear snakes, spiders, and cliffs, but we are less predisposed to fear cars, electricity, bombs, and global warming. A key to fear-learning lies in the amygdala, a limbic system neural center deep in the brain. The amygdala receives information from cortical areas that process emotion, and it sends information to other areas that produce the bodily symptoms of fear. Individual differences in fearfulness are partly genetic. 16. Identify some common triggers and consequences of anger, and assess the catharsis hypothesis. Although “blowing off steam” may temporarily calm an angry person, it may also amplify underlying hostility, and it may provoke retaliation. The catharsis hypothesis maintains that “releasing” aggressive energy through action or fantasy reduces anger. Research has not supported the catharsis hypothesis. Angry outbursts may be reinforcing and therefore habit forming. In contrast, anger expressed as a nonaccusing statement of feeling can benefit relationships by leading to reconciliation rather than retaliation. When reconciliation fails, forgiveness can reduce one’s anger and its physical symptoms. 17. Describe how the feel-good, do-good phenomenon works, and discuss the importance of research on subjective well-being. The feel-good, do-good phenomenon refers to people’s tendency to be helpful when already in a good mood. Mood-boosting experiences make us more likely to give money, pick up someone’s dropped papers, volunteer time, and do other good deeds. After decades of focusing on negative emotions, psychologists are now actively exploring the causes and consequences of subjective well-being (self-perceived happiness or satisfaction with life). Scientific research helps us sort through the many contradictory maxims we have inherited regarding the predictors of happiness. 18. Discuss some of the daily and longer-term variations in the duration of emotions. Positive emotion rises over the early to middle part of most days. Negative emotion is highest just after we wake up and before we go to sleep. Although stressful events trigger bad moods, the gloom nearly always lifts by the next day. Times of elation are similarly hard to sustain and, over the long run, our emotional ups and downs tend to balance. Even significant bad events, such as a serious illness, seldom destroy happiness for long. The surprising reality is that we overestimate the duration of emotions and underestimate our capacity to adapt. 19. Summarize the findings on the relationship between affluence and happiness. Within most affluent societies, the wealthy are somewhat happier than those who struggle to afford life’s basic needs. At a basic level, money helps us to avoid pain by enabling better nutrition, health care, and education, which in turn increase happiness. Sudden increases in wealth can also increase happiness in the short term. However, in the long run, increased affluence hardly affects happiness. For example, during the last four decades, the average U.S. citizen’s buying power more than doubled, yet the average American is no happier. Research does not show an increase in happiness accompanying affluence at either the individual or national level. 20. Describe how adaptation and relative deprivation affect our appraisals of our achievements. The adaptation-level phenomenon describes our tendency to judge various stimuli relative to those we have previously experienced. If our income or social prestige increases, we may feel initial pleasure. However, we then adapt to this new level of achievement, come to see it as normal, and require something better to give us another surge of happiness. This helps explain why, despite the realities of triumph and tragedy, million-dollar winners and people who are paralyzed report similar levels of happiness. Relative deprivation is the perception that one is worse off relative to those with whom one compares oneself. As people climb the ladder of success, they mostly compare themselves with those who are at or above their current level. This explains why increases in income may do little to increase happiness. Tripken 21. Mot and Emo 12/12 ST Guide Summarize the ways that we can influence our own levels of happiness. Research suggests that we can increase our own level of happiness by (1) realizing that enduring happiness doesn’t come from financial success; (2) taking control of our time; (3) acting happy; (4) seeking work and leisure that engages our skills; (5) exercising regularly; (6) getting adequate sleep; (7) giving priority to close relationships; (8) focusing beyond oneself; (9) being grateful for what we have; and (10) nurturing our spiritual selves. Basic emotions One question that is asked repeatedly is “what are the basic emotions.” There have been dozens of answers to this, none of which have been completely satisfying. This is, no doubt, due to the fact that emotional response is complex to begin with, and is made even more complex by the fact that we add our thoughts and interpretations to them as well as just “experiencing” them as they are. I suggest that we can organize emotions into seven families: 1. The Surprise Family surprise, startle, astonishment, bewilderment, confusion, shock 2. The Fear Family fear, threat, terror, anxiety, doubt, caution, suspicion 3. The Anger Family anger, rage, frustration, hatred, hostility , envy, jealousy, disgust, contempt, annoyance, indignation 4. The Sadness Family sadness, sorrow, depression, anguish, despair, grief, loneliness, shame, embarrassment, humiliation, guilt, remorse, regret 5. The Eagerness Family eagerness, anticipation, excitement, confidence, hopefulness, curiosity, interest 6. The Happiness Family happiness, elation, joy, gladness, contentment, satisfaction, self-satisfaction, pride, love, affection, compassion, amusement, humor, laughter 7. The Boredom Family boredom, complacency Chapter 12 Study Guide A) ___ 1. Motivation is best understood as a state that: B) reduces a drive. C energizes an organism to act. aims at satisfying a biological need. D energizes and directs behavior. ) ) ___ 2. One shortcoming of the instinct theory of motivation is that it: A) places too much emphasis on environmental factors. C) applies only to animal behavior. B) D) focuses on cognitive aspects of motivation. does not explain human behaviors; it simply names them. Tripken Mot and Emo 12/12 ST Guide ___ 3. Few human behaviors are rigidly patterned enough to qualify as: A) needs. B) drives. C) instincts. D) incentives. ___ 4. Instinct theory and drive-reduction theory both emphasize ________ factors in motivation. A) environmental B) cognitive C) psychological D) biological A) ___ 5. Which of the following is not an example of homeostasis? perspiring in order to restore normal body temperature B) feeling hungry and eating to restore the level of blood glucose to normal D) All of the above are examples of homeostasis. C) A) ___ 6. Which of the following is a difference between a drive and a need? Needs are learned; drives are inherited. B) Needs are physiological states; drives are psychological states. C) Drives are generally stronger than needs. D) A) C the setting of the body's “weight thermostat.” state. ) behavior. ) D a theory of the development of sexual orientation. ___ 8. One problem with the idea of motivation as drive reduction is that: because some motivated behaviors do not seem to be based on physiological needs, they