Psychology Cumulative Review

1 CUMULATIVE REVIEW Directions: choose the option that BEST answers the statements below. 1. Psychology is the study of the mind. It is a separate and unique scientific endeavor. These words would most likely have been said by a. Wilhelm Wundt b. William James c. B. F. Skinner d. Abraham Maslow 2. Manny tends to be very passive and allows people to take advantage of him. What would a humanist be most likely to say about Manny? a. Manny will find it difficult to change because he probably has deep-seated feelings of inferiority. b. Manny can become more assertive once he begins to feel better about himself and recognizes that he has the ability to fulfill his potential. c. Manny simply needs to take an assertiveness training class in which he can learn and practice assertive behaviors. 3. Hiding in the bushes to note the number of couples displaying affection publicly is an example of a a. Correlational study b. Naturalistic Observation c. Experiment d. Case Study 4. The experiment is a research method in which the investigator a. systematically observes two variables to see whether there is an association between them b. observes behavior as it occurs in its natural environment c. conducts an in-depth investigation of an individual subject d. manipulates a variable under carefully controlled conditions and observes whether there are changes in a second variable as a result 5. Researchers who were studying plant growth raised plants in two separate rooms. One room had taped conversations playing 24 hours a day; the other room was silent. The researchers found that the plants grew better in the room which had the conversations playing. In this study, the type of room (conversation or silence) would be a. the dependent variable b. an extraneous variable c. a placebo d. the independent variable 2 6. A group of researchers wants to determine if people are more likely to follow directions if the person giving the directions is in a uniform. Half the participants are directed to a parking spot by a uniformed security guard, the other half are directed to a parking spot by an individual wearing blue jeans and a t-shirt. In this study, the dependent variable would be a. the number of participants who park in the spot they are directed to b. the type of clothing worn by the person giving the directions c. the gender of the person driving into the parking lot d. the distance between the parking spot and the entrance 7. David and Alexandra both take part in a research study that is investigating the effects of sleep deprivation on reaction time. David is kept awake for 24 hours straight, while Alexandra follows her normal sleep routine. In this study, David is part of the a. hypothesis group b. experimental group c. control group d. dependent variable group 8. The purpose of the control group is to a. make the experiment more complex b. isolate the effect of the independent variable on the dependent variable c. make statistical significance more likely d. isolate the effect of the dependent variable on the independent variable 9. The experimental group a. consists of the subjects who receive some special treatment with regard to the independent variable b. consists of the subjects who receive some special treatment with regard to the dependent variable c. consists of the subjects who do not receive the special treatment d. must be chosen so as to be as different from the control group as possible 10. Dr. Macator predicts that people will act more aggressively during the heat waves of summer than they will during the cold spells of winter. This suggests that Dr. Macator believes that temperature and level of aggression are a. negatively correlated b. independent variables c. uncorrelated d. positively correlated 11. Of the following, the correlation coefficient that indicates the STRONGEST relationship between the two variables being measured is a. +0.65 b. -0.89 3 c. 0.00 d. +3.45 1. __________ receive information from other neurons; __________ transmit information to other neurons. a. Axons; synapses b. Dendrites; axons c. Synapses; dendrites d. Axons; dendrites 2. Action potentials a. are stronger when the incoming stimulation is more intense b. are seldom strong enough to reach the terminal buttons c. travel more slowly if the incoming stimulation is less intense d. are generated in an all-or-none fashion 3. An electric potential that increases the likelihood that the postsynaptic neuron will fire is called an a. all-or-none potential b. inhibitory postsynaptic potential c. excitatory postsynaptic potential d. excitatory presynaptic potential 4. Which of the following is the correct sequence of steps through which neurotransmitters progress during synaptic transmission? a. synthesis, release, binding, inactivation, reuptake b. release, synthesis, binding, reuptake, inactivation c. binding, synthesis, release, inactivation, reuptake