cannot be explained in terms of drive reduction. it fails to explain any human motivation. C) D) it cannot account for homeostasis. it does not explain the hunger drive. ___ 9. Which of the following is inconsistent with the drive-reduction theory of motivation? B) C) the tendency to maintain a steady internal the tendency to seek external incentives for B) A) Needs are generally stronger than drives. ___ 7. Homeostasis refers to: B) A) feeling hungry at the sight of an appetizing food D) When body temperature drops below 98.6° Fahrenheit, blood vessels constrict to conserve warmth. A person is driven to seek a drink when his or her cellular water level drops below its optimum point. Monkeys will work puzzles even if not given a food reward. A person becomes hungry when body weight falls below its biological set point. ___ 10. Mary loves hang-gliding. It would be most difficult to explain Mary's behavior according to: A) incentives. B) achievement motivation. C) drive-reduction theory. D) Maslow's hierarchy of needs. Tripken Mot and Emo 12/12 ST Guide ___ 11. For two weeks, Orlando has been on a hunger strike in order to protest his country's involvement in what he perceives as an immoral war. Orlando's willingness to starve himself in order to make a political statement conflicts with the theory of motivation advanced by: A) Kinsey. B) Murray. C) Keys. D) Maslow. ___ 12. Beginning with the most basic needs, which of the following represents the correct sequence of needs A) B) C) D) in the hierarchy described by Maslow? safety; physiological; esteem; belongingness and love; self-fulfillment safety; physiological; belongingness and love; esteem; self-fulfillment physiological; safety; esteem; belongingness and love; self-fulfillment physiological; safety; belongingness and love; esteem; self-fulfillment ___ 13. According to Maslow's theory: A) the most basic motives are based on physiological needs. C) the highest motives relate to self-actualization. B) D) needs are satisfied in a specified order. all of the above are true. ___ 14. In his study of men on a semistarvation diet, Keys found that: A) the metabolic rate of the subjects increased. C) the subjects became obsessed with food. B) D) the subjects eventually lost interest in food. the subjects' behavior directly contradicted predictions made by Maslow's hierarchy of needs. ___ 15. Increases in insulin will: A) lower blood sugar and trigger hunger. C lower blood sugar and trigger satiety. B) raise blood sugar and trigger hunger. D raise blood sugar and trigger satiety. ) ) ___ 16. The brain area that when stimulated suppresses eating is the: A) lateral hypothalamus. B) ventromedial hypothalamus. C) lateral thalamus. D) ventromedial thalamus. ___ 17. Two rats have escaped from their cages in the neurophysiology lab. The technician needs your help in returning them to their proper cages. One rat is grossly overweight; the other is severely underweight. You confidently state that the overweight rat goes in the “________-destruction” cage, while the A) B) underweight rat goes in the “________-destruction” cage. hippocampus; amygdala C lateral hypothalamus; ventromedial amygdala; hippocampus D ventromedial hypothalamus; lateral ) hypothalamus ) hypothalamus ___ 18. Electrical stimulation of the lateral hypothalamus will cause an animal to: Tripken Mot and Emo 12/12 ST Guide A) begin eating. B) stop eating. C) become obese. D) begin copulating. ___ 19. In animals, destruction of the lateral hypothalamus results in ________, whereas destruction of the ventromedial hypothalamus results in ________. A) overeating; loss of hunger C an elevated set point; a lowered set point B) loss of hunger; overeating D increased thirst; loss of thirst ) ) ___ 20. I am a protein produced by fat cells and monitored by the hypothalamus. When in abundance, I cause the brain to increase metabolism. What am I? A) PYY B) ghrelin C) orexin D) leptin ___ 21. Lucille has been sticking to a strict diet but can't seem to lose weight. What is the most likely A) B) C) D) explanation for her difficulty? Her body has a very low set point. Her pre-diet weight was near her body's set point. Her weight problem is actually caused by an underlying eating disorder. Lucille is an “external.” ___ 22. Randy, who has been under a lot of stress lately, has intense cravings for sugary junk foods, which tend A) B) C) D) to make him feel more relaxed. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for his craving? Randy feels that he deserves to pamper himself with sweets because of the stress he is under. The extra sugar gives Randy the energy he needs to cope with the demands of daily life. Carbohydrates boost levels of serotonin, which has a calming effect. The extra sugar tends to lower blood insulin level, which promotes relaxation. ___ 23. Ali's parents have tried hard to minimize their son's exposure to sweet, fattening foods. If Ali has the occasion to taste sweet foods in the future, which of the following is likely: A) He will have a strong aversion to such foods. C He will display a preference for sweet tastes. B) He will have a neutral reaction to sweet foods. D It is impossible to predict Ali's reaction. ) ) ___ 24. The text suggests that a neophobia for unfamiliar tastes: A) is more common in children than in adults. C) may be an early warning sign of an eating disorder. B) D) protected our ancestors from potentially toxic substances. only grows stronger with repeated exposure to those tastes. ___ 25. Bulimia nervosa involves: A) binging. B) purging. C) dramatic weight loss. D) a. and b. ___ 26. Which of the following is not typical of both anorexia and bulimia? Tripken Mot and Emo 12/12 ST Guide A) far more frequent occurrence in women than in men C) weight significantly and noticeably outside normal ranges B) D) preoccupation with food and fear of being overweight low self-esteem and feelings of depression ___ 27. Of the following individuals, who might be most prone to developing an eating disorder? A) B) Jason, an adolescent boy who is somewhat overweight and is unpopular with his peers Jennifer, a teenage girl who has a poor self-image and a fear of not being able to live up to her parents' high standards C) Susan, a 35-year-old woman who is a “workaholic” and devotes most of her energies to her D) Bill, a 40-year-old man who has had problems with alcoholism and is seriously depressed after high-pressured career losing his job of 20 years ___ 28. Kathy has been undergoing treatment for bulimia. There is an above-average probability that one or more members of Kathy's family have a problem with: A) high achievement. B) overprotection. C) alcoholism. D) all of the above. ___ 29. Women in ________ rate their body ideals closest to their actual shape. A) Western cultures C) countries such as India, where thinness is not idealized, B) D) countries such as Africa, where thinness can signal poverty, Australia, New Zealand, and England ___ 30. Which of the following is true concerning eating disorders? A) Genetic factors may influence susceptibility. C) Family background is a significant factor. B) D) Cultural pressures for thinness strongly influence teenage girls. All of the above are true. ___ 31. Although the cause of eating disorders is still unknown, proposed explanations focus on all of the following except: A) metabolic factors. B) genetic factors. C) family background factors. D) cultural factors. ___ 32. Kinsey's studies of sexual behavior showed that: A) males enjoy sex more than females. C) premarital sex is less common than is popularly believed. B) D) females enjoy sex more than males. sexual behavior is enormously varied. ___ 33. The correct order of the stages of Masters and Johnson's sexual response cycle is: A) plateau; excitement; orgasm; resolution. C excitement; orgasm; resolution; refractory. ) Tripken B) Mot and Emo 12/12 ST Guide excitement; plateau; orgasm; resolution. D plateau; excitement; orgasm; refractory. ) ___ 34. According to Masters and Johnson, the sexual response of males is most likely to differ from that of females during: A) the excitement phase. B) the plateau phase. C) orgasm. D) the resolution phase. ___ 35. Which of the following has been found to be most effective in treating sexual disorders? A) psychoanalysis. B) cognitive therapy. C) drug therapy. D) behavior therapy. ___ 36. Castration of male rats results in: A) reduced testosterone and sexual interest. C) reduced estrogen and sexual interest. B) D) reduced testosterone, but no change in sexual interest. reduced estrogen, but no change in sexual interest. ___ 37. Hunger and sexual motivation are alike in that both are influenced by: A) internal physiological factors. C cultural expectations. B) external and imagined stimuli. D all of the above. ) ) ___ 38. While viewing erotica, men and women differ in the activity levels of which brain area? A) anterior cingulated cortex B) amygdala C) occipital lobe D) temporal lobe ___ 39. Of the following parts of the world, teen intercourse rates are highest in: A) Western Europe. B) Canada. C) the United States. D) Asia. ___ 40. Which of the following was not identified as a contributing factor in the high rate of unprotected sex among adolescents? A) alcohol use B) thrill-seeking C) mass media sexual norms D) ignorance ___ 41. Which of the following teens is most likely to delay the initiation of sex? A) Jack, who has below-average intelligence C) Ron, who regularly volunteers his time in community service B) D) Jason, who is not religiously active it is impossible to predict ___ 42. Sexual orientation refers to: A) a person's tendency to display behaviors typical of males or females. C) a person's enduring sexual attraction toward members of a particular gender. B) D) a person's sense of identity as a male or female. all of the above. Tripken Mot and Emo 12/12 ST Guide ___ 43. Which of the following is not true regarding sexual orientation? A) Sexual orientation is neither willfully chosen nor willfully changed. B) Most people accept their orientation. D) Women, regardless of sexual orientation, respond to both female and male erotic stimuli. C) Men's sexual orientation is potentially more fluid and changeable than women's. ___ 44. Summarizing his presentation on the origins of homosexuality, Dennis explains that the “fraternal A) birth-order effect” refers to the fact that: men who have younger brothers are somewhat more likely to be gay. B) men who have older brothers are somewhat more likely to be gay. D) women with younger sisters are somewhat more likely to be gay. C) women with older sisters are somewhat more likely to be gay. ___ 45. Which of the following statements concerning homosexuality is true? A) Homosexuals have abnormal hormone levels. C) Homosexuals had a domineering opposite-sex parent. B) D) As children, most homosexuals were molested by an adult homosexual. New research indicates that sexual orientation may be at least partly physiological. ___ 46. Some scientific evidence makes a preliminary link between homosexuality and: A) B) late sexual maturation. the age of an individual's first erotic experience. C atypical prenatal hormones. ) D early problems in relationships with parents. ) ___ 47. Exposure of a fetus to the hormones typical of females between ________ and ________ months after conception may predispose the developing human to become attracted to males. A) 1; 3 B) 2; 5 C) 4; 7 D) 6; 9 ___ 48. It has been said that the body's major sex organ is the brain. With regard to sex education: A) transmission of value-free information about the wide range of sexual behaviors should be the B) transmission of technical knowledge about the biological act should be the classroom focus, free C) D) primary focus of the educator. from the personal values and attitudes of researchers, teachers, and students. the home, not the school, should be the focus of all instruction about reproductive behavior. people's attitudes, values, and morals cannot be separated from the biological aspects of sexuality. ___ 49. Summarizing her report on the need to belong, Rolanda states that: A) “Cooperation amongst our ancestors was uncommon.” C) “Because bonding with others increased our ancestors' success at reproduction and survival, it B) D) “Social bonding is not in our nature; it is a learned human trait.” became part of our biological nature.” both a. and b. are true. Tripken Mot and Emo 12/12 ST Guide ___ 50. When asked what makes life meaningful, most people first mention: A) good health. B) challenging work. C) satisfying relationships. D) serving others. ___ 51. One research study found that having an e-mail go unanswered, and other forms of ostracism, elicit increased activity in the brain's: A) amygdala. B) frontal lobe. C) cerebellum. D) anterior cingulated cortex. ___ 52. Which of the following individuals would be characterized as experiencing “flow”? A) Sheila, who, despite viewing her work as merely a job, performs her work conscientiously B) Larry, who sees his work as an artist as a calling D) Montal, who often becomes so immersed in his writing that he loses all sense of self and time C) Darren, who views his present job as merely a stepping stone in his career ___ 53. Dr. Iverson conducts research focusing on how management styles influence worker motivation. Dr. A) B) Iverson would most accurately be described as a(n): motivation psychologist. C organizational psychologist. personnel psychologist. D human factors psychologist. ) ) ___ 54. Which of the following was not identified as a contributing factor in the interviewer illusion? A) B) C) D) The fact that interviews reveal applicants' intentions but not necessarily their habitual behaviors. The tendency of interviewers to think that interview behavior only reflects applicants' enduring traits. The tendency of interviewers to more often follow the successful careers of applicants they hired rather than those who were not hired. The tendency of most interviewers to rely on unstructured rather than structured interviews. ___ 55. Which of the following is not an aspect of Murray's definition of achievement motivation? A) the desire to master skills C the desire to gain approval B) the desire for control D the desire to attain a high standard ) ) ___ 56. Because Alethea is very friendly and likable, her supervisor gives her a positive rating on her overall job performance. By generalizing from these specific traits to a biased overall evaluation, Alethea's supervisor has committed a: A) leniency error. B) severity error. C) halo error. D) recency error. ___ 57. In order to predict future excellence in a young scholar, athlete, or artist, one would best examine the individual's: A) preparation and daily discipline. B) natural talent. C) peer group. D) home environment. ___ 58. To increase employee