d. synthesis, binding, release, reuptake, inactivation 5. When a neurotransmitter is released, but it does not fit into a suitable receptor channel on the postsynaptic neuron a. an inhibitory postsynaptic potential will be generated b. an excitatory postsynaptic potential will be generated c. the strength of the action potential in the presynaptic neuron will increase d. the firing potential of the postsynaptic neuron will not be affected 6. A good analogy for the way in which a neurotransmitter binds to receptor sites is a. the opening and closing of a window b. a key fitting in the lock of a door c. the lowering of a drawbridge d. the pulling of the trigger of a gun 4 7. Ian has been in a coma since he was in a serious car accident. He is still on medical life support because he is unable to breathe and his heart will not beat without assistance. It is likely that the accident caused damage to Ian’s a. medulla b. hypothalamus c. cerebellum d. midbrain 8. Edmund was walking down a dark street when he heard a car backfire. His heart started to race and he began to perspire in response to this sudden, startling noise. These physical reactions were triggered by Edmund’s a. parasympathetic nervous system b. somatic nervous system c. sympathetic nervous system d. cerebellum 9. Robyn has just eaten a full meal and is now relaxing. Robyn’s __________ is in primary control at this time. a. sympathetic nervous system b. parasympathetic nervous system c. hormonal system d. thyroid gland 10. The central nervous system consists of a. the body’s sensory and motor neurons b. the brain and the spinal cord c. the somatic and autonomic nervous systems d. the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems 11. If a person has a brain tumor that results in a disruption of his/her eating behavior, which of the following areas is the most likely location of the tumor? a. brainstem b. cerebellum c. thalamus d. hypothalamus 12. Imagine that you have stumbled across a secret laboratory where an evil scientist is conducting unauthorized brain research. By altering brain structures he has created superheroes who have specialized powers or abilities. One of these superheroes is absolutely fearless and willing to undertake extremely dangerous missions. In this case, the brain structure that the scientist most likely altered would be a. the medulla b. the cerebellum c. the midbrain 5 d. the amygdale 13. Surgically disconnecting the cerebral hemispheres has its origins in the treatment of a. epileptics b. people in comas c. schizophrenics d. psychopaths 14. In both split-brain people and neurologically intact people, the left hemisphere specializes in a. verbal processing b. visual recognition c. spatial perception d. verbal processing and spatial perception 1. Pavlov found that meat powder placed on a dog’s tongue will make the dog salivate. In Pavlov’s terms, the meat powder is a. an unconditioned stimulus b. an unconditioned response c. a conditioned stimulus d. a conditioned response 2. In Pavlov’s original experiment on classical conditioning, the unconditioned response (UCR) was a. the sound of a tone b. salivation elicited by a tone c. the presentation of meat powder following a tone d. salivation elicited by meat powder 3. In classical conditioning, the stimulus that naturally evokes an unlearned response is the a. conditioned stimulus b. unconditioned stimulus c. unconditioned reinforcer d. conditioned reinforcer 4. In classical conditioning, the stimulus that is originally neutral in regard to the response to be learned is the a. unconditioned stimulus b. unconditioned response c. conditioned stimulus d. conditioned response 6 5. Veronica had been working at Zenex Industries for 8 months when her boss asked to see her in his office. She thought he wanted to talk about a promotion so she was quite excited, but instead of giving her a promotion, the boss told Veronica she was being laid off as a result of company downsizing. Veronica could feel her heart pounding as she listened to the news. Veronica was able to get a new job, but every time her new boss asks to talk to her in private, Veronica feels a little faint. In this example, the unconditioned response is a. the bad news from her boss at Zenex Industries b. her new boss asking for a private meeting c. her pounding heart when she heard she was being laid off d. the faintness she feels when her new boss wants to talk to her in private 6. One Saturday, Lacey was sitting at home when the telephone rang. A local company was making promotional calls and told Lacey she had just won a $1000 gift certificate. She felt a rush of excitement at the thought of what she could do with $1000. Now Lacey finds that whenever she hears a telephone ring, she feels a surge of excitement. In this example, the rush of excitement that Lacey felt when she heard she had won the gift certificate is a. the conditioned stimulus b. the unconditioned stimulus c. the unconditioned response d. the conditioned response 7. Danny’s skill at hitting a baseball gradually improves as his attempts produce more frequent and longer-distance hits. This is an example of a. shaping b. stimulus generalization c. extinction d. stimulus discrimination 8. In a variable-ratio schedule, the reinforcer is given a. after a fixed number of nonreinforced responses b. after a variable number of nonreinforced responses c. for the first response that occurs after a fixed amount of time has elapsed d. for the first response that occurs after a variable amount of time has elapsed 9. Mark is listening as his roommate lists 14 things that they need to buy for their apartment before the end of the week. Based on George Miller’s research into the capacity of short-term memory, if Mark doesn’t write the items down as he hears them, he is MOST likely to remember a. less than 5 of the items from the list b. approximately 10 to 12 items from the list c. the entire list d. between 5 and 9 items from the list 7 10. Jade rearranges the letters HI TRE DBA T into “hit red bat.” This is an example of a. chunking b. elaboration c. rehearsal d. clustering 11. Ebbinghaus’ original forgetting curves, which graphed his retention over time, suggested that MOST forgetting occurs a. very gradually over long periods of time b. only after several days have passed c. as a result of interference with other information d. very rapidly after learning something 12. You move to a new house and memorize your new phone number. Now, you can’t remember your old phone number. This is an example of a. retroactive interference b. proactive interference c. retrograde amnesia d. motivated forgetting 13. Curtis has been testing a new software package for the past two months. However, he decides not to switch and he goes back to using his old software. Unfortunately, he is now having some problems in recalling how to do certain tasks with the old software, and often finds himself trying to do things the way he did with the new software he was testing. Curtis’ problems illustrate the effects of a. retroactive interference b. state-dependent forgetting c. proactive interference d. memory reconstruction 14. Proactive interference occurs when a. new information impairs the retention of previously learned information b. previously learned information interferes with the retention of new information c. a person loses memories of events that occurred prior to a head injury d. a person loses memories of events that occur after a head injury 15. Your female friend recently got married and changed her last name to that of her husband’s. You have difficulty remembering her new last name because of a. proactive interference b. retroactive interference c. memory decay d. response inhibition 16. Explaining the rules of a games involves using _________memory 8 a. b. c. d. Episodic Declarative Procedural Short Term 17. Demonstrating how to play a game involves using ______ memory. a. Episodic b. Declarative c. Procedural d. Short Term 18. Piaget believed that children first become capable of hypothetical thinking during the a. concrete operational stage b. sensorimotor stage c. formal operational stage d. preoperational stage 23. Harlow found that _________________ creates attachment. a. Giving an infant food b. Giving an infant water c. Giving an infant contact comfort d. Giving an infant shelter 24.Two trays holding the same numbers of candies are placed in front of a group of children. The children watch as one tray of candies is spread apart, while the other tray of candies is not moved at all.. The children are then asked, "Does one tray have the same, more, or less candy than the other tray?" Which child is most likely to correctly state that the trays have the same amount of candy? a. Alan who is two b. Brandon who is four c. Carol who is five d. Debbie who is eight 25.Individuals who base their moral judgments on avoiding punishment from an authority figure are in the ______________ phase of moral development. a. preoperational b. postoperational c. preconventional d. Conventional 13. For the original version of the Stanford-Binet, IQ was defined as: A) mental age multiplied by 100. B) chronological age subtracted from mental age and multiplied by 100. C) chronological age divided by mental age and multiplied by 100. D) mental age divided by chronological age and multiplied by 100. 9 12. Five-year-old Wilbur performs on an intelligence test at a level characteristic of an average 4-year-old. Wilbur's mental age is: A) 4. B) 4.5. C) 5. D) 80. 20. If a test yields consistent results every time it is used, it has a high degree of: A) standardization. B) predictive validity. C) reliability. D) content validity. 