productivity, industrial-organizational psychologists advise managers to: Tripken Mot and Emo 12/12 ST Guide A) adopt a directive leadership style. C) instill competitiveness in each employee. B) D) adopt a democratic leadership style. deal with employees according to their individual motives. ___ 59. For as long as she has been the plant manager, Juanita has welcomed input from employees and has delegated authority. Bill, manages his department, with a more authoritarian, iron-fisted approach. Juanita's style is one of ________ leadership, whereas Bill's is one of ________ leadership. A) task; social B) social; task C) directive; democratic D) democratic; participative ___ 60. Rosa has been described as a “leader with a lot of charisma.” An organizational psychologist would say A) B) that this means she: has a clear vision of her leadership goals. is able to communicate her goals clearly and simply. C is able to inspire others. ) D possesses all of the above characteristics. ) Tripken 12 Answer Key Mot and Emo 12/12 ST Guide 20. D 41. C 21. B 42. C 23. C 44. B 25. D 46. C 7. A 27. B 48. D 9. C 29. A 11. D 31. A 13. D 33. B 15. A 35. D 17. D 37. D 19. B 39. A 1. D 2. D 22. C 4. D 24. B 6. B 26. C 8. A 28. C 49. C 10. C 30. D 51. D 12. D 32. D 53. C 14. C 34. D 55. C 16. B 36. A 18. A 38. B 3. C 5. C 40. B 43. C 45. D 47. B 50. C 52. D 54. D 56. C 57. A 58. D 59. B 60. D Chapter 13 Emotion ___ 1. Emotions consist of which of the following components? A) physiological reactions. B) behavioral expressions. C) conscious feelings. D) all of the above. ___ 2. You are on your way to school to take a big exam. Suddenly, on noticing that your pulse is racing and that you are sweating, you feel nervous. With which theory of emotion is this experience most consistent? A) Cannon-Bard theory B) James-Lange theory C) relative deprivation theory D) adaptation-level theory ___ 3. Which theory of emotion emphasizes the simultaneous experience of body response and emotional feeling? A) James-Lange theory B) Cannon-Bard theory C) two-factor theory D) valence theory A) B) C) D) ___ 4. The Cannon-Bard theory of emotion states that: emotions have two ingredients: physical arousal and a cognitive label. the conscious experience of an emotion occurs at the same time as the body's physical reaction. emotional experiences are based on an awareness of the body's responses to an emotion-arousing stimulus. emotional ups and downs tend to balance in the long run. A) B) C) D) ___ 5. Schachter's two-factor theory emphasizes that emotion involves both: the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the nervous system. verbal and nonverbal expression. physical arousal and a cognitive label. universal and culture-specific aspects. ___ 6. After hitting a grand-slam home run, Mike noticed that his heart was pounding. Later that evening, after nearly having a collision while driving on the freeway, Mike again noticed that his heart was pounding. That he interpreted this reaction as fear, rather than as ecstasy, can best be explained by the: A) James-Lange theory. B) Cannon-Bard theory. C) two-factor theory. D) adaptation-level theory. Tripken Mot and Emo 12/12 ST Guide ___ 7. Which theory of emotion implies that every emotion is associated with a unique physiological reaction? A) James-Lange theory B) Cannon-Bard theory C) two-factor theory D) valence theory A) B) C) D) ___ 8. Which of the following most accurately describes emotional arousal? Emotions prepare the body to fight or flee. Emotions are voluntary reactions to emotion-arousing stimuli. Because all emotions have the same physiological basis, emotions are primarily psychological events. Emotional arousal is always accompanied by cognition. ___ 9. In an emergency situation, emotional arousal will result in: A) increased rate of respiration. B) increased blood sugar. C) a slowing of digestion. D) all of the above. ___ 10. After Brenda scolded her brother for forgetting to pick her up from school, the physical arousal that had accompanied her anger diminished. Which division of her nervous system mediated her physical relaxation? A) sympathetic division B) parasympathetic division C) skeletal division D) peripheral nervous system ___ 11. Which division of the nervous system is especially involved in bringing about emotional arousal? A) somatic nervous system C) sympathetic nervous system B) peripheral nervous system D) parasympathetic nervous system ___ 12. The body's response to danger is triggered by the release of ________ by the ________ gland(s). A) acetylcholine; adrenal C) acetylcholine; pituitary B) epinephrine and norepinephrine; adrenal D) epinephrine and norepinephrine; pituitary ___ 13. A relatively high level of arousal would be most likely to facilitate: A) remembering the lines of a play. C) sprinting 100 meters. B) shooting free throws in basketball. D) taking a final exam in introductory psychology. ___ 14. Which of the following is correct regarding the relationship between arousal and performance? A) Generally, performance is optimal when arousal is low. B) Generally, performance is optimal when arousal is high. C) On easy tasks, performance is optimal when arousal is low. D) On easy tasks, performance is optimal when arousal is high. ___ 15. A student participating in an experiment concerned with physical responses that accompany emotions reports that her mouth is dry, her heart is racing, and she feels flushed. Can the emotion she is experiencing be determined? A) Yes, it is anger. B) Yes, it is fear. C) Yes, it is ecstasy. D) No, it cannot be determined from the information given. ___ 16. Concerning emotions and their accompanying body responses, which of the following appears to be true? A) Each emotion has its own body response and underlying brain circuit. B) All emotions involve the same body response as a result of the same underlying brain circuit. C) Many emotions involve similar body responses but have different underlying brain circuits. D) All emotions have the same underlying brain circuits but different body responses. ___ 17. Nine-month-old Nicole's left frontal lobe is more active than her right frontal lobe. We can expect that, all other things being equal, Nicole: A) may suffer from mild depression for most of her life. B) may have trouble “turning off” upsetting feelings later in her life. C) may be more cheerful than those with more active right frontal lobes. D) may have trouble expressing feelings later in her life. ___ 18. Julio was extremely angry when he came in for a routine EEG of his brain activity. When he later told this to the doctor, she was no longer concerned about the: A) increased electrical activity in Julio's right hemisphere. B) increased electrical activity in Julio's left hemisphere. C) decreased electrical activity in Julio's amygdala. Tripken D) Mot and Emo 12/12 ST Guide increased electrical activity in Julio's amygdala. ___ 19. When the scientist electrically stimulated one area of a monkey's brain, the monkey became enraged. When another electrode was activated, the monkey cowered in fear. The electrodes were most likely implanted in the: A) pituitary gland. B) adrenal glands. C) limbic system. D) right hemisphere. ___ 20. Electrical stimulation of which brain region can produce terror or rage in cats? A) limbic system B) hypothalamus C) cortex D) cerebellum ___ 21. In laboratory experiments, fear and joy: A) result