31. Which of the following observations provides the best evidence that intelligence test scores are influenced by heredity? A) Japanese children have higher average intelligence scores than do American children. B) Fraternal twins are more similar in their intelligence scores than are ordinary siblings. C) The intelligence scores of children are positively correlated with the intelligence scores of their parents. D) Identical twins reared separately are more similar in their intelligence scores than fraternal twins reared together. 37. For a thirsty person, drinking water serves to reduce: A) a drive. B) an instinct. C) the set point. D) basal metabolic rate. 45. According to Maslow, our need for ________ must be met before we are preoccupied with satisfying our need for ________. A) love; food B) adequate clothing; self-esteem C) self-actualization; friendship D) political freedom; economic security 56. The idea that an emotion-arousing stimulus is simultaneously routed to the cortex and to the sympathetic nervous system is central to the: A) James-Lange theory. B) relative deprivation principle. C) two-factor theory. D) Cannon-Bard theory. 10 58. According to the James-Lange theory, we experience emotion ________ we notice our physiological arousal. According to the Cannon-Bard theory we experience emotion ________ we become physiologically aroused. A) before; before B) before; after C) after; at the same time as D) at the same time as; after 61. The two-factor theory of emotion places more emphasis on the importance of ________ than does the James-Lange theory. A) cognitive activity B) subjective well-being C) physiological arousal D) catharsis 5. According to psychoanalytic theory, the part of the personality that strives for immediate gratification of basic drives is the: A) id. B) ego. C) superego. D) collective unconscious. 6. According to Freud, the part of personality that represents our sense of right and wrong and our ideal standards is the: A) collective unconscious. B) ego. C) id. D) superego. 7. No matter how long and hard Lerae studies, she always feels she hasn't studied as much as she should have. A Freudian psychologist would suggest that Lerae shows signs of a: A) weak id. B) weak ego. C) strong id. D) strong superego. 12. Four-year-old Timmy has not wet his bed for over a year. However, he starts bedwetting again soon after his sister is born. Timmy's behavior best illustrates: A) reaction formation. B) projection. C) regression. D) displacement. 11 21. Abraham Maslow suggested that those who fulfill their potential have satisfied the need for: A) reciprocal determinism. B) an external locus of control. C) self-actualization. D) unconditional positive regard. ANSWER KEY 12. Psychology is the study of the mind. It is a separate and unique scientific endeavor. These words would most likely have been said by a. Wilhelm Wundt b. William James c. B. F. Skinner d. Abraham Maslow 13. Manny tends to be very passive and allows people to take advantage of him. What would a humanist be most likely to say about Manny? a. Manny will find it difficult to change because he probably has deep-seated feelings of inferiority. b. Manny can become more assertive once he begins to feel better about himself and recognizes that he has the ability to fulfill his potential. c. Manny simply needs to take an assertiveness training class in which he can learn and practice assertive behaviors. 14. Hiding in the bushes to note the number of couples displaying affection publicly is an example of a a. Correlational study b. Naturalistic Observation c. Experiment d. Case Study 15. The experiment is a research method in which the investigator a. systematically observes two variables to see whether there is an association between them b. observes behavior as it occurs in its natural environment c. conducts an in-depth investigation of an individual subject d. manipulates a variable under carefully controlled conditions and observes whether there are changes in a second variable as a result 16. Researchers who were studying plant growth raised plants in two separate rooms. One room had taped conversations playing 24 hours a day; the other room was silent. The researchers found that the plants grew better in the room which had the conversations playing. In this study, the type of room (conversation or silence) would be a. the dependent variable 12 b. an extraneous variable c. a placebo d. the independent variable 17. A group of researchers wants to determine if people are more likely to follow directions if the person giving the directions is in a uniform. Half the participants are directed to a parking spot by a uniformed security guard, the other half are directed to a parking spot by an individual wearing blue jeans and a t-shirt. In this study, the dependent variable would be a. the number of participants who park in the spot they are directed to b. the type of clothing worn by the person giving the directions c. the gender of the person driving into the parking lot d. the distance between the parking spot and the entrance 18. David and Alexandra both take part in a research study that is investigating the effects of sleep deprivation on reaction time. David is kept awake for 24 hours straight, while Alexandra follows her normal sleep routine. In this study, David is part of the a. hypothesis group b. experimental group c. control group d. dependent variable group 19. The purpose of the control group is to a. make the experiment more complex b. isolate the effect of the independent variable on the dependent variable c. make statistical significance more likely d. isolate the effect of the dependent variable on the independent variable 20. The experimental group a. consists of the subjects who receive some special treatment with regard to the independent variable b. consists of the subjects who receive some special treatment with regard to the dependent variable c. consists of the subjects who do not receive the special treatment d. must be chosen so as to be as different from the control group as possible 21. Dr. Macator predicts that people will act more aggressively during the heat waves of summer than they will during the cold spells of winter. This suggests that Dr. Macator believes that temperature and level of aggression are a. negatively correlated b. independent variables c. uncorrelated d. positively correlated 13 22. Of the following, the correlation coefficient that indicates the STRONGEST relationship between the two variables being measured is a. +0.65 b. -0.89 c. 0.00 d. +3.45 15. __________ receive information from other neurons; __________ transmit information to other neurons. a. Axons; synapses b. Dendrites; axons c. Synapses; dendrites d. Axons; dendrites 16. Action potentials a. are stronger when the incoming stimulation is more intense b. are seldom strong enough to reach the terminal buttons c. travel more slowly if the incoming stimulation is less intense d. are generated in an all-or-none fashion 17. An electric potential that increases the likelihood that the postsynaptic neuron will fire is called an a. all-or-none potential b. inhibitory postsynaptic potential c. excitatory postsynaptic potential d. excitatory presynaptic potential 18. Which of the following is the correct sequence of steps through which neurotransmitters progress during synaptic transmission? a. synthesis, release, binding, inactivation, reuptake b. release, synthesis, binding, reuptake, inactivation c. binding, synthesis, release, inactivation, reuptake d. synthesis, binding, release, reuptake, inactivation 19. When a neurotransmitter is released, but it does not fit into a suitable receptor channel on the postsynaptic neuron a. an inhibitory postsynaptic potential will be generated b. an excitatory postsynaptic potential will be generated c. the strength of the action potential in the presynaptic neuron will increase d. the firing potential of the postsynaptic neuron will not be affected 20. A good analogy for the way in which a neurotransmitter binds to receptor sites is a. the opening and closing of a window 14 b. a key fitting in the lock of a door c. the lowering of a drawbridge d. the pulling of the trigger of a gun 21. Ian has been in a coma since he was in a serious car accident. He is still on medical life support because he is unable to breathe and his heart will not beat without assistance. It is likely that the accident caused damage to Ian’s a. medulla b. hypothalamus c. cerebellum d. midbrain 22. Edmund was walking down a dark street when he heard a car backfire. His heart started to race and he began to perspire in response to this sudden, startling noise. These physical reactions were triggered by Edmund’s a. parasympathetic nervous system b. somatic nervous system c. sympathetic nervous system d. cerebellum 23. Robyn has just eaten a full meal and is now relaxing. Robyn’s __________ is in primary control at this time. a. sympathetic nervous system b. parasympathetic nervous system c. hormonal system d. thyroid gland 24. The central nervous system consists of a. the body’s sensory and motor neurons b. the brain and the spinal cord c. the somatic and autonomic nervous systems d. the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems 25. If a person has a brain tumor that results in a disruption of his/her eating behavior, which of the following areas is the most likely location of the tumor? a. brainstem b. cerebellum c. thalamus d. hypothalamus 26. Imagine that you have stumbled across a secret laboratory where an evil scientist is conducting unauthorized brain research. By altering brain structures he has created superheroes who have specialized powers or abilities. One of these superheroes is 15 absolutely fearless and willing to undertake extremely dangerous missions. In this case, the brain structure that the scientist most likely altered would be a. the medulla b. the cerebellum c. the midbrain d. the amygdala 27. Surgically disconnecting the cerebral hemispheres has its origins in the treatment of a. Those with epilepsy b. people in comas c. those with