in an increase in heart rate. B) stimulate different facial muscles. C) increase heart rate and stimulate different facial muscles. D) result in a decrease in heart rate. ___ 22. People who are exuberant and persistently cheerful show increased activity in the brain's ________, which is rich in receptors for the neurotransmitter ________. A) right frontal lobe; dopamine B) left frontal lobe; dopamine C) amygdala; serotonin D) thalamus; serotonin ___ 23. Which of the following was not raised as a criticism of the James-Lange theory of emotion? A) The body's responses are too similar to trigger the various emotions. B) Emotional reactions occur before the body's responses can take place. C) The cognitive activity of the cortex plays a role in the emotions we experience. D) People with spinal cord injuries at the neck typically experience less emotion. ___ 24. Two years ago Maria was in an automobile accident in which her spinal cord was severed, leaving her paralyzed from her neck down. Today, Maria finds that she experiences emotions less intensely than she did before her accident. This tends to support which theory of emotion? A) James-Lange theory B) Cannon-Bard theory C) adaptation-level theory D) relative deprivation theory ___ 25. In the Schachter-Singer experiment, which college men reported feeling an emotional change in the presence of the experimenter's highly emotional confederate? A) those receiving epinephrine and expecting to feel physical arousal B) those receiving a placebo and expecting to feel physical arousal C) those receiving epinephrine but not expecting to feel physical arousal D) those receiving a placebo and not expecting to feel physical arousal ___ 26. Which of the following was not presented in the text as evidence that some emotional reactions involve no deliberate, rational thinking? A) Some of the neural pathways involved in emotion are separate from those involved in thinking and memory. B) Emotional reactions are sometimes quicker than our interpretations of a situation. C) People can develop an emotional preference for visual stimuli to which they have been unknowingly exposed. D) Arousal of the sympathetic nervous system will trigger an emotional reaction even when artificially induced by an injection of epinephrine. ___ 27. Who will probably be angrier after getting a parking ticket? A) Bob, who has just awakened from a nap B) Veronica, who has just finished eating a big lunch C) Dan, who has just completed a tennis match D) Alicia, who has been reading a romantic novel ___ 28. Several studies have shown that physical arousal can intensify just about any emotion. For example, when people who have been physically aroused by exercise are insulted, they often misattribute their arousal to the insult. This finding illustrates the importance of: A) cognitive labels of arousal in the conscious experience of emotions. B) a minimum level of arousal in triggering emotional experiences. C) the simultaneous occurrence of physical arousal and cognitive labeling in emotional experience. D) all of the above. ___ 29. (Thinking Critically) The polygraph measures: A) lying. B) brain rhythms. C) chemical changes in the body. D) physiological indexes of arousal. Tripken Mot and Emo 12/12 ST Guide ___ 30. (Thinking Critically) Current estimates are that the polygraph is inaccurate approximately ________ of the time. A) three-fourths B) one-half C) one-third D) one-fourth ___ 31. (Thinking Critically) Many psychologists are opposed to the use of lie detectors because: A) they represent an invasion of a person's privacy and could easily be used for unethical purposes. B) there are often serious discrepancies among the various indicators such as perspiration and heart rate. C) polygraphs cannot distinguish the various possible causes of arousal. D) they are accurate only about 50 percent of the time. ___ 32. As part of her job interview, Jan is asked to take a lie-detector test. Jan politely refuses and points out that: A) a guilty person can be found innocent by the polygraph. B) an innocent person can be found guilty. C) these tests err one-third of the time. D) all of the above are true. ___ 33. Evidence that changes in facial expression can directly affect people's feelings and body states has convinced Robert Zajonc that: A) the heart is always subject to the mind. B) emotional reactions involve deliberate rational thinking. C) cognition is not necessary for emotion. D) the interpretation of facial expressions is a learned skill. ___ 34. Law enforcement officials sometimes use a lie detector to assess a suspect's responses to details of the crime believed to be known only to the perpetrator. This is known as the: A) inductive approach. B) deductive approach. C) guilty knowledge test. D) screening examination. ___ 35. Research on nonverbal communication has revealed that: A) it is easy to hide your emotions by controlling your facial expressions. B) facial expressions tend to be the same the world over, while gestures vary from culture to culture. C) most authentic expressions last between 7 and 10 seconds. D) most gestures have universal meanings; facial expressions vary from culture to culture. ___ 36. Which of the following is true regarding gestures and facial expressions? A) Gestures are universal; facial expressions, culture-specific. B) Facial expressions are universal; gestures, culture-specific. C) Both gestures and facial expressions are universal. D) Both gestures and facial expressions are culture-specific. ___ 37. I am an emotionally literate person who is very accurate at reading others' nonverbal behavior, detecting lies, and describing my feelings. Who am I? A) an introvert B) an extrovert C) a woman D) a man ___ 38. Children in New York, Nigeria, and New Zealand smile when they are happy and frown when they are sad. This suggests that: A) the Cannon-Bard theory is correct. B) some emotional expressions are learned at a very early age. C) the two-factor theory is correct. D) facial expressions of emotion are universal and biologically determined. ___ 39. With regard to emotions, Darwin believed that: A) the expression of emotions helped our ancestors to survive. B) all humans express basic emotions using similar facial expressions. C) human facial expressions of emotion retain elements of animals' emotional displays. D) all of the above are true. ___ 40. Who is the least likely to display negative emotions openly? A) Paul, a game warden in Australia C) Deborah, a physicist in Toronto B) Niles, a stockbroker in Belgium D) Yoko, a dentist in Japan ___ 41. In cultures that emphasize social interdependence: Tripken A) B) Mot and Emo 12/12 ST Guide emotional displays are typically intense. emotional displays are typically prolonged. C) negative emotions are rarely displayed. D) all of the above are true. ___ 42. The candidate stepped before the hostile audience, panic written all over his face. It is likely that the candidate's facial expression caused him to experience: A) a lessening of his fear. C) a surge of digestive enzymes in his body. B) an intensification of his fear. D) increased body temperature. ___ 43. Izard believes that there are ________ basic emotions. A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 10 ___ 44. Margaret is a finalist in the U.S. Ice Skating Championship. She is very excited about the competition and is feeling energized. More than likely, the two