schizophrenia d. those with psychopathy 28. In both split-brain people and neurologically intact people, the left hemisphere specializes in a. verbal processing b. visual recognition c. spatial perception d. verbal processing and spatial perception 18. Pavlov found that meat powder placed on a dog’s tongue will make the dog salivate. In Pavlov’s terms, the meat powder is a. an unconditioned stimulus b. an unconditioned response c. a conditioned stimulus d. a conditioned response 19. In Pavlov’s original experiment on classical conditioning, the unconditioned response (UCR) was a. the sound of a tone b. salivation elicited by a tone c. the presentation of meat powder following a tone d. salivation elicited by meat powder 20. In classical conditioning, the stimulus that naturally evokes an unlearned response is the a. conditioned stimulus b. unconditioned stimulus c. unconditioned reinforcer d. conditioned reinforcer 21. In classical conditioning, the stimulus that is originally neutral in regard to the response to be learned is the 16 a. b. c. d. unconditioned stimulus unconditioned response conditioned stimulus conditioned response 22. Veronica had been working at Zenex Industries for 8 months when her boss asked to see her in his office. She thought he wanted to talk about a promotion so she was quite excited, but instead of giving her a promotion, the boss told Veronica she was being laid off as a result of company downsizing. Veronica could feel her heart pounding as she listened to the news. Veronica was able to get a new job, but every time her new boss asks to talk to her in private, Veronica feels a little faint. In this example, the unconditioned response is a. the bad news from her boss at Zenex Industries b. her new boss asking for a private meeting c. her pounding heart when she heard she was being laid off d. the faintness she feels when her new boss wants to talk to her in private 23. One Saturday, Lacey was sitting at home when the telephone rang. A local company was making promotional calls and told Lacey she had just won a $1000 gift certificate. She felt a rush of excitement at the thought of what she could do with $1000. Now Lacey finds that whenever she hears a telephone ring, she feels a surge of excitement. In this example, the rush of excitement that Lacey felt when she heard she had won the gift certificate is a. the conditioned stimulus b. the unconditioned stimulus c. the unconditioned response d. the conditioned response 24. Danny’s skill at hitting a baseball gradually improves as his attempts produce more frequent and longer-distance hits. This is an example of a. shaping b. stimulus generalization c. extinction d. stimulus discrimination 25. In a variable-ratio schedule, the reinforcer is given a. after a fixed number of nonreinforced responses b. after a variable number of nonreinforced responses c. for the first response that occurs after a fixed amount of time has elapsed d. for the first response that occurs after a variable amount of time has elapsed 26. Mark is listening as his roommate lists 14 things that they need to buy for their apartment before the end of the week. Based on George Miller’s research into the 17 capacity of short-term memory, if Mark doesn’t write the items down as he hears them, he is MOST likely to remember a. less than 5 of the items from the list b. approximately 10 to 12 items from the list c. the entire list d. between 5 and 9 items from the list 27. Jade rearranges the letters HI TRE DBA T into “hit red bat.” This is an example of a. chunking b. elaboration c. rehearsal d. clustering 28. Ebbinghaus’ original forgetting curves, which graphed his retention over time, suggested that MOST forgetting occurs a. very gradually over long periods of time b. only after several days have passed c. as a result of interference with other information d. very rapidly after learning something 29. You move to a new house and memorize your new phone number. Now, you can’t remember your old phone number. This is an example of a. retroactive interference b. proactive interference c. retrograde amnesia d. motivated forgetting 30. Curtis has been testing a new software package for the past two months. However, he decides not to switch and he goes back to using his old software. Unfortunately, he is now having some problems in recalling how to do certain tasks with the old software, and often finds himself trying to do things the way he did with the new software he was testing. Curtis’ problems illustrate the effects of a. retroactive interference b. state-dependent forgetting c. proactive interference d. memory reconstruction 31. Proactive interference occurs when a. new information impairs the retention of previously learned information b. previously learned information interferes with the retention of new information c. a person loses memories of events that occurred prior to a head injury d. a person loses memories of events that