dimensions of her current emotion would be a ________ and ________. A) positive valence; low arousal C) positive valence; high arousal B) negative valence; low arousal D) negative valence; high arousal ___ 45. Most human fears are: A) universal. B) biologically determined. C) present at birth. D) learned. ___ 46. For which of the following fears do humans appear to be biologically prepared? A) fear of electricity B) fear of cliffs C) fear of flowers D) fear of flying ___ 47. In studying what makes people angry, James Averill found that most people become angry: A) once a day. B) once a week. C) several times a week. D) several times a month. ___ 48. Expressing anger can be adaptive when you: A) retaliate immediately. B) have mentally rehearsed all the reasons for your anger. C) count to 10, then blow off steam. D) first wait until the anger subsides, then deal with the situation in a civil manner. ___ 49. Jane was so mad at her brother that she exploded at him when he entered her room. That she felt less angry afterward is best explained by the principle of: A) adaptation level. B) physiological arousal. C) relative deprivation. D) catharsis. ___ 50. Concerning the catharsis hypothesis, which of the following is true? A) Expressing anger can be temporarily calming if it does not leave one feeling guilty or anxious. B) The arousal that accompanies unexpressed anger never dissipates. C) Expressing one's anger always calms one down. D) Psychologists agree that under no circumstances is catharsis beneficial. ___ 51. Catharsis will be most effective in reducing anger toward another person if: A) you wait until you are no longer angry before confronting the person. B) the target of your anger is someone you feel has power over you. C) your anger is directed specifically toward the person who angered you. D) the other person is able to retaliate by also expressing anger. ___ 52. As elderly Mr. Hooper crosses the busy intersection, he stumbles and drops the packages he is carrying. Which passerby is most likely to help Mr. Hooper? A) Drew, who has been laid off from work for three months B) Leon, who is on his way to work C) Bonnie, who graduated from college the day before D) Nancy, whose father recently passed away ___ 53. Research indicates that a person is most likely to be helpful to others if he or she: A) is feeling guilty about something. C) recently received help from another person. B) is happy. D) recently offered help to another person. ___ 54. A graph depicting the course of positive emotions over the hours of the day since waking would: A) start low and rise steadily until bedtime. Tripken B) C) D) Mot and Emo 12/12 ST Guide start high and decrease steadily until bedtime. remain at a stable, moderate level throughout the day. rise over the early hours and dissipate during the day's last several hours. ___ 55. Research suggests that people generally experience the greatest well-being when they strive for: A) wealth. B) modest income increases from year to year. C) slightly higher status than their friends, neighbors, and coworkers. D) intimacy and personal growth. ___ 56. When Professor Simon acquired a spacious new office, he was overjoyed. Six months later, however, he was taking the office for granted. His behavior illustrates the: A) relative deprivation principle. C) valence theory. B) adaptation-level phenomenon. D) optimum arousal principle. ___ 57. When students studied others who were worse off than themselves, they felt greater satisfaction with their own lives. This is an example of the principle of: A) relative deprivation. B) adaptation level. C) behavioral contrast. D) opponent processes. ___ 58. Cindy was happy with her promotion until she found out that Janice, who has the same amount of experience, receives a higher salary. Cindy's feelings are best explained according to the: A) adaptation-level phenomenon. C) catharsis hypothesis. B) valence theory. D) principle of relative deprivation. ___ 59. Which of the following is true regarding happiness? A) People with more education tend to be happier. B) Beautiful people tend to be happier than plain people. C) Women tend to be happier than men. D) People who are socially outgoing or who exercise regularly tend to be happier. ___ 60. Which of these factors have researchers not found to correlate with happiness? A) a satisfying marriage or close friendship B) high self-esteem C) religious faith D) education ___ 61. Motivation is best understood as a state that: A) reduces a drive. B) aims at satisfying a biological need. C) energizes an organism to act. D) energizes and directs behavior. ___ 62. One shortcoming of the instinct theory of motivation is that it: A) places too much emphasis on environmental factors. B) focuses on cognitive aspects of motivation. C) applies only to animal behavior. D) does not explain human behaviors; it simply names them. ___ 63. Few human behaviors are rigidly patterned enough to qualify as: A) needs. B) drives. C) instincts. D) incentives. ___ 64. Instinct theory and drive-reduction theory both emphasize ________ factors in motivation. A) environmental B) cognitive C) psychological D) biological ___ 65. Which of the following is not an example of homeostasis? A) perspiring in order to restore normal body temperature B) feeling hungry and eating to restore the level of blood glucose to normal C) feeling hungry at the sight of an appetizing food D) All of the above are examples of homeostasis. ___ 66. Which of the following is a difference between a drive and a need? A) Needs are learned; drives are inherited. B) Needs are physiological states; drives are psychological states. C) Drives are generally stronger than needs. D) Needs are generally stronger than drives. Tripken Mot and Emo 12/12 ST Guide ___ 67. Homeostasis refers to: A) the tendency to maintain a steady internal state. B) the tendency to seek external incentives for behavior. C) the setting of the body's “weight thermostat.” D) a theory of the development of sexual orientation. ___ 68. One problem with the idea of motivation as drive reduction is that: A) because some motivated behaviors do not seem to be based on physiological needs, they cannot be explained in terms of drive reduction. B) it fails to explain any human motivation. C) it cannot account for homeostasis. D) it does not explain the hunger drive. ___ 69. Which of the following is inconsistent with the drive-reduction theory of motivation? A) When body temperature drops below 98.6° Fahrenheit, blood vessels constrict to conserve warmth. B) A person is driven to seek a drink when his or her cellular water level drops below its optimum point. C) Monkeys will work puzzles even if not given a food reward. D) A person becomes hungry when body weight falls below its biological set point. ___ 70. Mary loves hang-gliding. It would be most difficult to explain Mary's behavior according to: A) incentives. B) achievement motivation. C) drive-reduction theory. D) Maslow's hierarchy of needs. ___ 71. For two weeks, Orlando has been on a hunger strike in order to protest his country's involvement in what he perceives as an immoral war. Orlando's willingness to starve himself in order to make a political statement conflicts with the theory of motivation advanced by: A) Kinsey. B) Murray. C) Keys. D) Maslow. ___ 72. Beginning with the most basic needs, which of the following represents the correct sequence of needs in the hierarchy described by Maslow? A) safety; physiological; esteem; belongingness and love; self-fulfillment B) safety; physiological; belongingness and love; esteem; self-fulfillment C) physiological; safety; esteem; belongingness and love; self-fulfillment D) physiological; safety; belongingness and love; esteem; self-fulfillment ___ 73. According to Maslow's theory: A) the most basic motives are based on physiological needs. B) needs are satisfied in a specified order. C) the highest motives relate to self-actualization. D) all of the above are true. ___ 74. In his study of men on a semistarvation diet, Keys found that: A) the metabolic rate of the subjects increased. B) the subjects eventually lost interest in food. C) the subjects became obsessed with food. D) the subjects' behavior directly contradicted predictions made by Maslow's hierarchy of needs. ___ 75. Increases in insulin will: A) lower blood sugar and trigger hunger. B) raise blood sugar and trigger hunger. C) lower blood sugar and trigger satiety. D) raise blood sugar and trigger satiety. ___ 76. The brain area that when stimulated suppresses eating is the: A) lateral hypothalamus. B) ventromedial hypothalamus. C) lateral thalamus. D) ventromedial thalamus. ___ 77. Two rats have escaped from their cages in the neurophysiology lab. The technician needs your help in returning them to their proper cages. One rat is grossly overweight; the other is severely underweight. You confidently state that the overweight rat goes in the “________-destruction” cage, while the underweight rat goes in the “________-destruction” cage. A) hippocampus; amygdala C) lateral hypothalamus; ventromedial hypothalamus B) amygdala; hippocampus D) ventromedial hypothalamus; lateral hypothalamus ___ 78. Electrical stimulation of the lateral hypothalamus will cause an animal to: Tripken Mot and Emo 12/12 ST Guide A) begin eating. B) stop eating. C) become obese. D) begin copulating. ___ 79. In animals, destruction of the lateral hypothalamus results in ________, whereas destruction of the ventromedial hypothalamus results in ________. A) overeating; loss of hunger C) an elevated set point; a lowered set point B) loss of hunger; overeating D) increased thirst; loss of thirst ___ 80. I am a protein produced by fat cells and monitored by the hypothalamus. When in abundance, I cause the brain to increase metabolism. What am I? A) PYY B) ghrelin C) orexin D) leptin ___ 81. Lucille has been sticking to a strict diet but can't seem to lose weight. What is the most likely explanation for her difficulty? A) Her body has a very low set point. B) Her pre-diet weight was near her body's set point. C) Her weight problem is actually caused by an underlying eating disorder. D) Lucille is an “external.” ___ 82. Randy, who has been under a lot of stress lately, has intense cravings for sugary junk foods, which tend to make him feel more relaxed. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for his craving? A) Randy feels that he deserves to pamper himself with sweets because of the stress he is under. B) The extra sugar gives Randy the energy he needs to cope with the demands of daily life. C) Carbohydrates boost levels of serotonin, which has a calming effect. D) The extra sugar tends to lower blood insulin level, which promotes relaxation. ___ 83. Ali's parents have tried hard to minimize their son's exposure to sweet, fattening foods. If Ali has the occasion to taste sweet foods in the future, which of the following is likely: A) He will have a strong aversion to such foods. C) He will display a preference for sweet tastes. B) He will have a neutral reaction to sweet foods. D) It is impossible to predict Ali's reaction. ___ 84. The text suggests that a neophobia for unfamiliar tastes: A) is more common in children than in adults. B) protected our ancestors from potentially toxic substances. C) may be an early warning sign of an eating disorder. D) only grows stronger with repeated exposure to those tastes. ___ 85. Bulimia nervosa involves: A) binging. B) purging. C) dramatic weight loss. D) a. and b. ___ 86. Which of the following is not typical of both anorexia and bulimia? A) far more frequent occurrence in women than in men B) preoccupation with food and fear of being overweight C) weight significantly and noticeably outside normal ranges D) low self-esteem and feelings of depression ___ 87. Of the following individuals, who might be most prone to developing an eating disorder? A) Jason, an adolescent boy who is somewhat overweight and is unpopular with his peers B) Jennifer, a teenage girl who has a poor self-image and a fear of not being able to live up to her parents' high standards C) Susan, a 35-year-old woman who is a “workaholic” and devotes most of her energies to her high-pressured career D) Bill, a 40-year-old man who has had problems with alcoholism and is seriously depressed after losing his job of 20 years ___ 88. Kathy has been undergoing treatment for bulimia. There is an above-average probability that one or more members of Kathy's family have a problem with: A) high achievement. B) overprotection. C) alcoholism. D) all of the above. ___ 89. Women in ________ rate their body ideals closest to their actual shape. A) Western cultures B) countries such as Africa, where thinness can signal poverty, C) countries such as India, where thinness is not idealized, Tripken D) Mot and Emo 12/12 ST Guide Australia, New Zealand, and England ___ 90. Which of the following is true concerning eating disorders? A) Genetic factors may influence susceptibility. B) Cultural pressures for thinness strongly influence teenage girls. C) Family background is a significant factor. D) All of the above are true. ___ 91. Although the cause of eating disorders is still unknown, proposed explanations focus on all of the following except: A) metabolic factors. B) genetic factors. C) family background factors. D) cultural factors. ___ 92. Kinsey's studies of sexual behavior showed that: A) males enjoy sex more than females. B) females enjoy sex more than males. C) premarital sex is less common than is popularly believed. D) sexual behavior is enormously varied. ___ 93. The correct order of the stages of Masters and Johnson's sexual response cycle is: A) plateau; excitement; orgasm; resolution. C) excitement; orgasm; resolution; refractory. B) excitement; plateau; orgasm; resolution. D) plateau; excitement; orgasm; refractory. ___ 94. According to Masters and Johnson, the sexual response of males is most likely to differ from that of females during: A) the excitement phase. B) the plateau phase. C) orgasm. D) the resolution phase. ___ 95. Which of the following has been found to be most effective in treating sexual disorders? A) psychoanalysis. B) cognitive therapy. C) drug therapy. D) behavior therapy. ___ 96. Castration of male rats results in: A) reduced testosterone and sexual interest. B) reduced testosterone, but no change in sexual interest. C) reduced estrogen and sexual interest. D) reduced estrogen, but no change in sexual interest. ___ 97. Hunger and sexual motivation are alike in that both are influenced by: A) internal physiological factors. C) cultural expectations. B) external and imagined stimuli. D) all of the above. ___ 98. While viewing erotica, men and women differ in the activity levels of which brain area? A) anterior cingulated cortex B) amygdala C) occipital lobe