occur after a head injury 32. Your female friend recently got married and changed her last name to that of her husband’s. You have difficulty remembering her new last name because of 18 a. b. c. d. proactive interference retroactive interference memory decay response inhibition 33. Explaining the rules of a games involves using _________memory a. Episodic b. Declarative c. Procedural d. Short Term 34. Demonstrating how to play a game involves using ______ memory. a. Episodic b. Declarative c. Procedural d. Short Term 18. Piaget believed that children first become capable of hypothetical thinking during the a. concrete operational stage b. sensorimotor stage c. formal operational stage d. preoperational stage 23. Harlow found that _________________ creates attachment. a. Giving an infant food b. Giving an infant water c. Giving an infant contact comfort d. Giving an infant shelter 24.Two trays holding the same numbers of candies are placed in front of a group of children. The children watch as one tray of candies is spread apart, while the other tray of candies is not moved at all.. The children are then asked, "Does one tray have the same, more, or less candy than the other tray?" Which child is most likely to correctly state that the trays have the same amount of candy? a. Alan who is two b. Brandon who is four c. Carol who is five d. Debbie who is eight 25.Individuals who base their moral judgments on avoiding punishment from an authority figure are in the ______________ phase of moral development. a. preoperational b. postoperational c. preconventional d. Conventional 19 13. For the original version of the Stanford-Binet, IQ was defined as: A) mental age multiplied by 100. B) chronological age subtracted from mental age and multiplied by 100. C) chronological age divided by mental age and multiplied by 100. D) mental age divided by chronological age and multiplied by 100. 12. Five-year-old Wilbur performs on an intelligence test at a level characteristic of an average 4-year-old. Wilbur's mental age is: A) 4. B) 4.5. C) 5. D) 80. 20. If a test yields consistent results every time it is used, it has a high degree of: A) standardization. B) predictive validity. C) reliability. D) content validity. 31. Which of the following observations provides the best evidence that intelligence test scores are influenced by heredity? A) Japanese children have higher average intelligence scores than do American children. B) Fraternal twins are more similar in their intelligence scores than are ordinary siblings. C) The intelligence scores of children are positively correlated with the intelligence scores of their parents. D) Identical twins reared separately are more similar in their intelligence scores than fraternal twins reared together. 37. For a thirsty person, drinking water serves to reduce: A) a drive. B) an instinct. C) the set point. D) basal metabolic rate. 45. According to Maslow, our need for ________ must be met before we are preoccupied with satisfying our need for ________. A) love; food B) adequate clothing; self-esteem C) self-actualization; friendship D) political freedom; economic security 20 56. The idea that an emotion-arousing stimulus is simultaneously routed to the cortex and to the sympathetic nervous system is central to the: A) James-Lange theory. B) relative deprivation principle. C) two-factor theory. D) Cannon-Bard theory. 58. According to the James-Lange theory, we experience emotion ________ we notice our physiological arousal. According to the Cannon-Bard theory we experience emotion ________ we become physiologically aroused. A) before; before B) before; after C) after; at the same time as D) at the same time as; after 61. The two-factor theory of emotion places more emphasis on the importance of ________ than does the James-Lange theory. A) cognitive activity B) subjective well-being C) physiological arousal D) catharsis 5. According to psychoanalytic theory, the part of the personality that strives for immediate gratification of basic drives is the: A) id. B) ego. C) superego. D) collective unconscious. 6. According to Freud, the part of personality that represents our sense of right and wrong and our ideal standards is the: A) collective unconscious. B) ego. C) id. D) superego. 7. No matter how long and hard Lerae studies, she always feels she hasn't studied as much as she should have. A Freudian psychologist would suggest that Lerae shows signs of a: A) weak id. B) weak ego. C) strong id. D) strong superego. 21 12. Four-year-old Timmy has not wet his bed for over a year. However, he starts bedwetting again soon after his sister is born. Timmy's behavior best illustrates: A) reaction formation. B) projection. C) regression. D) displacement. 21. Abraham Maslow suggested that those who fulfill their potential have satisfied the need for: A) reciprocal determinism. B) an external locus of control. C) self-actualization. D) unconditional positive regard.