D) temporal lobe ___ 99. Of the following parts of the world, teen intercourse rates are highest in: A) Western Europe. B) Canada. C) the United States. D) Asia. ___ 100. Which of the following was not identified as a contributing factor in the high rate of unprotected sex among adolescents? A) alcohol use B) thrill-seeking C) mass media sexual norms D) ignorance ___ 101. Which of the following teens is most likely to delay the initiation of sex? A) Jack, who has below-average intelligence B) Jason, who is not religiously active C) Ron, who regularly volunteers his time in community service D) it is impossible to predict ___ 102. Sexual orientation refers to: A) a person's tendency to display behaviors typical of males or females. B) a person's sense of identity as a male or female. C) a person's enduring sexual attraction toward members of a particular gender. D) all of the above. ___ 103. Which of the following is not true regarding sexual orientation? A) Sexual orientation is neither willfully chosen nor willfully changed. Tripken B) C) D) Mot and Emo 12/12 ST Guide Most people accept their orientation. Men's sexual orientation is potentially more fluid and changeable than women's. Women, regardless of sexual orientation, respond to both female and male erotic stimuli. ___ 104. Summarizing his presentation on the origins of homosexuality, Dennis explains that the “fraternal birth-order effect” refers to the fact that: A) men who have younger brothers are somewhat more likely to be gay. B) men who have older brothers are somewhat more likely to be gay. C) women with older sisters are somewhat more likely to be gay. D) women with younger sisters are somewhat more likely to be gay. ___ 105. Which of the following statements concerning homosexuality is true? A) Homosexuals have abnormal hormone levels. B) As children, most homosexuals were molested by an adult homosexual. C) Homosexuals had a domineering opposite-sex parent. D) New research indicates that sexual orientation may be at least partly physiological. ___ 106. Some scientific evidence makes a preliminary link between homosexuality and: A) late sexual maturation. C) atypical prenatal hormones. B) the age of an individual's first erotic experience. D) early problems in relationships with parents. ___ 107. Exposure of a fetus to the hormones typical of females between ________ and ________ months after conception may predispose the developing human to become attracted to males. A) 1; 3 B) 2; 5 C) 4; 7 D) 6; 9 ___ 108. It has been said that the body's major sex organ is the brain. With regard to sex education: A) transmission of value-free information about the wide range of sexual behaviors should be the primary focus of the educator. B) transmission of technical knowledge about the biological act should be the classroom focus, free from the personal values and attitudes of researchers, teachers, and students. C) the home, not the school, should be the focus of all instruction about reproductive behavior. D) people's attitudes, values, and morals cannot be separated from the biological aspects of sexuality. ___ 109. Summarizing her report on the need to belong, Rolanda states that: A) “Cooperation amongst our ancestors was uncommon.” B) “Social bonding is not in our nature; it is a learned human trait.” C) “Because bonding with others increased our ancestors' success at reproduction and survival, it became part of our biological nature.” D) both a. and b. are true. ___ 110. When asked what makes life meaningful, most people first mention: A) good health. B) challenging work. C) satisfying relationships. D) serving others. ___ 111. One research study found that having an e-mail go unanswered, and other forms of ostracism, elicit increased activity in the brain's: A) amygdala. B) frontal lobe. C) cerebellum. D) anterior cingulated cortex. ___ 112. Which of the following individuals would be characterized as experiencing “flow”? A) Sheila, who, despite viewing her work as merely a job, performs her work conscientiously B) Larry, who sees his work as an artist as a calling C) Darren, who views his present job as merely a stepping stone in his career D) Montal, who often becomes so immersed in his writing that he loses all sense of self and time ___ 113. Dr. Iverson conducts research focusing on how management styles influence worker motivation. Dr. Iverson would most accurately be described as a(n): A) motivation psychologist. C) organizational psychologist. B) personnel psychologist. D) human factors psychologist. ___ 114. Which of the following was not identified as a contributing factor in the interviewer illusion? A) The fact that interviews reveal applicants' intentions but not necessarily their habitual behaviors. Tripken B) C) D) Mot and Emo 12/12 ST Guide The tendency of interviewers to think that interview behavior only reflects applicants' enduring traits. The tendency of interviewers to more often follow the successful careers of applicants they hired rather than those who were not hired. The tendency of most interviewers to rely on unstructured rather than structured interviews. ___ 115. Which of the following is not an aspect of Murray's definition of achievement motivation? A) the desire to master skills C) the desire to gain approval B) the desire for control D) the desire to attain a high standard ___ 116. Because Alethea is very friendly and likable, her supervisor gives her a positive rating on her overall job performance. By generalizing from these specific traits to a biased overall evaluation, Alethea's supervisor has committed a: A) leniency error. B) severity error. C) halo error. D) recency error. ___ 117. In order to predict future excellence in a young scholar, athlete, or artist, one would best examine the individual's: A) preparation and daily discipline. B) natural talent. C) peer group. D) home environment. ___ 118. To increase employee productivity, industrial-organizational psychologists advise managers to: A) adopt a directive leadership style. B) adopt a democratic leadership style. C) instill competitiveness in each employee. D) deal with employees according to their individual motives. ___ 119. For as long as she has been the plant manager, Juanita has welcomed input from employees and has delegated authority. Bill, manages his department, with a more authoritarian, iron-fisted approach. Juanita's style is one of ________ leadership, whereas Bill's is one of ________ leadership. A) task; social B) social; task C) directive; democratic D) democratic; participative ___ 120. Rosa has been described as a “leader with a lot of charisma.” An organizational psychologist would say that this means she: A) has a clear vision of her leadership goals. C) is able to inspire others. B) is able to communicate her goals clearly and simply. D) possesses all of the above characteristics. Tripken Mot and Emo 12/12 ST Guide Answer Key 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. D B B B C C A A D B C B C D D C C A C A C B D A C D C A D C C D C C B B C D D 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. D C B D C D B C D D B C C B D D B A D D D D D C D C B A A C C D D D C A B D A B D 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. 100. 101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110. 111. 112. 113. 114. 115. 116. 117. 118. 119. 120. B C C B D C B C A D A D B D D A D B A B C C C B D C B D C C D D C D C C A D B D